Psyc20006 - Biological Psychology

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Psyc20006 - Biological Psychology - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      The probing excitability approach which tests the responsiveness of the motor system during a cognitive task. If the motor cortex is required for a cognitive task then it should already be activated when single-pulse TMS is delivered. The measure of interest is how strongly the motor cortex reacts to the pulse itself and how strongly the body part will move in response to the additional stimulation. 

    • B.

      The paired pulse approach first activates the brain using a sub-threshold stimulation and then interferes with neuronal transmission using a second supra-threshold stimulation and aims to answer the question of how strongly the first stimulation affects the second.

    • C.

      Schizophrenics have an increased Cortical Silencing Period (CSP), meaning that the cooling off period is reduced after excitation and thus there is hyperexcitability and problems with getting rid of muscular activation.

    • D.

      The virtual lesion approach involves repeated TMS (rTMS) which can inhibit functions for a longer period of time. 

    Correct Answer
    C. Schizophrenics have an increased Cortical Silencing Period (CSP), meaning that the cooling off period is reduced after excitation and thus there is hyperexcitability and problems with getting rid of muscular activation.
    Explanation
    Unmasking a mask requires timing the single TMS stimulation to 60-140ms after the mask, you still see the mask, you just do not process it. Schizophrenics have a reduced Cortical Silencing Period (CSP), meaning that the cooling off period is reduced after excitation and thus there is hyperexcitability.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is incorrect

    • A.

      The Z distribution uses the population SD

    • B.

      The t statistic takes into account both the expected mean and a measure of the standard error of the mean based on the sample

    • C.

      The bottom of the above equation refers to the standard mean of the population

    • D.

      The x value with a hat refers to the sample mean

    Correct Answer
    C. The bottom of the above equation refers to the standard mean of the population
    Explanation
    The bottom of the equation refers to the standard mean of the sample

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is false in relation to EEGs

    • A.

      Great temporal resolution but poor spatial resolution

    • B.

      Can't test causality

    • C.

      Electrode cap signals are amplified and EEG is recorded during experimental stimulation

    • D.

      EEG reflects post-synaptic potentials (voltages that arise when NT bind to receptors of the post-synaptic cell). This causes ion channels to open/close, leading to graded change sin the potential across the membrane.

    • E.

      EEGs pick up the summation of charges

    • F.

      Folding within the brain (gyrus) destroy signals, therefore there is not an accurate representation

    Correct Answer
    F. Folding within the brain (gyrus) destroy signals, therefore there is not an accurate representation
    Explanation
    Folding within the brain (sulci) destroy signals, therefore there is not an accurate representation

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not a limitation of EEG?

    • A.

      Signal is band-pass filtered to remove low (<.5-1Hz) and high frequencies (>35-70Hz) because they do not reflect brain activity

    • B.

      EEG is biased to signals generated in superficial layers of cerebral cortex

    • C.

      The meninges, CSF and skull make it difficult to localise the source

    • D.

      The inverse problem: you can reconstruct scalp configurations if sources are known, but you cannot reconstruct the source if the scalp configuration is known

    Correct Answer
    A. Signal is band-pass filtered to remove low (<.5-1Hz) and high frequencies (>35-70Hz) because they do not reflect brain activity
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the signal in EEG is band-pass filtered to remove low (35-70Hz) because they do not reflect brain activity. This explanation suggests that the limitation of EEG is not related to the band-pass filtering of the signal, as it is a necessary step to remove frequencies that do not reflect brain activity.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is/are correct?

    • A.

      A) Artefact rejection and occular correction must occur in order to clean the raw signal

    • B.

      B) The signal is unaffected by sweating and electrical noise

    • C.

      C) Mathematical algorithms remove most of the noise and artefacts but cannot remove the noise generated from muscle clenching

    • D.

      D) Event related potentials involve multiple trials

    • E.

      A and D

    • F.

      B and D

    Correct Answer
    E. A and D
    Explanation
    Artefact rejection and occular correction are necessary steps to clean the raw signal in order to remove any unwanted noise or interference caused by eye movements or blinking. Event related potentials, which involve measuring brain responses to specific stimuli, typically require multiple trials to obtain reliable results. Therefore, options A and D are correct. Option B is incorrect because sweating and electrical noise can indeed affect the signal quality. Option C is incorrect because mathematical algorithms can remove most noise and artefacts, but they may not be able to completely eliminate noise caused by muscle clenching.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is false of MRI methods

    • A.

      MRI is utilised in reverse inference of cognitive processes based off the presence of activation

    • B.

      A magnetic field of 3T is usually used for functional imaging

    • C.

      Magnetisation on the z-axis is easily  measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI

    • D.

      The head coil is used to send and receive radio frequency pulses

    • E.

      The Hydrogen protons precess either parallel of antiparallel and the precession frequency of protons depends on the strength of the magnetic field.

    Correct Answer
    C. Magnetisation on the z-axis is easily  measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI
    Explanation
    The statement that magnetisation on the z-axis is easily measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI is false. In MRI, magnetisation on the z-axis is actually difficult to measure because it is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The movement of the magnetisation is actually in the transverse plane, which is perpendicular to the magnetic field. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Phase coherence occurs when the protons are all doing the same thing

    • B.

      A radiofrequency (RF) pulse is applied perpendicular to the magnetic field which matches the precession frequency of the protons and is thus absorbed.

    • C.

      The RF pulse has two effects: 1) it tilts the magnetisation vector to the transverse plane and 2) it aligns the precession of the spins which means that the protons' rotations are "in phase". The transversely rotating magnetisation vector can then be recorded as a signal.

    • D.

      When the RF pulse is switched off the longitudinal magnetisation decays and the transversal magnetisation is re-established. This is known as the "relaxation" phase

    Correct Answer
    D. When the RF pulse is switched off the longitudinal magnetisation decays and the transversal magnetisation is re-established. This is known as the "relaxation" phase
    Explanation
    When the RF pulse is switched off the transversal magnetisation decays and the longitudinal magnetisation is re-established. This is known as the "relaxation" phase

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      The transversal magnetisation decays with different speeds depending on the tissue as a result of the differing density of protons, as they lose coherence because they will be influenced by other protons in their environment.

    • B.

      The signals from different protons will get out of phase with each other and begin to cancel each other out

    • C.

      Resonance means that protons will only absorb the RF that matches their precession frequency. By allowing the magnetic field to vary linearly, we can cause the resonance frequency to vary throughout the brain, this can be achieved using gradients.

    • D.

      1) divide the brain into slices and use a slice selecting gradient through the gradation of the RF pulse. 2) form a  phase encoding gradient gives us the y axis coordinate. 3) frequency encoding gradient gives us the x axis coordinate

    • E.

      Fourier transformation allows for the measurement and reconstruction of the 3D brain, but takes just under 1 second

    Correct Answer
    E. Fourier transformation allows for the measurement and reconstruction of the 3D brain, but takes just under 1 second
    Explanation
    Fourier transformation allows for the measurement and reconstruction of the 3D brain, but takes 1-3 seconds

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Deoxygenated blood increased the signal (it is paramagnetic)

    • B.

      Neural activity is accompanied by a local oversupply in oxygenated and therefore provides a better BOLD signal

    • C.

      You can track which brain regions are active during cognitive tasks through oxygen levels

    • D.

      There is a temporal lag in the bold response (8 secs - haemodynamic response function) and the BOLD signal requires 16 secs to restore to baseline

    • E.

      High blood flow may mean relatively less oxygen is extracted

    • F.

      It is not valid to compare signals between different regions as the signal change is different

    • G.

      Excitation inhibition networks (EIN) are small and highly interconnected functional microunits. If they equal 0 it means the excitatory neurons and inhibitory neurons have cancelled each other out, and thus are not observed in the BOLD signal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deoxygenated blood increased the signal (it is paramagnetic)
    Explanation
    Deoxygenated blood decreases the BOLD signal (it is paramagnetic)

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not a limitation of fMRI?

    • A.

      FMRI displays brain activities as blobs of activation, but for the most part the brain is not modular

    • B.

      Although we interpret the results of fMRI correctly it us not clear whether we have not accounted for extraneous variables

    • C.

      Temporal resolution is poor and spatial resolution is limited by the relatively large size of a voxel, which may contain up to 100,000 neurons

    • D.

      There is a multiple comparison meaning that a bonferroni correction must be made by dividing the alpha level by the number of t tests (50,000)

    Correct Answer
    B. Although we interpret the results of fMRI correctly it us not clear whether we have not accounted for extraneous variables
    Explanation
    The given answer states that a limitation of fMRI is that although we interpret the results correctly, it is not clear whether we have accounted for extraneous variables. This means that while we may be able to accurately interpret the brain activity shown in an fMRI scan, there is still a possibility that other factors or variables outside of the study's control could be influencing the results. This highlights a potential limitation in the accuracy and reliability of fMRI findings, as there may be confounding factors that have not been taken into consideration.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      FMRI has been utilised to confirm how the human visual system represents information and how the visual content becomes available to higher level visual areas in the cortex

    • B.

      Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) discovered that the fusiform gyrus responded strongly to faces, indicating that the visual areas of the brain are modular 

    • C.

      It would be simply impossible if the brain had modules for everything

    • D.

      Kanwisher and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field

    • E.

      Malach and colleagues (2002) argued that coding is driven by resolution needs and the fusiform face area is good for everything that requires high resolution

    • F.

      Gauthier and colleagues (1999) discovered that the the FFA responded strongly to greebles indicating that it is a specialised area for expertise rather than a modular area for faces

    Correct Answer
    D. Kanwisher and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field
    Explanation
    Malach and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Reverse inference is a problem because: task A shows that brain region Z is active in this study. In other studies, cognitive process X is occurring when brain region Z is active. Therefore, in this study activity in brain region Z means that there is engagement of cognitive function X.

    • B.

      Brain region Z may not be exclusively used in cognitive function X, it may be active in other tasks.

    • C.

      Some researchers suggest that anterior regions of the brain is associated with abstract information and is more diffuse and harder to map, as compared to the posterior regions which represent more specific content

    • D.

      The frontal lobe may be recruited more strongly during more difficult tasks

    • E.

      A lot of brain regions are a part of a "multiple demand" network. This means that if we see activation of one of these, we still do not know what each individual brain region is responsible for

    • F.

      If the brain region is activated by many cognitive functions we learn very little about it, however, if the experimental setup succeeds in manipulating the cognitive process of interest, it can still provide useful information about the process

    Correct Answer
    F. If the brain region is activated by many cognitive functions we learn very little about it, however, if the experimental setup succeeds in manipulating the cognitive process of interest, it can still provide useful information about the process
    Explanation
    The answer is incorrect because it states that if a brain region is activated by many cognitive functions, we learn very little about it. However, the explanation provided in the question suggests that if the experimental setup successfully manipulates the cognitive process of interest, it can still provide useful information about the process. Therefore, even if a brain region is activated by multiple cognitive functions, it can still contribute to our understanding of a specific cognitive process if the experimental setup is effective.

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  • 13. 

    Poldrack (2006) - The probability that we really learn from our fMRI results that cognitive process X is involved and the over-interpretation of null results depends on all of the following but. . .

    • A.

      Only a few neurons in a voxel may be showing differences which can only be detected through more sensitive tasks.

    • B.

      The quality of the task to measure the cognitive process

    • C.

      When the null hypothesis is accepted we don't know the significance because statistic tests are designed to make the alternative hypothesis  difficult, not the null hypothesis, therefore we cannot interpret the null hypothesis results

    • D.

      The specificity of region for this cognitive process

    Correct Answer
    A. Only a few neurons in a voxel may be showing differences which can only be detected through more sensitive tasks.
    Explanation
    The answer suggests that the probability of learning from fMRI results and the over-interpretation of null results depend on various factors such as the quality of the task to measure the cognitive process and the specificity of the region for that process. Additionally, it states that when the null hypothesis is accepted, the significance is unknown because statistical tests are designed to make the alternative hypothesis difficult to support, rather than the null hypothesis. Therefore, the answer implies that only a few neurons in a voxel may be showing differences that can only be detected through more sensitive tasks.

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  • 14. 

    In regards to epilepsy, which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Epileptic seizures arise from sudden excitation in groups of neurons with a loss of inhibitory potential

    • B.

      Intermittent derangement of the nervous system presumably due to a sudden, excessive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons

    • C.

      Temporal lobe epilepsy involves recurrent unprovoked seizures originating from medial or lateral areas of the temporal lobe

    • D.

      Simple partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)  and complete partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness)

    Correct Answer
    D. Simple partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)  and complete partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness)
    Explanation
    Simple partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness) and complete partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is incorrect in regards to epilepsy?

    • A.

      Surgical removal of the lesioned hippocampus can't cure, but can reduce the number of seizures.

    • B.

      The most common pathophysiology of TLE is hippocampal sclerosis and results from neuronal loss and gliosis

    • C.

      Partial seizures often originate from a  particular past of the brain and often spread to the whole brain.

    • D.

      Often occurs early in life (2 years plus)

    • E.

      Other aetiologies include past infections, tumours and vascular malformations

    • F.

      The temporal lobe includes the superior temporal gyrus, middle temporal gyrus and inferior temporal gyrus

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical removal of the lesioned hippocampus can't cure, but can reduce the number of seizures.
    Explanation
    Surgical removal of the lesioned hippocampus can cure or reduce the number of seizures.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is incorrect of the patient HM?

    • A.

      He was having 10-20 major seizures per day due to bilateral hippocampi sclerosis and thus had both hippocampi removed

    • B.

      HM struggled with procedural memory, however, his declarative memory came back over time.

    • C.

      After his surgery he had fewer seizures, a normal IQ, a normal attention span and retrograde and anterograde amnesia

    • D.

      Retrograde amnesia leads to an impairment in one's ability to recall memories prior to an event, whilst anterograde amnesia leads to an impairment in creating new memories after an injury

    Correct Answer
    B. HM struggled with procedural memory, however, his declarative memory came back over time.
    Explanation
    After his surgery, HM had improvements in his condition such as fewer seizures, a normal IQ, a normal attention span, and retrograde and anterograde amnesia. However, he still struggled with procedural memory, which is the type of memory that involves learning and performing tasks or skills. On the other hand, his declarative memory, which is the type of memory that involves facts and events, gradually returned over time.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not informed by analysis of HM?

    • A.

      Intact memory function relies on a neuroanatomical network, involving functional asymetry many brain regions including the temporal lobes which are the engine of memory

    • B.

      Medial temporal lobe structures are essential for memory

    • C.

      Medial temporal structures are more essential for anterograde memory

    • D.

      There is a distinction between declarative and procedural memory

    Correct Answer
    A. Intact memory function relies on a neuroanatomical network, involving functional asymetry many brain regions including the temporal lobes which are the engine of memory
    Explanation
    The given answer is not informed by the analysis of HM because it does not specifically mention or discuss HM's case or the impact of his medial temporal lobe damage on memory function. The answer focuses on the general concept of intact memory function and the involvement of various brain regions, but it does not address the specific case of HM and the significance of his medial temporal lobe structures in memory.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      The hippocampus was the region of the brain first identified to support memory and the hippocampal formation includes the dentate gyrus, CA1-CA3 and the subiculum

    • B.

      Patients have material-specific memory deficits related to involved medial temporal lobe (MTL)

    • C.

      Left MTL lesion results in verbal memory impairment whilst right MTL lesion results in non-verbal/visual memory impairments

    • D.

      The hippocampus is also known as Cornu ammonis and can be labelled CA1 to CA5

    • E.

      They are all correct

    Correct Answer
    D. The hippocampus is also known as Cornu ammonis and can be labelled CA1 to CA5
    Explanation
    The hippocampus is also known as Cornu ammonis and can be labelled CA1 to CA3

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is an incorrect summary of the medial temporal lobe and memory function?

    • A.

      The above image is a schematic representation of the Medial Temporal Lobe

    • B.

      Information is integrated in sensory systems and is sent to the hippocampal formation for long term storage

    • C.

      Memories can be accessed by reciprocal connections between the hippocampal formation and the temporal neocortex

    • D.

      The  subcortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)

    Correct Answer
    D. The  subcortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)
    Explanation
    The  neocortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is incorrect of the hippocampal formation?

    • A.

      The hippocampal formation and surrounding structures are essential for learning and consolidating novel information.

    • B.

      The consolidation theory suggests that after a period of consolidation, information may be retrieved independent of involvement from the hippocampal formation

    • C.

      The multiple trace theory suggests that autobiographical/episodic experiences always require the hippocampal formation

    • D.

      The hippocampal formation is not necessary in relational memories between two arbitrary pieces of information.

    • E.

      Information must move through the hippocampal formation and surrounding structures for learning to occur, thus the hippocampal formation in the MTL are fundamental structures of declarative memory

    Correct Answer
    D. The hippocampal formation is not necessary in relational memories between two arbitrary pieces of information.
    Explanation
    The hippocampal formation is necessary in relational memories between two arbitrary pieces of information.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Papez's circuit, frontal lobes and the diencephalon are all involved in memory

    • B.

      Papez's circuit and the amygdala form the limbic system which is integral in emotional memory formation

    • C.

      Regardless of the strength of an emotional experience the storing of the memory is always the same

    • D.

      Lesions of the limbic system result in a loss of conditioned fear, an impairment of fear learning and reduced memory for emotionally laden events

    • E.

      Papez's circuit is comprised of mamillary bodies (part of the hypothalamus), fornix, anterior thalamic nuclei, cingulate gyrus and the hypothalamas

    Correct Answer
    C. Regardless of the strength of an emotional experience the storing of the memory is always the same
    Explanation
    The higher the emotional response, the more profound the storing of the emotional memory

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Declarative memory impairment is least reliable when the hippocampus or the Anterior Thalamic Nuclei are lesioned

    • B.

      Lesions to Papez's circuit result in declarative memory impairment (poor relational memory/encoding)

    • C.

      The frontal lobe is involved in developing and implementing strategies for appropriate memory, encoding and retrieval

    • D.

      Dorsal Lateral Pre-Frontal cortex damage results in an impairment in remembering contextual detail i.e. the source of information, the chronological order of memories can result in confabulation (the production of statements involving bizaar distortions of memory)

    • E.

      There are a lot of connections withing the pre-frontal cortex that go to the peririhinal cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Declarative memory impairment is least reliable when the hippocampus or the Anterior Thalamic Nuclei are lesioned
    Explanation
    Declarative memory impairment is most reliable when the hippocampus or the Anterior Thalamic Nuclei are lesioned

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is false of the components of the Diencephalon?

    • A.

      Diencephalon means interbrain and is comprised of the thalamus and the hypothalamus

    • B.

      The thalamus is connected to all regions of the brain and damage to a specific location will mean damage to a connection of a specific brain region and the damage results in the same problem as would occur id that brain region itself was damaged

    • C.

      Anterior and medial lesions are more likely to cause memory deficits than posterior or lateral lesions. This is because parts of the thalamus have a direct connection to the temporal lobe

    • D.

      Dense amnesic syndrome is associated with damage to the mammillo-thalamic tract, as it connects to the posterior thalamus and hippocampus

    • E.

      If the Medio Dorsal Nucleus and or the Internal Medullary Lamina is damaged but the MTT is spared, then there will be specific retrieval difficulties but preserved recognition

    • F.

      They are all correct

    Correct Answer
    D. Dense amnesic syndrome is associated with damage to the mammillo-thalamic tract, as it connects to the posterior thalamus and hippocampus
    Explanation
    Dense amnesic syndrome is associated with damage to the mammillo-thalamic tract, as it connects to the anterior thalamus and hippocampus

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Dorsal Medial Thalamus damage results in deficits in selecting the appropriate information to be retrieved (active retrieval) due to reduced mental flexibility, whilst damage to the intralaminar results in deficits seen in semantic memory and memory retrieval

    • B.

      Lesions of the frontal lobe lead to impaired abilities to organise the encoding, retrieval and maintenance of memories

    • C.

      Learning involves synaptic plasticity which refers to the biochemistry of synapses changing, thus altering the effects on the post-synaptic neuron

    • D.

      Long term potention  refers to a long term increase in the excitability of a neuron in response to a a particular synaptic input , caused by repeated high frequency of that input

    • E.

      None of them are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    E. None of them are incorrect
    Explanation
    The given answer states that none of the statements are incorrect. This means that all of the statements provided in the question are true and accurate.

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  • 25. 

    Which one is incorrect?

    • A.

      Hebb's rule referes to growth processes and metabolic changes which occur in a pre-synaptic and post-synaptic neuron in order to increase the efficiency of firing in the post-synaptic neuron

    • B.

      LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA5 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex) and  in the prefrontal cortex, the motor cortex, thalamus, amygdala and visual cortex

    • C.

      LTP causes more glutamate receptors to be inserted in the post-synaptic neuron, more glutamate to be released and bushier dendrites

    • D.

      Sensitization refers to a single noxious stimuli causing an exaggerated synaptic response to repeat presentation of the noxious stimulus

    • E.

      Long term depression is resultant of low frequency stimulation at synapses and can decrease synaptic strength

    • F.

      Habituation refers to the process in which repeated stimulation reduces the strength of the synaptic response and thus reduces neurotransmitter

    • G.

      They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    B. LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA5 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex) and  in the prefrontal cortex, the motor cortex, thalamus, amygdala and visual cortex
    Explanation
    LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA1 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex)

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following correctly defines memory?

    • A.

      Maintaining information over time, in one's mind

    • B.

      The mental processes of acquiring and retaining information for later retrieval

    • C.

      The process of encoding information for sustained use

    • D.

      The ability to correctly recall something explicitly or implicitly learnt

    • E.

      A and c

    • F.

      A and b

    • G.

      C and d

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining information over time, in one's mind
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintaining information over time, in one's mind." This definition accurately describes memory as the process of retaining and storing information in one's mind for later use or retrieval. It implies that memory involves the ability to hold onto and recall information over a period of time, suggesting that it is a cognitive function related to the storage and retrieval of knowledge or experiences.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is correct?

    • A.

      Implicit memories cannot be recalled unless conditions are the same as when the information was encoded

    • B.

      Implicit and explicit memories were derived from dissociable cognitive theories

    • C.

      Procedural and declarative were named through analysis of performance on particular tasks

    • D.

      In studies of amnesia procedural/declarative distinction is less meaningful

    Correct Answer
    A. Implicit memories cannot be recalled unless conditions are the same as when the information was encoded
    Explanation
    Implicit and explicit memories were named through analysis of performance on particular tasks. Procedural and declarative were derived from dissociable cognitive theories with people who have damage to them. In studies of amnesia procedural/declarative distinction is more meaningful

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Procedural memory is important in motor performance. And is supported by memory systems that are independent of the hippocampal formation.

    • B.

      Declarative memory can be independent of the environment, is relational and can trigger the remembering of related memories.

    • C.

      Declarative memory is of semantic knowledge i.e. how to perform a task

    • D.

      There are essentially 4 models of memory, 3 serial and 1 parrallel.

    Correct Answer
    C. Declarative memory is of semantic knowledge i.e. how to perform a task
    Explanation
    Declarative memory is not of semantic knowledge i.e. how to perform a task. Declarative memory refers to the ability to consciously remember facts and events. It involves the storage and retrieval of information that can be explicitly stated or declared. Semantic memory, on the other hand, is a type of declarative memory that involves general knowledge and concepts. It is not specifically related to how to perform a task.

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  • 29. 

    Choose the incorrect option

    • A.

      Attkinson and Shiffron Model (1968): Is depicted in the above picture. Sensory memory = echoic and visual. Working memory capacity = 5-9 chunks of information, and is the site where associations are formed between old and new information. Long term memory = stable system, structural and neural changes. Over time memories change. Memories are subjective.

    • B.

      Levels of processing model - Craik and Lockhart (1972): Information is retained according to the level of processing it has undergone. Shallow to deep continuum. Features maintenance and elaborative rehearsal.

    • C.

      Tulving's Model of Memory (1972-2001): From ablation studies. utilised Atkinson-Shiffron model. Separated LTM into components: procedural, episodic and semantic.

    • D.

      Parallel Distributed Processing: memory is the activation of connections in different areas (distribution) simultaneously (parallel). The pattern of activation is defined by the memory or knowledge. Learning means that the strength of connections between relevant sites is changed. Emphasis is not on the elements, but rather the connections and their strengths.

    • E.

      They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    C. Tulving's Model of Memory (1972-2001): From ablation studies. utilised Atkinson-Shiffron model. Separated LTM into components: procedural, episodic and semantic.
    Explanation
    Tulving's Model of Memory (1972-2001): From lesion studies. utilised Atkinson-Shiffron model. Separated LTM into components: procedural, episodic and semantic.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is correct?

    • A.

      A) All models account for all data from research

    • B.

      B) Parallel models are more useful in amnesia studies

    • C.

      C) Tulving's model maps onto the amnesia state the best

    • D.

      D) Memory refers to the knowledge of an event or a fact, of which in the meantime we have not been thinking about, with the additional consciousness that we have thought of or experienced it before.

    • E.

      E) Semantic memory works by allowing an individual to re-experience, through autonoetic awareness, previous experiences and project similar experiences into the future (mental time travel)

    • F.

      B and c

    • G.

      C and d

    • H.

      C,d and e

    Correct Answer
    G. C and d
    Explanation
    None of the models fully account for all the data from research. Serial models are more useful in amnesia studies. Episodic memory works by allowing an individual to re-experience, through autonoetic awareness, previous experiences and project similar experiences into the future (mental time travel)

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      The episodic context associated with a semantic memory fades over time

    • B.

      Episodic memories share many features with the semantic system, but is not a parallel system. (Tulving)

    • C.

      The systems are entirely parallel within declarative memory, which is dependent on the hippocampal system. Therefore, damage to the hippocampal system leads to the equal impairment of both the memory systems. Therefore, the systems are dissociable. (Squire and Zola)

    • D.

      Serial Parallel Independent Hypothesis (Tulving): Encoding into episodic memory relies on the semantic memory system, thus, episodic memory is a unique extension of semantic memory where retrieval can be supported by either or both systems.

    • E.

      They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    C. The systems are entirely parallel within declarative memory, which is dependent on the hippocampal system. Therefore, damage to the hippocampal system leads to the equal impairment of both the memory systems. Therefore, the systems are dissociable. (Squire and Zola)
    Explanation
    The systems are entirely parallel within declarative memory, which is dependent on the hippocampal system. Therefore, damage to the hippocampal system leads to the equal impairment of both the memory systems. Therefore, the systems are non-dissociable. (Squire and Zola)

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  • 32. 

    Which is correct of dissociations between the memory systems? You have a system with X and Y parts which work to produce A and B outcomes

    • A.

      No dissociation: damaging X or Y affects A and B equally

    • B.

      Single Dissociation: You damage X and if affects A but not B, when you damage Y is affects both

    • C.

      Double Dissociation: You damage X and it affects A and not B, you damage Y and it affects B and not A

    • D.

      Double dissociations mean that the systems are completely independent of each other

    • E.

      All are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. All are correct
    Explanation
    The given correct answer states that all three options - No dissociation, Single Dissociation, and Double Dissociation - are correct. This means that in the given system with X and Y parts producing A and B outcomes, all three scenarios can occur. In the case of no dissociation, damaging either X or Y will affect both A and B equally. In single dissociation, damaging X affects A but not B, while damaging Y affects both A and B. In double dissociation, damaging X affects A but not B, and damaging Y affects B but not A. This suggests that the memory systems in this scenario can exhibit different levels of independence from each other.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is false in regards to Vargha-Khadem et al's 1997 study?

    • A.

      It investigated three patients who had suffered very early bilateral medial temporal lobe injuries

    • B.

      All three had abnormally small bilateral hippocampi and relatively intact extra-hippocampi temporal lobes

    • C.

      All three cases have significantly impaired memory function , relative to intellectual capacity

    • D.

      Their everyday memory deficits included: spatial memory, temporal memory and episodic memory. But all had factual knowledge within the normal range

    • E.

      Despite their impairments they were able to be left alone

    • F.

      They had intact semantic memory but impaired episodic memory, which fit with Tulving's SPI model

    • G.

      Double dissociations exist but are rare

    Correct Answer
    E. Despite their impairments they were able to be left alone
    Explanation
    They were not able to be left alone

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  • 34. 

    Which is incorrect of Alzheimers disease?

    • A.

      Individuals with down's syndrome have a reduced risk of developing DAT

    • B.

      The most common primary dementing illness, where neural tissue itself is affected by the disease

    • C.

      Definitive diagnosis can only be made on pathology and in life only a diagnosis of dementia of the alzheimers type may be made (DAT)

    • D.

      ApoE is present in late onset AD (60 years +), however, there are rare autosomal dominant cases involving mutations in three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presinilin 1 (PSEN1), presinulin 2 (PSEN2). All of which alter production of amyloid beta peptides, which is the principle component of senile plaques

    • E.

      Strokes or head trauma may bring forward the time of onset of DAT

    Correct Answer
    A. Individuals with down's syndrome have a reduced risk of developing DAT
    Explanation
    Individuals with down's syndrome have an increased risk of developing DAT
    Apolipoprotein E (APOE) is a protein involved in the metabolism of fats in the body. It is implicated in Alzheimer's disease and cardiovascular disease. APOE belongs to a family of fat-binding proteins called apolipoproteins.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not a clinical feature of DAT?

    • A.

      Onset is gradual and the course of the illness features a slow deterioration, which can be categorised into three main phases. 

    • B.

      Phase 1 lasts 2-3 years and includes the following symptoms: failing memory, muddled inefficiency in Activities of Daily Living. Spatial disorientation and mood heightening.

    • C.

      Phase 2 features a more rapid progress of deterioration. Intellect and personality deteriorate, dysphasia (problems with language), dyspraxia (trouble sequencing motor movements), agnosia (difficulty identifying objects) and acalulia (a loss of ability to understand mathematical functions) occurs. In addition, disturbance of posture and gait, increased muscle tone (even when relaxed) and delusions and hallucinations occur.

    • D.

      Phase 3 - terminal stage. Symptoms include: profound apathy, becoming be ridden, loss of neurological function, bodily wasting and pneumonia, as a result of inhaling food.

    • E.

      They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    B. Phase 1 lasts 2-3 years and includes the following symptoms: failing memory, muddled inefficiency in Activities of Daily Living. Spatial disorientation and mood heightening.
    Explanation
    Phase 1 lasts 2-3 years and includes the following symptoms: failing memory, muddled inefficiency in Activities of Daily Living. Spatial disorientation and mood disturbances.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is incorrect of AD?

    • A.

      Probable AD: Deficits in 2 or more areas of cognition, progressive worsening of memory and other cognitive functions, no disturbance in consciousness, onset between 40-90, in the absence of any other causes and the presence of biomarkers (elevation or depletion in a blood profile)

    • B.

      Possible AD: Made on the basis of Dementia syndrome, can be made in the presence of another disorder, which is not considered to be the cause of dementia

    • C.

      Definite AD: Histopathological evidence of AD obtained through a biopsy or autopsy 

    • D.

      Pathology of AD: Grossly atrophied brain, mainly affecting the frontal, temporal and parieto-occipital lobes. Extensive degeneration of neurons, glial cell proliferation, extensive amounts of senile plaques, extensive amounts if neurofibrillary tangles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Probable AD: Deficits in 2 or more areas of cognition, progressive worsening of memory and other cognitive functions, no disturbance in consciousness, onset between 40-90, in the absence of any other causes and the presence of biomarkers (elevation or depletion in a blood profile)
    Explanation
    Neurofibrillary tangles lie within the neuron and contain amyloid. Amyloid proteins are found in senile plaques

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      AD commences in the hippocampus/Medial Temporal Lobes. It then spreads to the frontal cortex, and then to the parietal cortex 

    • B.

      Clinical patterns of cognitive impairment include: Anterograde memory (difficulties learnming new things, impaired delayed recall and poor recognition memory), Retrograde memory (temporal gradient - old memories are the sharpest), Wernicke's aphasia (difficulties finding the right words), visuospatial deficits and behaviour change

    • C.

      Behaviour change is due to the spread to the frontal lobe, Visuospatial deficits are due to the spread to the parietal lobes and anterograde memory impairments are due to the spread to the hippocampus and MTL

    • D.

      Treatment only improves the quality of life for the individual, it does not stop the progression of the illness

    Correct Answer
    A. AD commences in the hippocampus/Medial Temporal Lobes. It then spreads to the frontal cortex, and then to the parietal cortex 
    Explanation
    AD commences in the hippocampus/Medial Temporal Lobes. It then spreads posteriously to the parietal cortex and then to the frontal cortex

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      When bound by a specific neurotransmitter, Ion channels open and allow a specific ion to flow through

    • B.

      The influx of positively charged ions increases the likelihood of the firing of the post-synaptic neuron

    • C.

      GPCR utilise second messengers which act to either open a channel or alter the expression of genes in the nucleus

    • D.

      The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator can be used interchangeably in most cases

    Correct Answer
    D. The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator can be used interchangeably in most cases
    Explanation
    The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator cannot be used interchangeably in most cases. While neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit signals across a synapse, neuromodulators are substances that modulate the activity of neurons and neurotransmitters. Neuromodulators can affect the release, synthesis, or reuptake of neurotransmitters, but they are not considered neurotransmitters themselves.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      Excitatory pathways are mostly found in long projections throughout the cortex, whilst inhibitory pathways are mostly short local neurons, which form a dense web around and between the excitatory neurons.

    • B.

      Neuromodulation alters neurotransmitter release and neurotransmitter action at the post synaptic neuron

    • C.

      Neuronmodulation may cause changes in neural function or structure and sustained neuromodulation can drive changes in the brain related to synaptic plasticity.

    • D.

      GABA is the inhibitory neurotransmitter, whilst glutamate is the excitatory neurotransmitter

    Correct Answer
    B. Neuromodulation alters neurotransmitter release and neurotransmitter action at the post synaptic neuron
    Explanation
    Neuromodulation alters neurotransmitter release at the pre synaptic neuron and neurotransmitter action at the post synaptic neuron

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Serotonin (5-HT) in synthesised in the Raphe Nuclei and is cluster released to the entire brain, including the hippocampus, amygdala, brainstem and cortex

    • B.

      Noradrenaline (NA) is synthesised in the Locus Coeruleus and released to the thalamus, amygdala, hypothalamus and cortex

    • C.

      Dopamine (DA) is synthesised in the substantia niagra and the ventral tegmental area and is distributed to the amygdala, nucleus accumbens, pre-frontal cortex and striatum

    • D.

      Acetylcholine (Ach) is produced in the nucleus basalis of Meynert and the medial septal nucleus and is projected to the thalamus, neocortex and hippocampus

    • E.

      Histamine (HA) system: the neurons are located to the posterior hypothalamus

    • F.

      They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    F. They're all correct
    Explanation
    The given answer states that all of the statements provided are correct. This means that each neurotransmitter mentioned (serotonin, noradrenaline, dopamine, acetylcholine, and histamine) is indeed synthesized in the specified areas and released to the mentioned regions of the brain. Additionally, the location of the histamine neurons is correctly stated as being in the posterior hypothalamus. Therefore, all of the statements provided in the question are accurate.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Drugs are either agonistic, prolong activation and increase the impact of the pathway, or antagonistic block the receptor and reduce activation and decrease the impact of the pathway

    • B.

      Neurotransmitters function can be altered by increasing or decreasing the synthesis of the neurotransmitter. An increase in some neurotransmitters lead to a decrease in production via negative feedback.

    • C.

      Both synthesis, transport and release of NT are fast 

    • D.

      Peptides, nucleosides, lipids and gases are non-traditional NT as they do not satisfy all the criteria

    Correct Answer
    C. Both synthesis, transport and release of NT are fast 
    Explanation
    Synthesis and transport of NT is slow and release of NT is fast 

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Glutamate is the same as glutamic acid and is synthesised in the brain from glutamine, which is released by cells neighbouring the neuron

    • B.

      The effects of alcohol on memory loss and sedation is a result of the agonist effects of alcohol on GABA

    • C.

      There are four major types of  glutamate receptors. 3 ion channels (NMDA, AMDA and Kainate receptors) and 1 GPCR (metabotrophic)

    • D.

      The NMDA receptor has at least 6 different binding sites, and therefore it has lots of complex functions. For example, it will only open if glycine is bound and magnesium isn't

    • E.

      Alcohol is an NMDA antagonist and blocks the signal of glutamate, whilst increasing GABA inhibition

    Correct Answer
    B. The effects of alcohol on memory loss and sedation is a result of the agonist effects of alcohol on GABA
    Explanation
    The effects of alcohol on memory loss and sedation, is a result of the antagonistic effects of alcohol on glutamate

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Phencyclidine (PCP) and Ketamine  both are NMDA antagonists. Both  cause dissociative hallucinations and increase the risk of suicidal behaviour

    • B.

      Alcohol, PCP and ketamine all have different effects on the mind despite affecting the same receptor

    • C.

      The link between glutamate and psychosis is well known, there have also been other links to dopamine

    • D.

      NMDA receptors are associated with learning and memory and are likely to be relevant to schizophrenia and IQ

    Correct Answer
    C. The link between glutamate and psychosis is well known, there have also been other links to dopamine
    Explanation
    There is much controversy between glutamate and psychosis, and it is more likely that other NT like dopamine are the cause

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Inhibitory networks reduce the likelihood of neurons firing for their non-preferred stimulus

    • B.

      GABA is synthesised from glutamatic acid and can also be converted to and from glutamate

    • C.

      There are two types of GABA receptors: GABAa ion channel and GABAb GPCR

    • D.

      Epilepsy is caused by an abnormality in GABA neurons or receptors

    • E.

      They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    E. They're all correct
  • 45. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      The ventral Tegmental Area is associated with motivation and emotional response and reward, desire and addiction

    • B.

      Dopamine synthesis: tyrosine - DOPA - Dopamine - Noradrenaline

    • C.

      If an unexpected  reward occurs DA neurons become more active and release a burst of DA

    • D.

      After repeated associations between the reward and the beep, no DA will be released 

    • E.

      If a reward is expected and not provided DA neurons will be suppressed. Therefore DA doesn't code the actual reward, rather it codes reward vs expected)

    • F.

      If the gain or loss is unexpected then the feelings associated are often more  intense

    Correct Answer
    D. After repeated associations between the reward and the beep, no DA will be released 
    Explanation
    After repeated associations between the reward and the beep, no DA will be released at the reward as the reward is expected, but it will now be released at the beep

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      The aversive feeling of cognitive effort reflects "opportunity cost"

    • B.

      Incentives can help with motivation because they counterbalance opportunity costs

    • C.

      Opportunity cost refers to everything else rewarding that you could be doing

    • D.

      Unpredictability adds to the boost of DA (better than expected)

    • E.

      For something to be addictive you must code losses as equally significant than gains

    Correct Answer
    E. For something to be addictive you must code losses as equally significant than gains
    Explanation
    For something to be addictive you must code losses as less significant than gains

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Cocaine blocks the re-uptake o dopamine after it is released, therefore increasing the dopamine signal as perceived by the post-synaptic neuron

    • B.

      Amphetamine (ice = pure, speed = less pure) reverse the uptake transporter causing the active expelling of DA and NA out of the neuron. They also prevent DA uptake.

    • C.

      Addictive dopamine drugs are always coded by the brain as better than expected as DA is released at the time of the beep and at the time when it enters the blood stream. This means that every time the dopamine drug is used the reward system codes it as better than before.

    • D.

      More addictive drugs are released slower than less addictive drugs

    Correct Answer
    D. More addictive drugs are released slower than less addictive drugs
    Explanation
    More addictive drugs are released faster than less addictive drugs

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is not an issue of the addiction vs free will debate?

    • A.

      Drugs initiate wanting and cravings

    • B.

      Cognitive control is reduced by impaired function of the prefrontal cortex as a result of excessive dopamine

    • C.

      Failures of top down control contribute to the loss of control over the urge to take drugs

    • D.

      DA system might be less important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling

    Correct Answer
    D. DA system might be less important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling
    Explanation
    DA system might be more important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Noradrenaline is synthesis: tyrosine - DOPA - Dopamine - noradrenaline

    • B.

      High Locus Ceruleus (LC) /NA activity is involved in fight, flight, freeze and fornicate

    • C.

      NA causes a state of hyperarousal adapted for evolutionary important situations where individual or sexual fitness is involved

    • D.

      High levels of LC/NA activity can lead to stress, anxiety, panic attacks and mania

    • E.

      Stress and arousal can be depicted on an inverted U with high anxiety and sleep on either end

    Correct Answer
    D. High levels of LC/NA activity can lead to stress, anxiety, panic attacks and mania
    Explanation
    High levels of LC/NA activity can lead to stress, anxiety and panic attacks

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • A.

      Moderate levels of LC and NA act to consolidate decisions of either exploring or exploiting one's environment

    • B.

      A burst of NA tips the balance and commits the individual to a particular behaviour or action

    • C.

      Neurons in the Locus Coeruleus are inhibited after firing due to a refractory period which acts to inhibit all other choices

    • D.

      The more salient the stimulus the smaller the burst of LC neurons and NA

    Correct Answer
    D. The more salient the stimulus the smaller the burst of LC neurons and NA
    Explanation
    The more salient the stimulus the bigger the burst of LC neurons and NA

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
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    Tessa
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