Psyc20006 - Biological Psychology

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  • 1/140 Questions

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Deoxygenated blood increased the signal (it is paramagnetic)
    • Neural activity is accompanied by a local oversupply in oxygenated and therefore provides a better BOLD signal
    • You can track which brain regions are active during cognitive tasks through oxygen levels
    • There is a temporal lag in the bold response (8 secs - haemodynamic response function) and the BOLD signal requires 16 secs to restore to baseline
    • High blood flow may mean relatively less oxygen is extracted
    • It is not valid to compare signals between different regions as the signal change is different
    • Excitation inhibition networks (EIN) are small and highly interconnected functional microunits. If they equal 0 it means the excitatory neurons and inhibitory neurons have cancelled each other out, and thus are not observed in the BOLD signal.
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About This Quiz

Explore key concepts in Biological Psychology with this PSYC20006 quiz. Assess your understanding of EEGs, cortical functions, and statistical analysis in neuroscience. Ideal for students seeking to deepen their knowledge in neuropsychological mechanisms and diagnostic techniques.

Psyc20006 - Biological Psychology - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In regards to epilepsy, which of the following is incorrect?

    • Epileptic seizures arise from sudden excitation in groups of neurons with a loss of inhibitory potential

    • Intermittent derangement of the nervous system presumably due to a sudden, excessive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons

    • Temporal lobe epilepsy involves recurrent unprovoked seizures originating from medial or lateral areas of the temporal lobe

    • Simple partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)  and complete partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness)

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)  and complete partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness)
    Explanation
    Simple partial seizures (no loss of awareness/consciousness) and complete partial seizures (with loss of awareness/consciousness)

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is incorrect of the patient HM?

    • He was having 10-20 major seizures per day due to bilateral hippocampi sclerosis and thus had both hippocampi removed

    • HM struggled with procedural memory, however, his declarative memory came back over time.

    • After his surgery he had fewer seizures, a normal IQ, a normal attention span and retrograde and anterograde amnesia

    • Retrograde amnesia leads to an impairment in one's ability to recall memories prior to an event, whilst anterograde amnesia leads to an impairment in creating new memories after an injury

    Correct Answer
    A. HM struggled with procedural memory, however, his declarative memory came back over time.
    Explanation
    After his surgery, HM had improvements in his condition such as fewer seizures, a normal IQ, a normal attention span, and retrograde and anterograde amnesia. However, he still struggled with procedural memory, which is the type of memory that involves learning and performing tasks or skills. On the other hand, his declarative memory, which is the type of memory that involves facts and events, gradually returned over time.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Cocaine blocks the re-uptake o dopamine after it is released, therefore increasing the dopamine signal as perceived by the post-synaptic neuron

    • Amphetamine (ice = pure, speed = less pure) reverse the uptake transporter causing the active expelling of DA and NA out of the neuron. They also prevent DA uptake.

    • Addictive dopamine drugs are always coded by the brain as better than expected as DA is released at the time of the beep and at the time when it enters the blood stream. This means that every time the dopamine drug is used the reward system codes it as better than before.

    • More addictive drugs are released slower than less addictive drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. More addictive drugs are released slower than less addictive drugs
    Explanation
    More addictive drugs are released faster than less addictive drugs

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) i.e. prozac, block reuptake of serotonin at the synapse, which leads to the perception of higher activity /stimulation of the neuron

    • SSRI's are fast acting

    • SSRIs may alter gene expression, alter NT synthesis/storage, change the structures of the neurons, or shut of f the stress response

    • Increased levels of SSRIs may lead to neurogenesis

    Correct Answer
    A. SSRI's are fast acting
    Explanation
    SSRI's are slow acting and often take weeks for any therapeutic effects to be achieved

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Adenosine levels gradually rise throughout the day and promote sleep and suppress arousal

    • Increased firing of neurons with adenosine reduce activity

    • Caffeine and cocaine act in a similar way

    • Caffeine acts as an adenosine receptor antagonist and blocks the natural action of adenosine, thus promoting alertness and reducing firing which causes activation

    Correct Answer
    A. Caffeine and cocaine act in a similar way
    Explanation
    Cocaine acts to increase alertness whilst caffeine acts to reduce tiredness

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  • 7. 

    A figure-eight TMS coil has the strongest effect

    • In the centre where both parts meet, with a radius of 3-4 mm

    • Evenly in the entire brain

    • In all area covered by both rings

    • It has no effect

    Correct Answer
    A. In the centre where both parts meet, with a radius of 3-4 mm
    Explanation
    The figure-eight TMS coil has the strongest effect in the center where both parts meet, with a radius of 3-4 mm. This means that the area where the two parts of the figure-eight coil intersect is where the magnetic field is most concentrated and has the greatest impact. The radius of 3-4 mm indicates the distance from the center where the effect is strongest, suggesting that the magnetic field extends outward from this point but gradually decreases in strength.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following statement about TMS is NOT true?

    • TMS is a powerful tool to investigate the causal involvement of brain regions in cognitive processes

    • TMS penetrates deeper brain structures and can be used to stimulate the midbrain

    • TMS induces a short-lived ‘virtual lesion’ by injecting ‘neural noise’

    • ‘Virtual lesions’ induced by TMS are not permanent

    Correct Answer
    A. TMS penetrates deeper brain structures and can be used to stimulate the midbrain
    Explanation
    TMS is a powerful tool to investigate the causal involvement of brain regions in cognitive processes. TMS induces a short-lived 'virtual lesion' by injecting 'neural noise'. 'Virtual lesions' induced by TMS are not permanent. However, the statement that TMS penetrates deeper brain structures and can be used to stimulate the midbrain is not true. TMS is generally used to stimulate the outer layers of the brain, specifically the cortex, and it is not capable of reaching deeper brain structures such as the midbrain.

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  • 9. 

    In Amassian and colleagues’ (1989) study, when TMS was applied 4 cm to the left of the centre over primary visual cortex

    • Participants had problems reporting the letter displayed on the left

    • Participants had problems reporting the letter displayed on the right

    • Participants had problems reporting all letters

    • Participants had no problems reporting any letters

    Correct Answer
    A. Participants had problems reporting the letter displayed on the right
    Explanation
    In Amassian and colleagues' (1989) study, when TMS was applied 4 cm to the left of the center over the primary visual cortex, participants had problems reporting the letter displayed on the right. This suggests that the TMS applied to the left side of the primary visual cortex disrupted the processing of visual information from the right visual field, leading to difficulties in accurately reporting the letter displayed on the right.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following statements about statistical testing is NOT true?

    • We need to conduct statistical tests because we can't determine whether an observed effect in our sample is significant just because it looks different

    • Statistical tests can provide direct proof that the H1 hypothesis is true

    • Statistical tests are used to determine how unlikely a specific empirical result is under the chance distribution of possible results.

    • Probability distributions of t-values used for statistical testing differ depending on the degrees of freedom.

    Correct Answer
    A. Statistical tests can provide direct proof that the H1 hypothesis is true
    Explanation
    Statistical tests cannot provide direct proof that the H1 hypothesis is true. Instead, statistical tests are used to determine the likelihood or probability of obtaining the observed effect or result under the null hypothesis. The H1 hypothesis is the alternative hypothesis, which suggests that there is a significant difference or relationship between variables. However, statistical tests can only provide evidence against the null hypothesis, not direct proof for the alternative hypothesis.

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  • 11. 

    What is an independent-measures design?

    • The values for the dependent variable came from the same group of people in both experimental conditions.

    • The experiment was designed by researchers independent from those who conducted the study.

    • The dependent variable used in the experiment was independent from measures used in all previous studies.

    • The values for the dependent variable came from a different group of people in each experimental condition

    Correct Answer
    A. The values for the dependent variable came from a different group of people in each experimental condition
    Explanation
    An independent-measures design refers to an experimental design where the values for the dependent variable are obtained from different groups of people in each experimental condition. This means that the participants in each group are independent from each other and are not the same individuals. This design allows for the comparison of the effects of different conditions or treatments on different groups of participants, providing a way to assess the impact of the independent variable on the dependent variable.

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  • 12. 

    Independent of the specific test, the t-test equation always contains...

    • The difference between the population mean and the sample mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the standard error of the mean (of the measure of interest)

    • The difference between the population standard error of the mean and the sample standard error of the mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the mean (of the measure of interest)

    • The difference between the population mean and the sample mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the summed squared differences (of the measure of interest)

    • The difference between the population mean and the sample mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the variance (of the measure of interest)

    Correct Answer
    A. The difference between the population mean and the sample mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the standard error of the mean (of the measure of interest)
    Explanation
    The t-test equation always contains the difference between the population mean and the sample mean (of the measure of interest) divided by the standard error of the mean (of the measure of interest). This equation is used to calculate the t-value, which is then compared to a critical value to determine if the difference between the sample mean and the population mean is statistically significant. The standard error of the mean takes into account the variability of the sample mean and provides a measure of how accurately the sample mean represents the population mean.

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  • 13. 

    Which statement about effect sizes is true?

    • The t-value is a measure of effect size. The greater the t-value, the greater the effect. 

    • The p-value is a measure of effect size. The smaller the p-value, the greater the effect. 

    • Both r2 and Cohen's d are effect size measures, and both are independent of the sample size. 

    • Both r2 and Cohen's d are effect size measures, but only Cohen's d is truly independent of the sample size.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both r2 and Cohen's d are effect size measures, but only Cohen's d is truly independent of the sample size.
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer is that both r2 and Cohen's d are effect size measures, but only Cohen's d is truly independent of the sample size. The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the proportion of variance in the dependent variable that can be explained by the independent variable, but it is influenced by the sample size. On the other hand, Cohen's d measures the standardized difference between two means and is not affected by the sample size. Therefore, Cohen's d is a more robust measure of effect size when comparing groups of different sizes.

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  • 14. 

    Because fMRI is non-radioactive the same subject can be scanned repeatedly. 

    • A. true

    • B. false

    • C. depends on the subject 

    • D. depends on the scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. A. true
    Explanation
    fMRI, or functional magnetic resonance imaging, uses magnetic fields to measure brain activity. Unlike other imaging techniques that use radioactive substances, fMRI is non-radioactive. This means that it is safe for the same subject to undergo multiple scans without any health risks. Therefore, the statement that the same subject can be scanned repeatedly with fMRI is true.

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  • 15. 

    The maximum spatial resolution of fMRI is approximately 

    • A. 0.1 - 0.3 mm

    • B. 1 - 3 mm

    • C. 10 - 30 mm

    • D. none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 1 - 3 mm
    Explanation
    fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) is a neuroimaging technique that measures changes in blood flow in the brain. The spatial resolution of fMRI refers to the level of detail at which it can detect brain activity. The correct answer, b. 1 - 3 mm, suggests that the maximum spatial resolution of fMRI is between 1 and 3 millimeters. This means that fMRI can detect brain activity at a relatively fine level of detail, allowing researchers to localize brain functions to specific regions within the brain.

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  • 16. 

    What is the main danger associated with fMRI? 

    • A. ionising radiation 

    • B. seizure 

    • C. strong magnetic field 

    • D. there is no danger associated with fMRI

    Correct Answer
    A. C. strong magnetic field 
    Explanation
    The main danger associated with fMRI is the strong magnetic field. During an fMRI scan, the patient is exposed to a powerful magnetic field, which can cause certain risks. These risks include attracting metal objects in the body, such as surgical implants or pacemakers, which can be dangerous if they move or heat up. Additionally, the strong magnetic field can cause dizziness, nausea, or even induce seizures in some individuals. It is important to screen patients thoroughly before conducting an fMRI scan to ensure their safety.

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  • 17. 

    Hebb’s rule: 

    • Explains autonoetic awareness 

    • Describes longterm depression 

    • Describes longterm potentiation 

    • Explains why depression can cause memory impairment

    Correct Answer
    A. Describes longterm potentiation 
    Explanation
    Hebb's rule describes long-term potentiation. Long-term potentiation is a process in which the strength of synaptic connections between neurons is increased, leading to enhanced communication and improved memory formation. This rule states that when two neurons are repeatedly activated at the same time, the connection between them is strengthened, resulting in more efficient transmission of signals. This explanation aligns with the given correct answer.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements is TRUE? 

    • A. Serotonin is released from neurons originating in the Locus Coeruleus 

    • B. Noradrenaline is released from neurons originating in the Raphe Nucleus 

    • C. Dopamine is released from neurons originating in the Substantia Nigra 

    • D. Glutamate is released from inhibitor neurons in the cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Dopamine is released from neurons originating in the Substantia Nigra 
  • 19. 

    Why is apple juice not addictive even if you think it is delicious? 

    • A. because apple juice is not absorbed by the body quickly enough to trigger dopamine neurons to fire

    • B. because the dopamine neurons do not signal the “deliciousness” as better than expected. 

    • C. because apple juice is not delicious enough to trigger dopamine release. 

    • D. because apple juice is not sufficiently beneficial to a person’s survival for dopamine neurons to code it as a “reward” that the person should be motivated to obtain more of.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. because the dopamine neurons do not signal the “deliciousness” as better than expected. 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. because the dopamine neurons do not signal the "deliciousness" as better than expected. This means that even though apple juice may be delicious, it does not activate the brain's reward system in the same way that addictive substances or activities do. Dopamine neurons are responsible for signaling rewards and motivating individuals to seek out more of those rewards. In the case of apple juice, the brain does not perceive it as a reward worth seeking out, therefore it is not addictive.

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  • 20. 

    Select the correct order from the list of words below to correctly complete this paragraph. ______[1]_______, is synthesised from _______[2]________ (an amino acid found in food). In the brain this compound is then turned into ______[3]________. Parkinson’s Disease can result if there is insufficient levels of this neuromodulator. One treatment is brain stimulation. Another treatment is the drug ________[4]_________.

    • A. [1]Serotonin, [2]Tryptophan, [3]Monoamine oxidase (MAO), [4]Prozac

    • B. [1]Noradrenaline, [2]Tyrosine, [3]L-DOPA, [4]DOPA. 

    • C. [1]Dopamine, [2]Tyrosine, [3]DOPA, [4]L-DOPA.

    • D. [1]Adrenaline, [2]Tyrosine, [3]Monamine Oxidase (MAO), [4]Noradrenaline

    Correct Answer
    A. C. [1]Dopamine, [2]Tyrosine, [3]DOPA, [4]L-DOPA.
    Explanation
    Dopamine, a neurotransmitter, is synthesized from Tyrosine, an amino acid found in food. In the brain, Tyrosine is converted into DOPA, which is further converted into Dopamine. Insufficient levels of Dopamine can lead to Parkinson's Disease. One treatment for this condition is brain stimulation, while another treatment involves the use of the drug L-DOPA.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s disease is FALSE? 

    • A. The disease can lead to impairments in both motor and cognitive control 

    • B. Treatments of the disease can lead to impulsive and addictive behaviours 

    • C. Symptoms can be reduced by electrical stimulation of the hippocampus 

    • D. There is currently no cure

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Symptoms can be reduced by electrical stimulation of the hippocampus 
  • 22. 

    Which of the following statements about clinically diagnosed depression are FALSE? 

    • A. If you have depression, your brother is more likely to have depression than your neighbour. 

    • B. Symptoms are not due to direct physiological effects of drugs caused by recreational or medical purposes. 

    • C. Diagnosis depends on the severity of the depression rather than the duration of time that the depressed symptoms have been experienced. 

    • D. On average more females than males experience depression in their lifetimes.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Diagnosis depends on the severity of the depression rather than the duration of time that the depressed symptoms have been experienced. 
    Explanation
    The statement that diagnosis depends on the severity of the depression rather than the duration of time that the depressed symptoms have been experienced is FALSE. In clinical practice, the duration of time that the depressed symptoms have been experienced is an important factor in diagnosing depression. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) requires that symptoms be present for at least two weeks for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Severity is also considered but is not the sole determinant of diagnosis.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements DOES NOT provide a basis for the “Serotonin Vulnerability” model of depression? 

    • A. Stress reduces the body’s ability to produce cortisol and other hormones that are important in the bodies stress response. 

    • B. Depression is 5-6 times more likely after stressful events. 

    • C. There is a variation in serotonin function across the population. 

    • D. Impaired serotonin function may be a risk factor leading to people being “vulnerable” to developing depression.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Stress reduces the body’s ability to produce cortisol and other hormones that are important in the bodies stress response. 
    Explanation
    The "Serotonin Vulnerability" model of depression suggests that impaired serotonin function may be a risk factor for developing depression. This model focuses on serotonin, not cortisol or other hormones involved in the body's stress response. Therefore, statement a, which discusses the impact of stress on cortisol production, does not provide a basis for the "Serotonin Vulnerability" model of depression.

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  • 24. 

    It was thought that vaccinations might cause epilepsy. However two Melbourne researchers first identify some of the genes associated with epilepsy and then showed that 

    • A. vaccinations cause high fevers in some children and the fevers can trigger the first epileptic event. 

    • B. children with the epilepsy genes that did not receive vaccinations still ended up getting epilepsy. 

    • C. some children with the epilepsy gene had seizures before they received vaccinations. 

    • D. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. D. all of the above
    Explanation
    The given answer, "d. all of the above," is correct because the explanation provided in the question supports all three options. It states that vaccinations can cause high fevers in some children, and these fevers can trigger the first epileptic event. Additionally, it mentions that children with epilepsy genes who did not receive vaccinations still ended up getting epilepsy, indicating that there are other factors contributing to the development of epilepsy. Lastly, it mentions that some children with epilepsy genes had seizures before they received vaccinations, suggesting that vaccinations are not the sole cause of epilepsy.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements about Nitric Oxide (NO) is FALSE? 

    • A. NO was once named “molecule of the year” and it’s discovery as a neurotransmitter lead to the awarding of a noble prize. 

    • B. NO is very short lived after it is released by the cell. 

    • C. NO is not synthesised and stored in vesicles like other neurotransmitters 

    • D. NO activates receptors on both the pre- and post-synaptic neuron

    Correct Answer
    A. D. NO activates receptors on both the pre- and post-synaptic neuron
    Explanation
    Nitric oxide (NO) is a gas that acts as a neurotransmitter in the body. It was once named "molecule of the year" and its discovery as a neurotransmitter led to the awarding of a Nobel Prize. NO is indeed very short-lived after it is released by the cell. However, NO does not activate receptors on both the pre- and post-synaptic neuron. Instead, it diffuses freely across cell membranes and activates an enzyme called guanylate cyclase, which then produces a signaling molecule called cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP). This cGMP then mediates the effects of NO in the target cell.

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  • 26. 

    An autosomal dominant trait is exhibited by a father, but not by a mother. Which of the following is most likely to be true? 

    • A. All sons, but no daughters, will exhibit the trait;

    • B. All daughters, but no sons, will exhibit the trait; 

    • C. Each of their offspring has a 50% chance of exhibiting the trait; 

    • D. Each of their offspring has a 0% chance of exhibiting the trait.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Each of their offspring has a 50% chance of exhibiting the trait; 
    Explanation
    For this sort of question, you'll need to take what you know about different modes of inheritance, and work through the logical steps to arrive at your answer. If there is a similar question in the examination, it will be of similar difficulty—as I said in the lecture, you won't need to be able to work through a whole pedigree map to determine the mode of inheritance.

    Here, you first need to recall that an autosomal trait is one carried on one of the 22 chromosomes of which we all have two copies. This is different from an X-linked trait, carried on the X chromosome, of which genetic males have one copy and genetic females have two. Next, you need to recall that a dominant trait is one that will be exhibited even if it is only carried on one of the two copies of the chromsome. This is different from a recessive trait, which will only be exhibited if it is carried on both copies.

    So, first off, we can deduce that the genetic sex of the offspring should have nothing to do with the probability of inheriting the trait, because the trait is autosomal. That means we are left to calculate the probabilities and see whether they match options (c) or (d).

    In this example, we can deduce that the mother doesn't carry the trait on either chromosome; because it is a domininant trait, she would exhibit it if she carried it at all. We can deduce that the father most likely* carries the trait on one of two chromosomes (it is a dominant trait, so only one of the two is required in order for him to exhibit the trait).

    Likewise, any offspring would only need to inherit the trait on one of two chromsomes in order to exhibit it. It's not going to come from the mother, as we have established she doesn't carry the trait on either chromosome. But there is a one in two (50%) chance that the genetic material contributed by the father will come from the chromosome carrying the trait. This means there is a 50% chance that any offspring will inherit that material. And as a dominant trait, we can thus conclude that each of their offspring has a 50% chance of exhibiting the trait.

    * Note that, in fact, it would be possible that the father carries the trait on both chromosomes. In that case, all offspring would inherit the trait from their father on one chromosome. And it would always be expressed, because one chromosome is enough for a dominant trait. If you picked that up, well done. But note that 100% isn't an option given in the answers, and the question asks which of the options is most likely to be true. So you can still be confident in selecting (c).

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  • 27. 

    The hippocampal formation: 

    • Is made up of the entorhinal and perirhinal cortices 

    • Includes the dentate gyrus and subiculum 

    • Is part of the lateral temporal lobes 

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Includes the dentate gyrus and subiculum 
    Explanation
    The hippocampal formation includes the dentate gyrus and subiculum. The entorhinal and perirhinal cortices are not part of the hippocampal formation. Additionally, the hippocampal formation is not part of the lateral temporal lobes.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Moderate levels of LC and NA act to consolidate decisions of either exploring or exploiting one's environment

    • A burst of NA tips the balance and commits the individual to a particular behaviour or action

    • Neurons in the Locus Coeruleus are inhibited after firing due to a refractory period which acts to inhibit all other choices

    • The more salient the stimulus the smaller the burst of LC neurons and NA

    Correct Answer
    A. The more salient the stimulus the smaller the burst of LC neurons and NA
    Explanation
    The more salient the stimulus the bigger the burst of LC neurons and NA

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Heroin can cause death by respiratory failure

    • Buprenorphine, Naloxone and Methadone are all used to treat heroine addiction and all act as agonists 

    • Synthesis pathways for lipids remain unclear

    • Endocannabinoids are natural cannabis like substances with two known receptors CB1 and CB2

    • Endocannabinoids act to modulate the modulators, by shortening the duration of action potentials in presynaptic neurons, thus decreasing the amount of NT released

    Correct Answer
    A. Buprenorphine, Naloxone and Methadone are all used to treat heroine addiction and all act as agonists 
    Explanation
    Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, Naloxone is a full antagonist and is used to counter heroin overdose and Methadone is an agonist, but is less addictive due to its slower release

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  • 30. 

    Semantic memory: 

    • Is “knowledge memory” 

    • Makes it possible to acquire and retain factual information 

    • Does not involve autonoetic awareness 

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Semantic memory refers to the long-term memory system that stores general knowledge and factual information about the world. It allows individuals to acquire and retain information about concepts, facts, and meanings without the need for personal experiences or autonoetic awareness. Therefore, the statement "All of the above" is the correct answer as it encompasses all the mentioned characteristics of semantic memory.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is false of MRI methods

    • MRI is utilised in reverse inference of cognitive processes based off the presence of activation

    • A magnetic field of 3T is usually used for functional imaging

    • Magnetisation on the z-axis is easily  measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI

    • The head coil is used to send and receive radio frequency pulses

    • The Hydrogen protons precess either parallel of antiparallel and the precession frequency of protons depends on the strength of the magnetic field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetisation on the z-axis is easily  measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI
    Explanation
    The statement that magnetisation on the z-axis is easily measured because the movement is in the same direction as the magnetic current from the MRI is false. In MRI, magnetisation on the z-axis is actually difficult to measure because it is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The movement of the magnetisation is actually in the transverse plane, which is perpendicular to the magnetic field. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is an incorrect summary of the medial temporal lobe and memory function?

    • The above image is a schematic representation of the Medial Temporal Lobe

    • Information is integrated in sensory systems and is sent to the hippocampal formation for long term storage

    • Memories can be accessed by reciprocal connections between the hippocampal formation and the temporal neocortex

    • The  subcortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)

    Correct Answer
    A. The  subcortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)
    Explanation
    The  neocortex is part of the limbic system and is involved in higher order thinking. (sensory perception, generation of motor commands, spatial reasoning, conscious thought and in humans, language)

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  • 33. 

    Which one is incorrect?

    • Hebb's rule referes to growth processes and metabolic changes which occur in a pre-synaptic and post-synaptic neuron in order to increase the efficiency of firing in the post-synaptic neuron

    • LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA5 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex) and  in the prefrontal cortex, the motor cortex, thalamus, amygdala and visual cortex

    • LTP causes more glutamate receptors to be inserted in the post-synaptic neuron, more glutamate to be released and bushier dendrites

    • Sensitization refers to a single noxious stimuli causing an exaggerated synaptic response to repeat presentation of the noxious stimulus

    • Long term depression is resultant of low frequency stimulation at synapses and can decrease synaptic strength

    • Habituation refers to the process in which repeated stimulation reduces the strength of the synaptic response and thus reduces neurotransmitter

    • They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    A. LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA5 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex) and  in the prefrontal cortex, the motor cortex, thalamus, amygdala and visual cortex
    Explanation
    LTP occurs in the hippocampus (particularly CA1 and the dentate gyrus, but also in the entorhinal cortex)

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  • 34. 

    Which is incorrect of Alzheimers disease?

    • Individuals with down's syndrome have a reduced risk of developing DAT

    • The most common primary dementing illness, where neural tissue itself is affected by the disease

    • Definitive diagnosis can only be made on pathology and in life only a diagnosis of dementia of the alzheimers type may be made (DAT)

    • ApoE is present in late onset AD (60 years +), however, there are rare autosomal dominant cases involving mutations in three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presinilin 1 (PSEN1), presinulin 2 (PSEN2). All of which alter production of amyloid beta peptides, which is the principle component of senile plaques

    • Strokes or head trauma may bring forward the time of onset of DAT

    Correct Answer
    A. Individuals with down's syndrome have a reduced risk of developing DAT
    Explanation
    Individuals with down's syndrome have an increased risk of developing DAT
    Apolipoprotein E (APOE) is a protein involved in the metabolism of fats in the body. It is implicated in Alzheimer's disease and cardiovascular disease. APOE belongs to a family of fat-binding proteins called apolipoproteins.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • When bound by a specific neurotransmitter, Ion channels open and allow a specific ion to flow through

    • The influx of positively charged ions increases the likelihood of the firing of the post-synaptic neuron

    • GPCR utilise second messengers which act to either open a channel or alter the expression of genes in the nucleus

    • The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator can be used interchangeably in most cases

    Correct Answer
    A. The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator can be used interchangeably in most cases
    Explanation
    The terms neurotransmitter and neuromodulator cannot be used interchangeably in most cases. While neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit signals across a synapse, neuromodulators are substances that modulate the activity of neurons and neurotransmitters. Neuromodulators can affect the release, synthesis, or reuptake of neurotransmitters, but they are not considered neurotransmitters themselves.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is false in regards to depression?

    • Patients with depression have a reduced number of serotonin receptors in post-mortem studies

    • A mutation in a serotonin transporter gene is linked to an increased likelihood of developing depression

    • Tryptophan depletion induces transient depression symptoms

    • Serotonin function is important in managing the positive feedback control of the brain's stress response

    Correct Answer
    A. Serotonin function is important in managing the positive feedback control of the brain's stress response
    Explanation
    Serotonin function is important in managing the feedback control of the brain's stress response

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  • 37. 

    Which statement about repetitive TMS (rTMS) is true?

    • RTMS is applied for a longer period of time, usually after the task.

    • Safety guidelines (Wassermann, 1998) explicitly rule out the use of rTMS for experiments; it is only allowed to treat depression.

    • RTMS is a powerful tool to give participants a head massage after a stressful day.

    • RTMS can be used to investigate whether (and for how long) a specific cognitive task is impaired

    Correct Answer
    A. RTMS can be used to investigate whether (and for how long) a specific cognitive task is impaired
    Explanation
    rTMS can be used to investigate whether (and for how long) a specific cognitive task is impaired. This statement accurately describes one of the uses of repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS). By applying rTMS to specific regions of the brain, researchers can assess the impact on cognitive tasks and determine if there is any impairment. The duration of the impairment can also be assessed, providing valuable insights into the effects of rTMS on cognitive functioning. This use of rTMS is different from its application for treating depression, as stated in another option, and it is not used as a head massage tool, as mentioned in another option.

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  • 38. 

    The error-related negativity (ERN) is 

    • A positive deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after an erroneous response as compared to a correct response

    • A positive deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after a correct response as compared to an erroneous response

    • A negative deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after a correct response as compared to an erroneous response

    • A negative deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after an erroneous response as compared to a correct response

    Correct Answer
    A. A negative deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after an erroneous response as compared to a correct response
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a negative deflection in amplitude observed at central electrodes ~80-100 ms that is stronger after an erroneous response as compared to a correct response. The error-related negativity (ERN) refers to a negative deflection in the brain's electrical activity that occurs around 80-100 ms after making an error. This means that the brain's response is more negative (or less positive) following an incorrect response compared to a correct response. This suggests that the ERN reflects the brain's detection and evaluation of errors, helping to monitor and adjust behavior.

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  • 39. 

    Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) demonstrated using fMRI that... 

    • There is a brain region in the fusiform gyrus that is more strongly activated for faces compared to greebles. 

    • There is a brain region in the fusiform gyrus that is more strongly activated for houses compared to faces. 

    • There is a brain region in the fusiform gyrus that is more strongly activated for faces compared to objects. 

    • There is a brain region in the prefrontal cortex that is more strongly activated for faces compared to hands.

    Correct Answer
    A. There is a brain region in the fusiform gyrus that is more strongly activated for faces compared to objects. 
    Explanation
    Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) used fMRI to demonstrate that there is a specific brain region in the fusiform gyrus that is more strongly activated when individuals view faces compared to objects. This finding suggests that there is a specialized area in the brain dedicated to processing facial information, highlighting the importance of faces in human perception and social interaction.

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  • 40. 

    Accoriding to Poldrack (2006), what is important to consider for correctly interpreting fMRI results with respect to cognitive processes? 

    • The probability that a task exclusively measures the cognitive process of interest, and the probability that a brain region is exclusively activated during a specific cognitive task. 

    • The probability of false positives; i.e. that the experimenter has corrected for multiple comparissons (i.e. divided the critical p-value by the number of voxels). 

    • Whether of not the researcher has considered that more demanding tasks might activate larger proportions of the prefrontal cortex. 

    • That fMRI is a very slow signal because of the temporal lag of the heamondynamic response function (HRF).

    Correct Answer
    A. The probability that a task exclusively measures the cognitive process of interest, and the probability that a brain region is exclusively activated during a specific cognitive task. 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is important because it addresses two key considerations in interpreting fMRI results. Firstly, it emphasizes the importance of ensuring that the task being used in the study specifically measures the cognitive process of interest, without any confounding factors. Secondly, it highlights the need to determine whether a brain region is exclusively activated during the specific cognitive task, indicating a strong association between the task and the brain region. These considerations are crucial for accurately interpreting fMRI findings and drawing valid conclusions about the relationship between cognitive processes and brain activity.

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  • 41. 

    Which of these methods allows testing for a causal involvement of a brain region in a cognitive process? 

    • FMRI

    • EEG 

    • TMS 

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. TMS 
    Explanation
    TMS (transcranial magnetic stimulation) allows testing for a causal involvement of a brain region in a cognitive process. Unlike fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) and EEG (electroencephalography) which measure brain activity, TMS directly stimulates specific brain regions using magnetic fields, temporarily disrupting their activity and allowing researchers to observe the effects on cognitive processes. Therefore, TMS is the only method listed that can establish a causal relationship between brain regions and cognitive processes.

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  • 42. 

    The NMDA glutamate receptor is an ion channel that allows calcium to enter the cell. It is particularly complex because it has multiple binding sites inside and outside of the cell that are sensitive to specific compounds. In addition to glutamate being bound to the receptor, for it to function properly 

    • A. none of the binding sites can be occupied by their specific compounds 

    • B. a glycine molecule must be bound to the receptor and a magnesium ion cannot be bound.

    • C. both a glycine molecule and a magnesium ion must be bound to the receptor 

    • D. neither a glycine molecule or a magnesium ion can be bound to the receptor.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a glycine molecule must be bound to the receptor and a magnesium ion cannot be bound.
    Explanation
    The NMDA glutamate receptor requires a glycine molecule to be bound to the receptor in order to function properly. Additionally, a magnesium ion cannot be bound to the receptor. Both of these conditions are necessary for the receptor to function correctly.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • FMRI has been utilised to confirm how the human visual system represents information and how the visual content becomes available to higher level visual areas in the cortex

    • Kanwisher and colleagues (1997) discovered that the fusiform gyrus responded strongly to faces, indicating that the visual areas of the brain are modular 

    • It would be simply impossible if the brain had modules for everything

    • Kanwisher and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field

    • Malach and colleagues (2002) argued that coding is driven by resolution needs and the fusiform face area is good for everything that requires high resolution

    • Gauthier and colleagues (1999) discovered that the the FFA responded strongly to greebles indicating that it is a specialised area for expertise rather than a modular area for faces

    Correct Answer
    A. Kanwisher and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field
    Explanation
    Malach and colleagues (2002) suggested that the visual system might not be organised by specific object categories, rather it may be organised by where we encounter things in our visual field

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is correct?

    • Implicit memories cannot be recalled unless conditions are the same as when the information was encoded

    • Implicit and explicit memories were derived from dissociable cognitive theories

    • Procedural and declarative were named through analysis of performance on particular tasks

    • In studies of amnesia procedural/declarative distinction is less meaningful

    Correct Answer
    A. Implicit memories cannot be recalled unless conditions are the same as when the information was encoded
    Explanation
    Implicit and explicit memories were named through analysis of performance on particular tasks. Procedural and declarative were derived from dissociable cognitive theories with people who have damage to them. In studies of amnesia procedural/declarative distinction is more meaningful

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is false in regards to Vargha-Khadem et al's 1997 study?

    • It investigated three patients who had suffered very early bilateral medial temporal lobe injuries

    • All three had abnormally small bilateral hippocampi and relatively intact extra-hippocampi temporal lobes

    • All three cases have significantly impaired memory function , relative to intellectual capacity

    • Their everyday memory deficits included: spatial memory, temporal memory and episodic memory. But all had factual knowledge within the normal range

    • Despite their impairments they were able to be left alone

    • They had intact semantic memory but impaired episodic memory, which fit with Tulving's SPI model

    • Double dissociations exist but are rare

    Correct Answer
    A. Despite their impairments they were able to be left alone
    Explanation
    They were not able to be left alone

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Inhibitory networks reduce the likelihood of neurons firing for their non-preferred stimulus

    • GABA is synthesised from glutamatic acid and can also be converted to and from glutamate

    • There are two types of GABA receptors: GABAa ion channel and GABAb GPCR

    • Epilepsy is caused by an abnormality in GABA neurons or receptors

    • They're all correct

    Correct Answer
    A. They're all correct
  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not an issue of the addiction vs free will debate?

    • Drugs initiate wanting and cravings

    • Cognitive control is reduced by impaired function of the prefrontal cortex as a result of excessive dopamine

    • Failures of top down control contribute to the loss of control over the urge to take drugs

    • DA system might be less important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling

    Correct Answer
    A. DA system might be less important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling
    Explanation
    DA system might be more important in the behavioural/habit and cognitive aspects than the pleasant feeling

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Serotonin acts as a neuromodulator influencing many functions such as sleep, arousal, appetite, temperature, working memory, hallucinations and mood

    • All serotonin in the brain is synthesised in the Raphe Nucleus cell bodies and then  transported to the synapses where it was stored.

    • Serotonin has different effects in different brain areas depending on the receptor subtypes.

    • Drugs will often activate multiple receptor subtypes

    Correct Answer
    A. Drugs will often activate multiple receptor subtypes
    Explanation
    Drugs will often only activate one or a few receptor subtypes , and will be more selective than natural NT

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is incorrect?

    • Forward genetics involves introducing random mutations and screening for the desired phenoype

    • Optogenetics uses microbial opsins to excite or inhibit neurons by light. An adeno-associated virus is commonly used to introduce the required material.

    • Reverse genetics involves introducing targeted mutations using a CRISPR-Cas9 system and guide dsRNA in order to disable a gene or introduce a specific mutant

    • Channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) pump responds to blue light and allows positive ions into the cell, while the halorhodopsin (NpHR) pump responds to yellow light and allows negative ions into the cell

    • Stimulating ChR2 in mice induces a predatory response

    • Optogenetic systems in conjunction with CRIPSR allow light controlled protein trancription and light controlled genome editing

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse genetics involves introducing targeted mutations using a CRISPR-Cas9 system and guide dsRNA in order to disable a gene or introduce a specific mutant
    Explanation
    Reverse genetics involves introducing targeted mutations using a CRISPR-Cas9 system and guide RNA in order to disable a gene or introduce a specific mutant

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