Psyc20006 - Biological Psychology

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1. Which of the following statement about TMS is NOT true?

Explanation

TMS is a powerful tool to investigate the causal involvement of brain regions in cognitive processes. TMS induces a short-lived 'virtual lesion' by injecting 'neural noise'. 'Virtual lesions' induced by TMS are not permanent. However, the statement that TMS penetrates deeper brain structures and can be used to stimulate the midbrain is not true. TMS is generally used to stimulate the outer layers of the brain, specifically the cortex, and it is not capable of reaching deeper brain structures such as the midbrain.

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Psyc20006 - Biological Psychology - Quiz

Explore key concepts in Biological Psychology with this PSYC20006 quiz. Assess your understanding of EEGs, cortical functions, and statistical analysis in neuroscience. Ideal for students seeking to deepen... see moretheir knowledge in neuropsychological mechanisms and diagnostic techniques. see less

2. In Amassian and colleagues' (1989) study, when TMS was applied 4 cm to the left of the centre over primary visual cortex

Explanation

In Amassian and colleagues' (1989) study, when TMS was applied 4 cm to the left of the center over the primary visual cortex, participants had problems reporting the letter displayed on the right. This suggests that the TMS applied to the left side of the primary visual cortex disrupted the processing of visual information from the right visual field, leading to difficulties in accurately reporting the letter displayed on the right.

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3. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood decreases the BOLD signal (it is paramagnetic)

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4. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Cocaine acts to increase alertness whilst caffeine acts to reduce tiredness

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5. It was thought that vaccinations might cause epilepsy. However two Melbourne researchers first identify some of the genes associated with epilepsy and then showed that 

Explanation

The given answer, "d. all of the above," is correct because the explanation provided in the question supports all three options. It states that vaccinations can cause high fevers in some children, and these fevers can trigger the first epileptic event. Additionally, it mentions that children with epilepsy genes who did not receive vaccinations still ended up getting epilepsy, indicating that there are other factors contributing to the development of epilepsy. Lastly, it mentions that some children with epilepsy genes had seizures before they received vaccinations, suggesting that vaccinations are not the sole cause of epilepsy.

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6. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 

Explanation

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7. Which of the following statements about statistical testing is NOT true?

Explanation

Statistical tests cannot provide direct proof that the H1 hypothesis is true. Instead, statistical tests are used to determine the likelihood or probability of obtaining the observed effect or result under the null hypothesis. The H1 hypothesis is the alternative hypothesis, which suggests that there is a significant difference or relationship between variables. However, statistical tests can only provide evidence against the null hypothesis, not direct proof for the alternative hypothesis.

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8. What is an independent-measures design?

Explanation

An independent-measures design refers to an experimental design where the values for the dependent variable are obtained from different groups of people in each experimental condition. This means that the participants in each group are independent from each other and are not the same individuals. This design allows for the comparison of the effects of different conditions or treatments on different groups of participants, providing a way to assess the impact of the independent variable on the dependent variable.

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9. Independent of the specific test, the t-test equation always contains...

Explanation

The t-test equation always contains the difference between the population mean and the sample mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the standard error of the mean (of the measure of interest). This equation is used to calculate the t-value, which is then compared to a critical value to determine if the difference between the sample mean and the population mean is statistically significant. The standard error of the mean takes into account the variability of the sample mean and provides a measure of how accurately the sample mean represents the population mean.

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10. Which statement about effect sizes is true?

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer is that both r2 and Cohen's d are effect size measures, but only Cohen's d is truly independent of the sample size. The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the proportion of variance in the dependent variable that can be explained by the independent variable, but it is influenced by the sample size. On the other hand, Cohen's d measures the standardized difference between two means and is not affected by the sample size. Therefore, Cohen's d is a more robust measure of effect size when comparing groups of different sizes.

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11. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

More addictive drugs are released faster than less addictive drugs

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12. Which of the following statements about Nitric Oxide (NO) is FALSE? 

Explanation

Nitric oxide (NO) is a gas that acts as a neurotransmitter in the body. It was once named "molecule of the year" and its discovery as a neurotransmitter led to the awarding of a Nobel Prize. NO is indeed very short-lived after it is released by the cell. However, NO does not activate receptors on both the pre- and post-synaptic neuron. Instead, it diffuses freely across cell membranes and activates an enzyme called guanylate cyclase, which then produces a signaling molecule called cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP). This cGMP then mediates the effects of NO in the target cell.

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13. Because fMRI is non-radioactive the same subject can be scanned repeatedly. 

Explanation

fMRI, or functional magnetic resonance imaging, uses magnetic fields to measure brain activity. Unlike other imaging techniques that use radioactive substances, fMRI is non-radioactive. This means that it is safe for the same subject to undergo multiple scans without any health risks. Therefore, the statement that the same subject can be scanned repeatedly with fMRI is true.

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14. Hebb's rule: 

Explanation

Hebb's rule describes long-term potentiation. Long-term potentiation is a process in which the strength of synaptic connections between neurons is increased, leading to enhanced communication and improved memory formation. This rule states that when two neurons are repeatedly activated at the same time, the connection between them is strengthened, resulting in more efficient transmission of signals. This explanation aligns with the given correct answer.

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15. The maximum spatial resolution of fMRI is approximately 

Explanation

fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) is a neuroimaging technique that measures changes in blood flow in the brain. The spatial resolution of fMRI refers to the level of detail at which it can detect brain activity. The correct answer, b. 1 - 3 mm, suggests that the maximum spatial resolution of fMRI is between 1 and 3 millimeters. This means that fMRI can detect brain activity at a relatively fine level of detail, allowing researchers to localize brain functions to specific regions within the brain.

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16. Why is apple juice not addictive even if you think it is delicious? 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. because the dopamine neurons do not signal the "deliciousness" as better than expected. This means that even though apple juice may be delicious, it does not activate the brain's reward system in the same way that addictive substances or activities do. Dopamine neurons are responsible for signaling rewards and motivating individuals to seek out more of those rewards. In the case of apple juice, the brain does not perceive it as a reward worth seeking out, therefore it is not addictive.

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17. Select the correct order from the list of words below to correctly complete this paragraph. ______[1]_______, is synthesised from _______[2]________ (an amino acid found in food). In the brain this compound is then turned into ______[3]________. Parkinson's Disease can result if there is insufficient levels of this neuromodulator. One treatment is brain stimulation. Another treatment is the drug ________[4]_________.

Explanation

Dopamine, a neurotransmitter, is synthesized from Tyrosine, an amino acid found in food. In the brain, Tyrosine is converted into DOPA, which is further converted into Dopamine. Insufficient levels of Dopamine can lead to Parkinson's Disease. One treatment for this condition is brain stimulation, while another treatment involves the use of the drug L-DOPA.

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18. Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is FALSE? 

Explanation

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19. What is the main danger associated with fMRI? 

Explanation

The main danger associated with fMRI is the strong magnetic field. During an fMRI scan, the patient is exposed to a powerful magnetic field, which can cause certain risks. These risks include attracting metal objects in the body, such as surgical implants or pacemakers, which can be dangerous if they move or heat up. Additionally, the strong magnetic field can cause dizziness, nausea, or even induce seizures in some individuals. It is important to screen patients thoroughly before conducting an fMRI scan to ensure their safety.

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20. In regards to epilepsy, which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Simple partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness) and complete partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)

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21. Which of the following is incorrect of the patient HM?

Explanation

After his surgery, HM had improvements in his condition such as fewer seizures, a normal IQ, a normal attention span, and retrograde and anterograde amnesia. However, he still struggled with procedural memory, which is the type of memory that involves learning and performing tasks or skills. On the other hand, his declarative memory, which is the type of memory that involves facts and events, gradually returned over time.

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22. An autosomal dominant trait is exhibited by a father, but not by a mother. Which of the following is most likely to be true? 

Explanation

For this sort of question, you'll need to take what you know about different modes of inheritance, and work through the logical steps to arrive at your answer. If there is a similar question in the examination, it will be of similar difficulty—as I said in the lecture, you won't need to be able to work through a whole pedigree map to determine the mode of inheritance.

Here, you first need to recall that an autosomal trait is one carried on one of the 22 chromosomes of which we all have two copies. This is different from an X-linked trait, carried on the X chromosome, of which genetic males have one copy and genetic females have two. Next, you need to recall that a dominant trait is one that will be exhibited even if it is only carried on one of the two copies of the chromsome. This is different from a recessive trait, which will only be exhibited if it is carried on both copies.

So, first off, we can deduce that the genetic sex of the offspring should have nothing to do with the probability of inheriting the trait, because the trait is autosomal. That means we are left to calculate the probabilities and see whether they match options (c) or (d).

In this example, we can deduce that the mother doesn't carry the trait on either chromosome; because it is a domininant trait, she would exhibit it if she carried it at all. We can deduce that the father most likely* carries the trait on one of two chromosomes (it is a dominant trait, so only one of the two is required in order for him to exhibit the trait).

Likewise, any offspring would only need to inherit the trait on one of two chromsomes in order to exhibit it. It's not going to come from the mother, as we have established she doesn't carry the trait on either chromosome. But there is a one in two (50%) chance that the genetic material contributed by the father will come from the chromosome carrying the trait. This means there is a 50% chance that any offspring will inherit that material. And as a dominant trait, we can thus conclude that each of their offspring has a 50% chance of exhibiting the trait.

* Note that, in fact, it would be possible that the father carries the trait on both chromosomes. In that case, all offspring would inherit the trait from their father on one chromosome. And it would always be expressed, because one chromosome is enough for a dominant trait. If you picked that up, well done. But note that 100% isn't an option given in the answers, and the question asks which of the options is most likely to be true. So you can still be confident in selecting (c).

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23. Which of the following statements about clinically diagnosed depression are FALSE? 

Explanation

The statement that diagnosis depends on the severity of the depression rather than the duration of time that the depressed symptoms have been experienced is FALSE. In clinical practice, the duration of time that the depressed symptoms have been experienced is an important factor in diagnosing depression. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) requires that symptoms be present for at least two weeks for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Severity is also considered but is not the sole determinant of diagnosis.

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24. Which of the following statements DOES NOT provide a basis for the "Serotonin Vulnerability" model of depression? 

Explanation

The "Serotonin Vulnerability" model of depression suggests that impaired serotonin function may be a risk factor for developing depression. This model focuses on serotonin, not cortisol or other hormones involved in the body's stress response. Therefore, statement a, which discusses the impact of stress on cortisol production, does not provide a basis for the "Serotonin Vulnerability" model of depression.

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25. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

SSRI's are slow acting and often take weeks for any therapeutic effects to be achieved

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26. A figure-eight TMS coil has the strongest effect

Explanation

The figure-eight TMS coil has the strongest effect in the center where both parts meet, with a radius of 3-4 mm. This means that the area where the two parts of the figure-eight coil intersect is where the magnetic field is most concentrated and has the greatest impact. The radius of 3-4 mm indicates the distance from the center where the effect is strongest, suggesting that the magnetic field extends outward from this point but gradually decreases in strength.

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27. The hippocampal formation: 

Explanation

The hippocampal formation includes the dentate gyrus and subiculum. The entorhinal and perirhinal cortices are not part of the hippocampal formation. Additionally, the hippocampal formation is not part of the lateral temporal lobes.

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28. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The more salient the stimulus the bigger the burst of LC neurons and NA

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29. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, Naloxone is a full antagonist and is used to counter heroin overdose and Methadone is an agonist, but is less addictive due to its slower release

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30. Semantic memory: 

Explanation

Semantic memory refers to the long-term memory system that stores general knowledge and factual information about the world. It allows individuals to acquire and retain information about concepts, facts, and meanings without the need for personal experiences or autonoetic awareness. Therefore, the statement "All of the above" is the correct answer as it encompasses all the mentioned characteristics of semantic memory.

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31. Which statement about repetitive TMS (rTMS) is true?

Explanation

rTMS can be used to investigate whether (and for how long) a specific cognitive task is impaired. This statement accurately describes one of the uses of repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS). By applying rTMS to specific regions of the brain, researchers can assess the impact on cognitive tasks and determine if there is any impairment. The duration of the impairment can also be assessed, providing valuable insights into the effects of rTMS on cognitive functioning. This use of rTMS is different from its application for treating depression, as stated in another option, and it is not used as a head massage tool, as mentioned in another option.

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32. The error-related negativity (ERN) is 

Explanation

The correct answer is a negative deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after an erroneous response as compared to a correct response. The error-related negativity (ERN) refers to a negative deflection in the brain's electrical activity that occurs around 80-100 ms after making an error. This means that the brain's response is more negative (or less positive) following an incorrect response compared to a correct response. This suggests that the ERN reflects the brain's detection and evaluation of errors, helping to monitor and adjust behavior.

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33. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator cannot be used interchangeably in most cases. While neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit signals across a synapse, neuromodulators are substances that modulate the activity of neurons and neurotransmitters. Neuromodulators can affect the release, synthesis, or reuptake of neurotransmitters, but they are not considered neurotransmitters themselves.

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34. Which of the following is false of MRI methods

Explanation

The statement that magnetisation on the z-axis is easily measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI is false. In MRI, magnetisation on the z-axis is actually difficult to measure because it is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The movement of the magnetisation is actually in the transverse plane, which is perpendicular to the magnetic field. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

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35. Which is incorrect of Alzheimers disease?

Explanation

Individuals with down's syndrome have an increased risk of developing DAT
Apolipoprotein E (APOE) is a protein involved in the metabolism of fats in the body. It is implicated in Alzheimer's disease and cardiovascular disease. APOE belongs to a family of fat-binding proteins called apolipoproteins.

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36. Which one is incorrect?

Explanation

LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA1 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex)

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37. Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) demonstrated using fMRI that... 

Explanation

Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) used fMRI to demonstrate that there is a specific brain region in the fusiform gyrus that is more strongly activated when individuals view faces compared to objects. This finding suggests that there is a specialized area in the brain dedicated to processing facial information, highlighting the importance of faces in human perception and social interaction.

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38. Accoriding to Poldrack (2006), what is important to consider for correctly interpreting fMRI results with respect to cognitive processes? 

Explanation

The correct answer is important because it addresses two key considerations in interpreting fMRI results. Firstly, it emphasizes the importance of ensuring that the task being used in the study specifically measures the cognitive process of interest, without any confounding factors. Secondly, it highlights the need to determine whether a brain region is exclusively activated during the specific cognitive task, indicating a strong association between the task and the brain region. These considerations are crucial for accurately interpreting fMRI findings and drawing valid conclusions about the relationship between cognitive processes and brain activity.

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39. Which of these methods allows testing for a causal involvement of a brain region in a cognitive process? 

Explanation

TMS (transcranial magnetic stimulation) allows testing for a causal involvement of a brain region in a cognitive process. Unlike fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) and EEG (electroencephalography) which measure brain activity, TMS directly stimulates specific brain regions using magnetic fields, temporarily disrupting their activity and allowing researchers to observe the effects on cognitive processes. Therefore, TMS is the only method listed that can establish a causal relationship between brain regions and cognitive processes.

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40. The NMDA glutamate receptor is an ion channel that allows calcium to enter the cell. It is particularly complex because it has multiple binding sites inside and outside of the cell that are sensitive to specific compounds. In addition to glutamate being bound to the receptor, for it to function properly 

Explanation

The NMDA glutamate receptor requires a glycine molecule to be bound to the receptor in order to function properly. Additionally, a magnesium ion cannot be bound to the receptor. Both of these conditions are necessary for the receptor to function correctly.

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41. Which of the following is false in regards to depression?

Explanation

Serotonin function is important in managing the feedback control of the brain's stress response

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42. Which of the following is an incorrect summary of the medial temporal lobe and memory function?

Explanation

The  neocortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)

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43. Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Malach and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field

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44. Experiments using an adapted version of rock-paper-scissors showed that 

Explanation

Pupil dilation accompanies a decision and it is possible to see this pupil diameter without any fancy equipment. This suggests that pupil dilation can be used as a simple and accessible way to measure and study decision-making processes without the need for specialized equipment.

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45. Temporal lobe epilepsy: 

Explanation

The given answer "None of the above" is correct because the previous statements about temporal lobe epilepsy are incorrect. Temporal lobe epilepsy has taught us about the semantic memory system, it is usually associated with memory impairment, and it can cause seizures that are noticeable to an observer. Therefore, none of the previous statements are true.

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46. In the EEG, the alpha rhythm is a signal that varies at a characteristic frequency of 

Explanation

The alpha rhythm in EEG refers to the electrical brain activity that occurs at a frequency of 8-13 Hz. This frequency range is commonly associated with a relaxed and awake state, typically observed when a person's eyes are closed. The alpha rhythm is often used as an indicator of the brain's resting state and can be influenced by factors such as attention, relaxation, and meditation.

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47. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Reverse genetics involves introducing targeted mutations using a CRISPR-Cas9 system and guide RNA in order to disable a gene or introduce a specific mutant

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48. MRI records radio frequency signals emitted by 

Explanation

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) records radio frequency signals emitted by hydrogen nuclei. This is because hydrogen is the most abundant element in the human body and its nuclei have a property called spin. When placed in a strong magnetic field and exposed to radio waves, the hydrogen nuclei align and emit radio frequency signals. These signals are then detected by the MRI machine and used to create detailed images of the body's internal structures.

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49. Longterm potentiation is important because: 

Explanation

Long-term potentiation is important because it describes how excitatory post-synaptic potentials increase as a result of increased stimulus frequency. This phenomenon is crucial for understanding how neural connections are strengthened and how memories are formed and stored in the brain. By increasing the strength of the synapses, long-term potentiation allows for more efficient and effective communication between neurons, which is essential for learning and memory processes.

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50. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Implicit and explicit memories were named through analysis of performance on particular tasks. Procedural and declarative were derived from dissociable cognitive theories with people who have damage to them. In studies of amnesia procedural/declarative distinction is more meaningful

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51. Which of the following is not an issue of the addiction vs free will debate?

Explanation

DA system might be more important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling

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52. Which of the following is false in regards to Vargha-Khadem et al's 1997 study?

Explanation

They were not able to be left alone

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53. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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54. What is the typical temporal resolution of fMRI? 

Explanation

fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) measures brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow. The temporal resolution of fMRI refers to how quickly it can capture changes in brain activity over time. The correct answer, d. 2000 ms, suggests that the typical temporal resolution of fMRI is 2000 milliseconds, or 2 seconds. This means that fMRI can detect changes in brain activity at a rate of once every 2 seconds.

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55. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Drugs will often only activate one or a few receptor subtypes , and will be more selective than natural NT

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56. Imagine an artificial society in which all individuals are raised in perfectly controlled, identical environments. In this population: 

Explanation

Heritability refers to the proportion of variance in the phenotype (that is, the trait in question) that is attributable to variance from genes. In this fictional scenario, the key thing to notice is that there is no variation in the environment. This means that all variation in the phenotype must be attributable to genetic variation, which means that heritibility is very high (technically, it is 100%).

This illustrates the broader point that the heritability of a trait is a local measurement—it will depend on how much environmental and genetic variation is actually present in the population you're studying.

Regarding the incorrect responses, zero heritability would be observed in the opposite situation, where all individuals are genetically identical. Certain traits do change in heritability throughout the lifespan (intelligence is one), but in the scenario posed in the question, heritability wouldn't decrease unless variation was introduced into the environment. Similarly, all traits would have the same high heritability, so physical traits would be no more or less heritable than behvioural traits.

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57. Which of the following is NOT a feature of genome-wide association studies (GWAS)? 

Explanation

First let's look at the correct answer, the one that's not a true feature of GWAS. The second answer (b) is the correct one, but it's a little tricky. Because, in fact, microarray technology is what made genome-wide association studies possible. What makes this NOT a feature of GWAS is that we're not interested in measuring gene expression levels. Rather, we're measuring changes in the genetic code at particular sites right across the genome. If you wanted to measure where and how much of a given protein is expressed (that is, measure gene expression), you wouldn't do a GWAS.

The first answer (a) is a true feature of a GWAS, making it an incorrect answer. We have learned that when we do a genome-wide association study, we do lots of tests. Every time we do a test, there's a chance we'll think we've found an association where there really isn't one. That problem gets much worse when we do hundreds of thousands of tests. In fact, if we applied the usual criteria we'd uncover thousands of associations even when there truly aren't any. We deal with the problem by being extremely strict with our statistical criteria. Incidentally, you've also learned about a similar problem in fMRI.

The third answer (c) describes a feature of a GWAS (making it an incorrect answer). Imputation relies on the fact that nearby SNPs are highly correlated. So by using the genotypes we already have from the SNPs that we have measured directly, we can also try to predict genotypes at SNPs that aren't part of our array.

The final answer (d) also describes a feature of a GWAS (making it an incorrect answer). While the first few GWAS examined around 100 000 genetic markers, modern studies test upwards of half a million.

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58. The CHRNA5-A3-B4 gene cluster encodes subunits of an acetylcholine receptor. Variants in this gene cluster are associated with both schizophrenia and: 

Explanation

The CHRNA5-A3-B4 gene cluster encodes subunits of an acetylcholine receptor. Research has shown that variants in this gene cluster are associated with an increased risk of heavy smoking. Acetylcholine receptors play a role in the brain's reward system, and genetic variations in this gene cluster can lead to altered nicotine receptor function, making individuals more susceptible to nicotine addiction and heavy smoking. This association between the gene cluster and heavy smoking has been well-established through numerous studies.

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59. What is the mode of inheritence?

Explanation

X-linked dominant inheritance is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the trait or disorder to be expressed in both males and females, but it is more commonly observed in females. In this inheritance pattern, an affected father will pass the trait to all his daughters, while affected mothers can pass it to both sons and daughters. This mode of inheritance is characterized by the presence of affected individuals in every generation of an affected family, and it can skip generations.

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60. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The given statement is incorrect because it states "None" as the answer, implying that there is no incorrect statement among the options provided. However, the third statement is incorrect. It states that the G allele at SNP rs6295 impairs the transcriptional repression of the promoter, thus increasing the expression of the 5-HT1A receptor and the binding potential. In reality, the G allele is associated with increased serotonin binding potential, but it does not impair transcriptional repression.

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61. Match the following
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62. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The given answer states that all of the statements provided are correct. This means that each statement in the question is true. THC is indeed the active compound in marijuana. Nucleosides are produced when nucleic acids are enzymatically broken down. Nucleosides can act as cotransmitters that modulate the modulators. Cannabis is known to have antiemetic properties and can be used to reduce nausea. Therefore, all of the statements are correct.

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63. Woodman and Luck (1999) investigated the N2pc component of the event-related potential and showed  

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that Woodman and Luck (1999) conducted a study on the N2pc component of the event-related potential. They found evidence that suggests people search the locations in a visual display in a serial fashion. This means that individuals tend to examine each location one at a time when searching for specific targets in a visual display, rather than searching multiple locations simultaneously.

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64. Which of the following is incorrect of Bipolar and Schizophrenia disorder?

Explanation

Schizophrenia is the result of abnormal dopamine signalling. Antipsychotics block the DRD2 dopamine receptors associated with schizophrenia

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65. Which of the following is not a limitation of EEG?

Explanation

The given answer states that the signal in EEG is band-pass filtered to remove low (<.5-1hz and high frequencies>35-70Hz) because they do not reflect brain activity. This explanation suggests that the limitation of EEG is not related to the band-pass filtering of the signal, as it is a necessary step to remove frequencies that do not reflect brain activity.

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66. Explicit and implicit memory: 

Explanation

Explicit and implicit memory are distinguished partially on the basis of whether conscious recollection is used. Explicit memory refers to the conscious recollection of information, such as recalling facts or events. It involves deliberate effort and awareness. Implicit memory, on the other hand, is the unconscious or automatic recall of information, such as skills or habits. It does not require conscious recollection or deliberate effort. The distinction between explicit and implicit memory is important in understanding how different types of memory are processed and how they can be affected in amnestic syndromes.

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67. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

After repeated associations between the reward and the beep, no DA will be released at the reward as the reward is expected, but it will now be released at the beep

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68. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

AD commences in the hippocampus/Medial Temporal Lobes. It then spreads posteriously to the parietal cortex and then to the frontal cortex

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69. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

High levels of LC/NA activity can lead to stress, anxiety and panic attacks

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70. Which of the following statements about ion channels and G Protein-coupled receptors is FALSE? 

Explanation

Both ion channels and G Protein-coupled receptors are transmembrane proteins that span the cell membrane. G Protein-coupled receptors can influence metabolic processes within a cell via second messenger systems, while ion channels primarily regulate the flow of ions across the cell membrane. G Protein-coupled receptors have a relatively long action compared to ion channels. However, ion channels are generally less selective and can be activated by a variety of neurotransmitters, while G Protein-coupled receptors are more selective and respond to specific ligands.

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71. Channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) and halorhodopsin (NpHR) are different because: 

Explanation

You should remember that both ChR2 and NpHR are microbial opsins used in optogenetics. The correct answer is the first (a): the ChR2 pump is activated by blue light, and the NpHR pump by yellow light.

The second answer (b) is on the right track, but the correspondences are back-to-front. In fact, ChR2 activation causes neural excitation (makes cells more likely to fire), while NpHR activation causes neural inhibition (makes cells less likely to fire).

The third answer (c) is something of a red herring. Both ChR2 and NpHR are used in optogenetics (and could potentially be delivered as part of a CRISPR-Cas9 system). So this doesn't constitute a difference between them.

And because (b) and (c) are incorrect, (d) must also be incorrect.

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72. The following statement about Glutamate neurons is true 

Explanation

Glutamate neurons are known to be relatively long and are responsible for transmitting signals from one area of the brain to another. This means that they play a crucial role in communication between different regions of the brain.

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73. Which of the following is incorrect of manhattan plots?

Explanation

Lower p-values are higher up

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74. Using single-pulse TMS it has been found that

Explanation

The given answer states that the excitability of the primary motor cortex during mental rotation of tools was not significantly enhanced compared to images of houses, 3D- and 2D-figures. This suggests that the brain's response in the primary motor cortex is not specifically tied to mental rotation of tools, but rather is more general in nature. It implies that the primary motor cortex does not show a selective increase in excitability during mental rotation of tools compared to other types of stimuli.

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75. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

X chromosome inactivation is random in each cell and involves the XIST RNA transcript coating the chromosome to be inactivated and the TSIX RNA transcript that suppresses the transcription of XIST

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76. One way that neurotransmitters/neuromodulators are able to influence very specific brain functions despite being released all over the brain is due to the fact that 

Explanation

Neurotransmitters/neuromodulators can influence specific brain functions because there are different receptors located in specific areas of the brain that are sensitive to one type of neurotransmitter/neuromodulator. These receptors can trigger different effects depending on the specific area they are located in. This allows for precise control and modulation of brain functions despite the release of neurotransmitters/neuromodulators throughout the brain.

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77. Which of the following is not a heritability equation?

Explanation

This is not a correct equation: h2 = G + E + 2covGE, where the covariance and correlation between the genes and the environment is taken into consideration in order to calculate heritability

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78. If we do NOT have a directed hypothesis (i.e. we don't know whether we should expect differences in the positive or negative direction from chance in our experiment), what do we have to do to determine whether our t-test result is statistically significant?

Explanation

To determine whether our t-test result is statistically significant when we do not have a directed hypothesis, we need to look up the critical t-value for the correct degrees of freedom in the table for the "proportion of two tails combined" column using the threshold of 0.05. This is because we want to capture 2.5% on each end of the distribution's tail. By comparing our t-value to the critical t-value, we can determine if the result is statistically significant.

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79. Which statement about the nature of the EEG signal is true? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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80. Which of the following statements is FALSE? 

Explanation

The statement "All of the above" is false because it implies that all the previous statements are false. However, the first two statements are true. The frontal lobes do incorporate primary memory systems, and they are essential for relating arbitrarily related pieces of information. The third statement is also true as damage to the thalamus can result in memory impairment. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" is false.

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81. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Synthesis and transport of NT is slow and release of NT is fast 

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82. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The higher the emotional response, the more profound the storing of the emotional memory

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83. If the Locus Coeruleus (LC) neurons have just had a burst of firing in response to an arousing external event (such as a big explosion) 

Explanation

When the Locus Coeruleus (LC) neurons have a burst of firing in response to an arousing external event, their activity will subsequently become temporarily suppressed. This suppression allows attention to focus on the external stimulus, reducing distraction or competition from other stimuli for attention. Additionally, the burst of firing in LC neurons will result in the widespread release of noradrenaline, which further enhances attention and arousal. Therefore, all of the options mentioned in the answer (a, b, and c) are correct.

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84. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The given answer states that none of the statements are incorrect. This means that all of the statements provided in the question are true and accurate.

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85. How are objects encoded in the ventral visual system in the brain? 

Explanation

The given answer, "All of the above," is correct because the passage states that there are specialized areas in the ventral visual system that function as modules for certain objects like faces, houses, places, and body parts. However, it also mentions that most objects are not encoded in modular brain regions. Additionally, the passage suggests that the modular brain regions coding for specific objects may serve purposes beyond just processing specific object categories. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the answer are supported by the information provided in the passage.

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86. Vargha-Khadem's 'children': 

Explanation

The correct answer, "Indicated that episodic memory and semantic memory can show a single dissociation in performance during encoding," suggests that Vargha-Khadem's research demonstrated that there can be a difference in how episodic memory and semantic memory function during the encoding process. This implies that the two types of memory can be dissociated and have separate performance levels when it comes to encoding information.

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87. Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Unmasking a mask requires timing the single TMS stimulation to 60-140ms after the mask, you still see the mask, you just do not process it. Schizophrenics have a reduced Cortical Silencing Period (CSP), meaning that the cooling off period is reduced after excitation and thus there is hyperexcitability.

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88. Which of the following is NOT a type of structural genetic variant? 

Explanation

:
Again, let's look at the correct answer first. That's the third answer, (c). Those who thought addition was a type of structural variant might have been thinking of an 'insertion' or 'insertion-deletion' variant. That's when some people have a stretch of DNA that is simply missing in others.

Perhaps the trickiest variant is the first answer (a), inversion. Here, the DNA is switched around so that not only is the sequence reversed, but the two strands of the double helix are swapped as well.

The second answer (b), a copy-number variant, refers to when a short stretch of DNA is repeated over and over; some people might have no repeats, some might have many. Recall that in Lecture 2, we learned that a copy-number variant (in this case, 200 or more copies of a CGG sequence of bases) is responsible for fragile X syndrome.

The final answer (d), a block-substitution variant, is a bit like a single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP). But in a block-substitution variant, a whole sequence of DNA is present in some people, and a whole different sequence is present in others.

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89. Dementia of the Alzheimer's type (DAT): 

Explanation

Dementia of the Alzheimer's type (DAT) refers to the dementing syndrome that is associated with Alzheimer's disease. This means that individuals with Alzheimer's disease may experience symptoms of dementia, such as memory loss, cognitive decline, and changes in behavior. It is important to note that DAT cannot be diagnosed during life, as it requires postmortem examination of the brain to confirm the presence of characteristic plaques and tangles. While there are treatments available to manage the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, such as anti-epileptic drugs, there is currently no cure for the condition. The statement that DAT is the process of normal aging sped up is incorrect, as Alzheimer's disease is a distinct neurological disorder.

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90. The genetic mutation underlying fragile X syndrome is most likely to be visible in a: 

Explanation

Fragile X syndrome acquires its name from the appearance of the chromosome itself: We see a constriction on the long arm of the chromosome. This would be visibile in a karyotype map of the kind we saw in Lectures 1 and 2. So the correct answer is the second one (b).

The first answer (a), a Manhattan plot, is the way we visualise results of a genome-wide association study. The third (b), a pedigree chart, is the family-tree-like map we use to trace a trait through generations. It would be possible to create a pedigree chart for fragile-X syndrome, but it wouldn't let you see the genetic mutation. The final answer (d), a PET scan, refers to the technology that you can use to estimate the density of specific receptors in neural tissue. It wouldn't allow you to see the genetic mutation in fragile-X syndrome.

See Lecture 1, Slide 46 & Lecture 2, Slides 9, 11, 13, 19, 31 (Manhattan plot); Lecture 1, Slides 22–23 & Lecture 2, Slide 2 (karyotype map); Lecture 1, Slides 32–35 (pedigree chart); Lecture 3, Slides 8–11, 16 (PET scan).

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91. Which of the following is incorrect of heritability?

Explanation

Protonopia (colour blindness) is X linked recessive

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92. CRISPR-Cas9 technology is useful in: 

Explanation

First, you need to remember that CRISPR-Cas9 is a technology that can be used to selectively edit an organism's genome. Then, you need to consider what each of these studies involves. The first answer (a), forward-genetic studies, is incorrect. In forward-genetic studies, researchers are initially focused on the phenotype (that is, trait) of interest. It will likely involve deliberately introducing genetic changes, but these will be random changes most probably caused by radiation. Once a strain of animals exhibiting the phenotype is established, the researchers will then search for genetic differences between unaffected and affected animals.

The second answer (b), was the correct one. In reverse-genetic studies, researchers are initially focused on the genotype of interest. That gene is silenced, or altered in some way, and the study will then characterise the phenotypic consequences of the genetic change.

The third answer (c), genome-wide association studies (GWAS), is incorrect. GWAS rely on natural variation in a population, and don't require gene-editing technologies.

And you can deduce that the final answer (d) is incorrect, because (a) is incorrect.

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93. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The systems are entirely parallel within declarative memory, which is dependent on the hippocampal system. Therefore, damage to the hippocampal system leads to the equal impairment of both the memory systems. Therefore, the systems are non-dissociable. (Squire and Zola)

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94. What is the mode of inheritance?

Explanation

Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs when an individual inherits two copies of a recessive allele, one from each parent. This means that both parents are carriers of the recessive allele but do not show the trait themselves. In autosomal recessive conditions, individuals must have two copies of the recessive allele to express the trait. If only one copy is inherited, the individual is a carrier but does not show any symptoms. This mode of inheritance is commonly seen in conditions such as cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia.

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95. Which of the following is not informed by analysis of HM?

Explanation

The given answer is not informed by the analysis of HM because it does not specifically mention or discuss HM's case or the impact of his medial temporal lobe damage on memory function. The answer focuses on the general concept of intact memory function and the involvement of various brain regions, but it does not address the specific case of HM and the significance of his medial temporal lobe structures in memory.

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96. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

There is much controversy between glutamate and psychosis, and it is more likely that other NT like dopamine are the cause

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97. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Opiates include morphine, heroine and opium, endogenous means naturally occurring. Peptides are the product of larger compounds being broken down in neurons before being released at the terminal buttons. Opiates are used for their analgesic affects (pain relief)

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98. Which of the following is incorrect of depression diagnosis under the DSM V?

Explanation

At least 5 symptoms from DSM V must be present within a two week period in order to be diagnosed with depression

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99. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The effects of alcohol on memory loss and sedation, is a result of the antagonistic effects of alcohol on glutamate

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100. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Fragile X syndrome involves a Copy Number Variant mutation involving a CGG sequence in the promotor of the FMR1 gene, which is critical to synaptic plasticity. The mutation triggers DNA methylation, which constricts the promotor region of the X chromosome and prevents transcription.

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101. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The hippocampus is also known as Cornu ammonis and can be labelled CA1 to CA3

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102. Which of the following is false of the components of the Diencephalon?

Explanation

Dense amnesic syndrome is associated with damage to the mammillo-thalamic tract, as it connects to the anterior thalamus and hippocampus

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103. What alternative theories explain the findings by Kanwisher et al. (1997)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is that all of the above alternative theories could explain the findings by Kanwisher et al. (1997). The fusiform face area could be recruited when we become experts for something, such as faces. It could also be recruited depending on resolution needs, as faces usually appear in the center where we can perceive the greatest detail. Additionally, the activation profile of the fusiform face area could reflect a combination of face processing, eccentricity coding, and activation related to expertise.

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104. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

For something to be addictive you must code losses as less significant than gains

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105. Which of the following is false in relation to EEGs

Explanation

Folding within the brain (sulci) destroy signals, therefore there is not an accurate representation

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106. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The given answer states that all of the statements provided are correct. This means that each neurotransmitter mentioned (serotonin, noradrenaline, dopamine, acetylcholine, and histamine) is indeed synthesized in the specified areas and released to the mentioned regions of the brain. Additionally, the location of the histamine neurons is correctly stated as being in the posterior hypothalamus. Therefore, all of the statements provided in the question are accurate.

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107. Which of these statements is NOT true:  Averaging signals from many trials is required to calculate the event-related potential (ERP)

Explanation

Averaging signals from many trials is required to calculate the event-related potential (ERP) because EEG signals from single trials are very noisy. The average amplitude is not necessarily greater than any single trial amplitude.

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108. Which is correct of dissociations between the memory systems? You have a system with X and Y parts which work to produce A and B outcomes

Explanation

The given correct answer states that all three options - No dissociation, Single Dissociation, and Double Dissociation - are correct. This means that in the given system with X and Y parts producing A and B outcomes, all three scenarios can occur. In the case of no dissociation, damaging either X or Y will affect both A and B equally. In single dissociation, damaging X affects A but not B, while damaging Y affects both A and B. In double dissociation, damaging X affects A but not B, and damaging Y affects B but not A. This suggests that the memory systems in this scenario can exhibit different levels of independence from each other.

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109. Match the following
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110. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Declarative memory is not of semantic knowledge i.e. how to perform a task. Declarative memory refers to the ability to consciously remember facts and events. It involves the storage and retrieval of information that can be explicitly stated or declared. Semantic memory, on the other hand, is a type of declarative memory that involves general knowledge and concepts. It is not specifically related to how to perform a task.

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111. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

When the RF pulse is switched off the transversal magnetisation decays and the longitudinal magnetisation is re-established. This is known as the "relaxation" phase

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112. Which of the following is/are correct?

Explanation

Artefact rejection and occular correction are necessary steps to clean the raw signal in order to remove any unwanted noise or interference caused by eye movements or blinking. Event related potentials, which involve measuring brain responses to specific stimuli, typically require multiple trials to obtain reliable results. Therefore, options A and D are correct. Option B is incorrect because sweating and electrical noise can indeed affect the signal quality. Option C is incorrect because mathematical algorithms can remove most noise and artefacts, but they may not be able to completely eliminate noise caused by muscle clenching.

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113. Which of the following is incorrect

Explanation

The bottom of the equation refers to the standard mean of the sample

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114. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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115. Which of the following is not a limitation of fMRI?

Explanation

The given answer states that a limitation of fMRI is that although we interpret the results correctly, it is not clear whether we have accounted for extraneous variables. This means that while we may be able to accurately interpret the brain activity shown in an fMRI scan, there is still a possibility that other factors or variables outside of the study's control could be influencing the results. This highlights a potential limitation in the accuracy and reliability of fMRI findings, as there may be confounding factors that have not been taken into consideration.

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116. The CRISPR-Cas9 system: 

Explanation

The correct answer is the first (a): CRISPR-Cas9 is a mechanism borrowed from bacteria, one they use to defend against invading viruses. This was explained in the video in Lecture 3.

The second answer (b) and third answer (c) have mixed up a couple of the components. The system contains both the Cas9 protein and guide RNA. But the RNA is used to locate the desired DNA sequence (at which the Cas9 protein cuts). And because (b) and (c) are incorrect, we know that (d) must also be incorrect.

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117. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas that can be deadly when inhaled in high concentrations. It binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing its ability to carry oxygen to the body's tissues. In contrast to carbon monoxide, nitric oxide is a signaling molecule in the cardiovascular system. It is involved in dilating blood vessels in active brain regions, which is important for learning and memory. Nitric oxide is synthesized, short-lived, and diffuses immediately, and it does not activate receptors. Therefore, the statement that carbon monoxide is deadly and cannot be utilized in the brain is incorrect.

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118. Which of the following correctly defines memory?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Maintaining information over time, in one's mind." This definition accurately describes memory as the process of retaining and storing information in one's mind for later use or retrieval. It implies that memory involves the ability to hold onto and recall information over a period of time, suggesting that it is a cognitive function related to the storage and retrieval of knowledge or experiences.

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119. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors can have detrimental affects if a lot of tryptophan is consumed after ingesting the drug

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120. Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Fourier transformation allows for the measurement and reconstruction of the 3D brain, but takes 1-3 seconds

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121. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Absence of a G allele leads to the repression of HTR1A transcription, decreased receptor density (indexed by BP), high amygdala reactivity and a predisposition to high anxiety

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122. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The answer is incorrect because it states that if a brain region is activated by many cognitive functions, we learn very little about it. However, the explanation provided in the question suggests that if the experimental setup successfully manipulates the cognitive process of interest, it can still provide useful information about the process. Therefore, even if a brain region is activated by multiple cognitive functions, it can still contribute to our understanding of a specific cognitive process if the experimental setup is effective.

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123. Choose the incorrect option

Explanation

Tulving's Model of Memory (1972-2001): From lesion studies. utilised Atkinson-Shiffron model. Separated LTM into components: procedural, episodic and semantic.

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124. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Declarative memory impairment is most reliable when the hippocampus or the Anterior Thalamic Nuclei are lesioned

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125. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

The greater the ERN, the higher the probability to get it right on the next trial. This is because the ERN is a negative deflection in amplitude that occurs after an erroneous response. It reflects the brain's detection of an error and the subsequent adjustment in behavior. Therefore, a larger ERN indicates a stronger response to errors and a higher likelihood of correcting them on the next trial. Additionally, the statement suggests that a greater ERN is associated with a lower response force to try and correct the error, implying that the brain's automatic error monitoring system is more effective in guiding behavior than conscious effort.

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126. Episodic memory: 

Explanation

Episodic memory relies on the hippocampal circuit. This means that the hippocampus plays a crucial role in the formation and retrieval of episodic memories. The hippocampus helps in encoding and consolidating episodic memories, as well as in retrieving them when needed. Therefore, the correct answer is that episodic memory relies on the hippocampal circuit.

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127. Endophenotypes have been used to study genetic contributions to psychological disorders. An endophenotype of a psychological disorder should be: 

Explanation

The key reasoning behind the endophenotype approach is that it should be likely to have a more direct relationship to the underlying genetic mechanisms than the disorder itself. So the third answer (c) is correct.

The first answer (a) is incorrect. As we've learned, part of what makes endophenotypes useful is that we can measure them in psychologically normal individuals. Of course, the endophenotype should be associated with the disorder, but it needn't be present only in affected individuals.

The second answer (b) is also incorrect. This would be a compelling discovery, but it's not necessary that an endophenotype is responsive to the same therapies as the disorder itself.

Finally, as (a) and (b) are incorrect, we can deduce that (d) is incorrect.

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128. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of DAT?

Explanation

Phase 1 lasts 2-3 years and includes the following symptoms: failing memory, muddled inefficiency in Activities of Daily Living. Spatial disorientation and mood disturbances.

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129. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

LC likely to play the same role  in perceptual and cognitive decisions as they are believed to play in behaviour

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130. Which of the following is incorrect of AD?

Explanation

Neurofibrillary tangles lie within the neuron and contain amyloid. Amyloid proteins are found in senile plaques

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131. Which of the following is incorrect in regards to epilepsy?

Explanation

Surgical removal of the lesioned hippocampus can cure or reduce the number of seizures.

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132. Which of the following is incorrect of the hippocampal formation?

Explanation

The hippocampal formation is necessary in relational memories between two arbitrary pieces of information.

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133. Peptides consist of two or more amino acids and can serve as neurotransmitters/neuromodulators. They are unusual in that they 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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134. Poldrack (2006) - The probability that we really learn from our fMRI results that cognitive process X is involved and the over-interpretation of null results depends on all of the following but. . .

Explanation

The answer suggests that the probability of learning from fMRI results and the over-interpretation of null results depend on various factors such as the quality of the task to measure the cognitive process and the specificity of the region for that process. Additionally, it states that when the null hypothesis is accepted, the significance is unknown because statistical tests are designed to make the alternative hypothesis difficult to support, rather than the null hypothesis. Therefore, the answer implies that only a few neurons in a voxel may be showing differences that can only be detected through more sensitive tasks.

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135. Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Unmasking a mask requires timing the single TMS stimulation to 60-140ms after the mask, you still see the mask, you just do not process it. Schizophrenics have a reduced Cortical Silencing Period (CSP), meaning that the cooling off period is reduced after excitation and thus there is hyperexcitability.

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136. Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Neuromodulation alters neurotransmitter release at the pre synaptic neuron and neurotransmitter action at the post synaptic neuron

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137. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

None of the models fully account for all the data from research. Serial models are more useful in amnesia studies. Episodic memory works by allowing an individual to re-experience, through autonoetic awareness, previous experiences and project similar experiences into the future (mental time travel)

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138. Which of the following is incorrect? Endophenotypes of psychological disorders can yield larger genetic effects than diagnosis. . .

Explanation

The given answer is incorrect because it states that endophenotypes of psychological disorders have simpler underlying biological mechanisms compared to psychological disorders. However, the correct answer is that endophenotypes of psychological disorders can yield larger genetic effects than diagnosis. This means that the genetic factors associated with endophenotypes may have a stronger influence on the development of psychological disorders compared to simply diagnosing the disorder based on symptoms.

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139. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

The answer is correct because it states that there are specific names for each ERP that are unique and do not overlap with any other name. This is important in order to accurately identify and interpret different ERP components in research studies. Having unique names for each ERP allows researchers to clearly distinguish between different components and avoid confusion or misinterpretation of the data.

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140. Match the following group designs to their description
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Which of the following statement about TMS is NOT true?
In Amassian and colleagues' (1989) study, when TMS was applied 4 cm to...
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
It was thought that vaccinations might cause epilepsy. However two...
Which of the following statements is TRUE? 
Which of the following statements about statistical testing is NOT...
What is an independent-measures design?
Independent of the specific test, the t-test equation always...
Which statement about effect sizes is true?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following statements about Nitric Oxide (NO) is...
Because fMRI is non-radioactive the same subject can be scanned...
Hebb's rule: 
The maximum spatial resolution of fMRI is approximately 
Why is apple juice not addictive even if you think it is...
Select the correct order from the list of words below to correctly...
Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is...
What is the main danger associated with fMRI? 
In regards to epilepsy, which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect of the patient HM?
An autosomal dominant trait is exhibited by a father, but not by a...
Which of the following statements about clinically diagnosed...
Which of the following statements DOES NOT provide a basis for the...
Which of the following is incorrect?
A figure-eight TMS coil has the strongest effect
The hippocampal formation: 
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Semantic memory: 
Which statement about repetitive TMS (rTMS) is true?
The error-related negativity (ERN) is 
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is false of MRI methods
Which is incorrect of Alzheimers disease?
Which one is incorrect?
Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) demonstrated using fMRI that... 
Accoriding to Poldrack (2006), what is important to consider for...
Which of these methods allows testing for a causal involvement of a...
The NMDA glutamate receptor is an ion channel that allows calcium to...
Which of the following is false in regards to depression?
Which of the following is an incorrect summary of the medial temporal...
Which of the following is false?
Experiments using an adapted version of rock-paper-scissors showed...
Temporal lobe epilepsy: 
In the EEG, the alpha rhythm is a signal that varies at a...
Which of the following is incorrect?
MRI records radio frequency signals emitted by 
Longterm potentiation is important because: 
Which of the following is correct?
Which of the following is not an issue of the addiction vs free will...
Which of the following is false in regards to Vargha-Khadem et...
Which of the following is incorrect?
What is the typical temporal resolution of fMRI? 
Which of the following is incorrect?
Imagine an artificial society in which all individuals are raised in...
Which of the following is NOT a feature of genome-wide association...
The CHRNA5-A3-B4 gene cluster encodes subunits of an acetylcholine...
What is the mode of inheritence?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Match the following
Which of the following is incorrect?
Woodman and Luck (1999) investigated the N2pc component of the...
Which of the following is incorrect of Bipolar and Schizophrenia...
Which of the following is not a limitation of EEG?
Explicit and implicit memory: 
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following statements about ion channels and G...
Channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) and halorhodopsin (NpHR) are different...
The following statement about Glutamate neurons is true 
Which of the following is incorrect of manhattan plots?
Using single-pulse TMS it has been found that
Which of the following is incorrect?
One way that neurotransmitters/neuromodulators are able to influence...
Which of the following is not a heritability equation?
If we do NOT have a directed hypothesis (i.e. we don't know...
Which statement about the nature of the EEG signal is true? 
Which of the following statements is FALSE? 
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
If the Locus Coeruleus (LC) neurons have just had a burst of firing in...
Which of the following is incorrect?
How are objects encoded in the ventral visual system in the...
Vargha-Khadem's 'children': 
Which of the following is false?
Which of the following is NOT a type of structural genetic...
Dementia of the Alzheimer's type (DAT): 
The genetic mutation underlying fragile X syndrome is most likely to...
Which of the following is incorrect of heritability?
CRISPR-Cas9 technology is useful in: 
Which of the following is incorrect?
What is the mode of inheritance?
Which of the following is not informed by analysis of HM?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is correct?
Which of the following is incorrect of depression diagnosis under the...
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is false of the components of the Diencephalon?
What alternative theories explain the findings by Kanwisher et al....
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is false in relation to EEGs
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of these statements is NOT true:  Averaging signals...
Which is correct of dissociations between the memory systems? ...
Match the following
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is/are correct?
Which of the following is incorrect
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is not a limitation of fMRI?
The CRISPR-Cas9 system: 
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following correctly defines memory?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is false?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Choose the incorrect option
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is correct?
Episodic memory: 
Endophenotypes have been used to study genetic contributions to...
Which of the following is not a clinical feature of DAT?
Which of the following is incorrect?
Which of the following is incorrect of AD?
Which of the following is incorrect in regards to epilepsy?
Which of the following is incorrect of the hippocampal formation?
Peptides consist of two or more amino acids and can serve as...
Poldrack (2006) - The probability that we really learn from our fMRI...
Which of the following is false?
Which of the following is false?
Which of the following is correct?
Which of the following is incorrect? ...
Which of the following is incorrect?
Match the following group designs to their description
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