Gyneco (378)

Combination oral contraceptives contain estrogen and progestin, which can potentially decrease milk supply in breastfeeding women. Estrogen can inhibit lactation and reduce milk production. Therefore, using combination oral contraceptives may not be the best option for this patient if she wants to continue breastfeeding for at least 9 months. Other methods such as the progestin-only pill, intrauterine device, Depo-Provera, foam, and condoms would be more suitable as they do not contain estrogen and are less likely to affect milk supply.

The red fleshy mass protruding out from behind the placenta is likely an umbilical cord prolapse. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent fetal compromise. Shoving the placenta back into the uterus (Answer E) is the best next step in management as it helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord and allows for proper blood flow to the fetus. This should be followed by immediate delivery of the placenta and expedited delivery of the baby. Calling for immediate assistance from other medical personnel (Answer B) is also important, but addressing the umbilical cord prolapse takes priority. Beginning an intravenous oxytocin infusion (Answer A), continuing to remove the placenta manually (Answer C), or administering magnesium sulfate (Answer D) are not appropriate management strategies for umbilical cord prolapse.

The patient is a sexually active young woman with multiple sexual partners, making her at risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Therefore, it is appropriate to screen her for gonorrhea and chlamydia, which are common STIs. The Pap test is also recommended for cervical cancer screening in women aged 21-65 years, regardless of sexual activity or number of partners. However, the Pap test alone does not screen for STIs, so it is important to also perform gonorrhea and chlamydia cervical cultures to ensure comprehensive screening for both cervical cancer and STIs. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

The most accurate way of dating the pregnancy in this patient with irregular menses is by measuring the crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound. This method allows for the estimation of gestational age based on the size of the fetus. Since the patient is unsure of her dates, using uterine size on pelvic examination may not be reliable. Quantitative serum HCG level and determination of progesterone level along with serum HCG level can indicate pregnancy but do not provide accurate dating information. Quantification of a serum estradiol level is not relevant for dating the pregnancy.

The patient in this scenario is a healthy 31-year-old with an uneventful pregnancy. She presents with bilateral pedal edema, trace protein in her urine, and a blood pressure of 115/75. These findings are consistent with normal physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The absence of calf tenderness and other symptoms suggests that deep vein thrombosis is unlikely. Therefore, the most appropriate response is to reassure the patient that this is a normal finding of pregnancy and no treatment is needed.

Given the clinical description, the most appropriate procedure would be a low transverse cesarean section. This is because the woman has been in labor for a prolonged period, the fetus is in a malposition (right occiput posterior), there have been mild late decelerations for the past 30 minutes, and the fetal scalp pH has decreased. These findings suggest that the fetus may be experiencing distress and a cesarean section would be the safest option for delivery.

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated in pregnant women at 36 weeks gestation because it can cause kernicterus in the newborn. Kernicterus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of bilirubin in the brain, leading to neurological damage. Ampicillin, Nitrofurantoin, Cephalexin, and Amoxicillin/clavulanate are all considered safe to use in pregnant women and are commonly used to treat UTIs.

The correct answer is E because puerperal fever, also known as postpartum fever, is less severe and less common if lactation is suppressed. This is because breastfeeding can lead to breast engorgement and milk stasis, which can increase the risk of infection. By suppressing lactation, the risk of infection is reduced, resulting in less severe and less common cases of puerperal fever.

The patient's presentation, along with the pathology report findings and negative chest x-ray, are consistent with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD), specifically a complete hydatidiform mole. The best next step in management is to monitor the patient's hCG levels weekly to assess for resolution of the disease. This is because GTD has the potential to develop into persistent or metastatic disease, and monitoring hCG levels allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Hysterectomy, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy are not indicated in this case as the patient is asymptomatic and there is no evidence of metastatic disease.

Glucosuria, or the presence of glucose in the urine, is a common finding in pregnant women. During pregnancy, there is an increased demand for glucose by the fetus, which can lead to increased glucose in the maternal blood. Some of this excess glucose may be excreted in the urine, resulting in glucosuria. In the absence of any other abnormal parameters in the urine test and considering the patient's gestational age, it is likely that the glucosuria is a normal finding in pregnancy. Therefore, option C, "The patient's urinalysis is consistent with normal pregnancy," is the most likely explanation for the increased sugar detected in the urine.

The best frequency and time to perform breast self-examinations is monthly, in the week after cessation of menses. This is because the breasts are less likely to be swollen or tender during this time, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Additionally, performing the examination consistently on a monthly basis increases the chances of detecting any changes early on.

Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, which is damage to the inner ear resulting in hearing loss. In this scenario, the 2-day-old baby failed to respond to high-pitched tones, suggesting a potential hearing impairment. Streptomycin is known to be ototoxic and can cause hearing loss, making it the most likely antibiotic responsible for the clinical findings presented.

The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. This blood is rich in waste products and carbon dioxide, which are then exchanged for oxygen and nutrients in the placenta. The oxygenated blood is then returned to the fetus through the umbilical vein. In this case, collecting umbilical cord blood for pH would provide information about the acid-base status of the deoxygenated blood that was delivered to the placenta during the delivery.

The presence of a succenturiate lobe of the placenta implanted low on the anterior wall of the uterus, with a blood vessel traversing the cervix connecting the two lobes, puts the patient at risk for fetal exsanguination after rupture of the membranes. This is because the blood vessel connecting the two lobes can be torn during the rupture of the membranes, leading to significant bleeding and potential fetal exsanguination. The other options (premature rupture of the membranes, torsion of the umbilical cord, amniotic fluid embolism, and placenta accreta) are not directly related to the specific findings in this patient.

The most likely diagnosis in this case is endometritis. Endometritis is an infection of the lining of the uterus, which can occur after a cesarean section. The patient's symptoms of fever, shaking chills, and uterine tenderness are consistent with this diagnosis. The presence of serous drainage at the incision site also suggests an infection. Other options, such as pelvic abscess, septic pelvic thrombophlebitis, wound infection, and atelectasis, do not fully explain the patient's symptoms and findings on physical examination.

A rise in hCG titers would be an indication to start single-agent chemotherapy in this patient. After the evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole, it is important to monitor hCG levels to assess for persistent or recurrent disease. A rise in hCG titers suggests the presence of persistent or recurrent disease, which may require treatment with chemotherapy. A plateau of hCG titers for 1 week or the return of hCG titer to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation indicates a favorable response to treatment and does not require chemotherapy. The appearance of liver or brain metastasis would also indicate the need for chemotherapy, but the question specifically asks for an indication before the development of metastasis.

The most appropriate treatment recommendation for this patient is time and reassurance because her symptoms are likely due to the normal postpartum blues, which are self-limited and typically resolve within a few weeks. She denies feeling sad or anxious, and her symptoms can be attributed to lack of sleep and hormonal changes after delivery. Referral to psychiatry or the use of medications such as antidepressants or Haldol is not necessary in this case. A sleep aid may be considered if her sleep disturbances persist, but it is not the most appropriate initial treatment recommendation. Electroconvulsive therapy is not indicated in this situation.

The correct answer is D. Circumcisions should not be performed routinely because of insufficient data regarding risks and benefits. This recommendation from the American Pediatric Association suggests that there is not enough evidence to support routine circumcision in newborns. It acknowledges that the risks and benefits of the procedure are not well-established, and therefore, it is not recommended as a standard practice. This information is important for the patient to consider when making a decision about circumcision for her newborn.

The correct answer is D. Obstetric (OB) conjugate. The obstetric conjugate is the shortest distance between the sacral promontory and the symphysis pubis. It is an important measurement in obstetrics as it helps determine the adequacy of the pelvis for childbirth. The other options are not correct because they refer to different measurements or diameters in the pelvis.

The patient's pelvis is described as oval-shaped with the anteroposterior diameter at the pelvic inlet greater than the transverse diameter. This is characteristic of an anthropoid pelvis, which is a type of pelvis with a long anteroposterior diameter and a narrow transverse diameter. This type of pelvis is more common in certain populations and may be associated with a higher risk of occiput posterior position of the baby during labor.

Breastfeeding is associated with a decreased incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). SIDS is the sudden, unexplained death of an infant under one year of age. Studies have shown that breastfeeding helps reduce the risk of SIDS by providing the baby with important antibodies and nutrients that boost their immune system and protect against infections and respiratory illnesses, which are known risk factors for SIDS. Breast milk also promotes optimal brain development and helps regulate the infant's heart rate, blood pressure, and body temperature, further reducing the risk of SIDS.

The patient has not missed her period yet, so it is too early to determine if she is pregnant or not. Additionally, she denies any symptoms of pregnancy such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. Since she is asymptomatic and has not missed her period, it is unlikely that she is pregnant at this time. Therefore, no action is needed and it would be appropriate to reassure the patient that she does not need to be concerned about pregnancy at this point.

The correct answer is E. About 8% to 15% of women develop postpartum depression. This is true because postpartum depression is a common condition that affects a significant number of women after giving birth. The patient in the scenario presents with symptoms consistent with postpartum depression, including difficulty sleeping, feeling depressed, crying frequently, and anxiety about caring for her newborn. It is important to recognize and address postpartum depression as it can have significant impacts on the mother's well-being and the bonding with her child.

The best next step in the management of this patient is to order BPP (biophysical profile) testing for the same or next day. This is because the patient is at 41 weeks gestation and her cervix is only 1 centimeter dilated, 0% effaced, firm, and posterior in position. These findings suggest that she is not yet in active labor. BPP testing is a noninvasive assessment that evaluates fetal well-being, including fetal movement, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate. It is important to assess the well-being of the fetus in this situation to ensure that it is not at risk and to determine the need for further management.

The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient is to perform an ultrasound examination. This is because the patient is presenting with vaginal bleeding during pregnancy, which could indicate a potential complication. An ultrasound examination can help determine the cause of the bleeding and assess the well-being of the fetus. It is important to rule out any placental abnormalities or other issues that could be causing the bleeding. This will help guide further management and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

The best next step in the management of this patient is to admit and stabilize the patient. This is because the patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. Admitting the patient allows for close monitoring and immediate access to necessary interventions if the bleeding worsens or if the patient's condition deteriorates. Stabilizing the patient involves ensuring her vital signs remain stable and addressing any potential complications that may arise from the bleeding. This step takes priority over other options such as administering medications or performing a cesarean delivery, as the patient's immediate safety is the primary concern.

The most likely cause of the patient's difficulty voiding is a vulvar hematoma. A vulvar hematoma can occur as a result of trauma during delivery, and it can cause swelling and compression of the urethra, leading to difficulty with urination. The patient's symptoms of difficulty voiding are more consistent with a vulvar hematoma rather than preeclampsia, infusion of magnesium sulfate, ureteral injury, or the use of local analgesia for repair. Additionally, the estimated blood loss of 450 cc suggests that a vulvar hematoma is a possible cause of the patient's symptoms.

The most likely cause of the findings described in the question is a tubal abortion. This is indicated by the patient's positive pregnancy test, the presence of a viable 16-week gestation, and the ultrasound findings of a normal-appearing uterus with no free fluid. A tubal abortion occurs when a pregnancy implants in the fallopian tube and subsequently aborts. This can cause abdominal discomfort and may present with similar symptoms to a normal intrauterine pregnancy.

This patient is at increased risk for consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia. Intrauterine fetal demise refers to the death of the fetus inside the uterus, which can lead to the release of tissue thromboplastin and activation of the coagulation cascade. This can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a consumptive coagulopathy characterized by widespread clotting and subsequent depletion of clotting factors, including fibrinogen. The patient's history of occasional spotting suggests that there may be ongoing placental abruption, which further increases the risk of DIC.

Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic bacteria that is commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract. It is known to be resistant to penicillin and gentamicin, which are the antibiotics that the patient has been receiving. Therefore, it is the most likely bacteria responsible for the patient's infection, as indicated by her persistent fever and uterine tenderness despite antibiotic treatment.

The patient in this scenario is presenting with symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including high blood pressure, proteinuria, headache, and seizures. Antihypertensive therapy is indicated to lower her blood pressure and reduce the risk of complications such as stroke and organ damage. Low-dose aspirin is typically used for prevention of preeclampsia in high-risk patients, but it is not appropriate for managing severe preeclampsia. Dilantin (phenytoin) is an antiepileptic medication and would not address the underlying issue of high blood pressure. Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis and is indicated in this patient to prevent further seizures. Cesarean delivery may be considered in severe cases, but antihypertensive therapy should be initiated first to stabilize the patient.

Based on the given information, the patient is a 23-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestational age with a platelet count of 80,000. However, her blood pressure is normal and urine dip is negative for protein, glucose, and blood. She denies any complaints and her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. Since she does not have any symptoms or signs of bleeding, and her platelet count is the only abnormal lab result, no treatment is necessary at this time.

The given description of uterine bleeding at 12 weeks gestation accompanied by cervical dilation without passage of tissue matches the definition of an inevitable abortion. In an inevitable abortion, the cervix begins to dilate, and there is bleeding, but the pregnancy cannot be saved, and eventually, the fetus and placenta will be expelled from the uterus. This is different from a complete abortion, where all the products of conception are expelled, and an incomplete abortion, where some but not all of the products of conception are expelled. It is also different from a threatened abortion, where there is bleeding but the cervix remains closed, and a missed abortion, where the fetus has died but is not expelled from the uterus.

This patient is in false labor. False labor, also known as prodromal labor, refers to contractions that are not associated with cervical dilation or effacement. In this case, the patient's cervix is only 2 cm dilated and 50% effaced, which indicates that she is not in active labor (answer choice A). Latent labor (answer choice B) typically occurs when the cervix is between 0-6 cm dilated and is associated with early contractions. Stage 1 of labor (answer choice D) typically involves progressive cervical dilation and effacement. Stage 2 of labor (answer choice E) involves the birth of the baby. Therefore, false labor (answer choice C) is the most appropriate answer in this case.

An incomplete abortion is the correct type of abortion that matches the given description. In an incomplete abortion, only some of the placental tissue passes through the cervix, while some remains in the uterus. This can result in bleeding and may require medical intervention to remove the remaining tissue.

A missed abortion refers to a situation where the fetus dies in utero, but is not expelled from the uterus for at least 8 weeks. This means that the pregnancy is no longer viable, but the body does not recognize the loss and does not initiate the process of expelling the fetal or maternal tissue. This is different from a complete abortion, where all fetal and maternal tissue is expelled, and from an incomplete abortion, where some but not all of the tissue is expelled. In a missed abortion, there is a delay in the recognition and expulsion of the nonviable pregnancy.

The presence of a large fluctuant purple mass inside the vagina, along with the patient's inability to void and severe pain, suggests the development of a hematoma. Hematomas can occur as a result of trauma during delivery, such as the forceps-assisted vaginal delivery and episiotomy in this case. The best management for this patient would be to perform an incision and evacuation of the hematoma. This procedure would help relieve the pressure and pain caused by the hematoma and prevent further complications. Applying an ice pack or placing a vaginal pack would not address the underlying issue of the hematoma, and embolizing the internal iliac artery or performing a dilation and curettage are not appropriate interventions for this condition.

Internal version is the most appropriate procedure in this case. Internal version is a procedure in which the provider reaches into the uterus and manually turns the fetus to a more favorable position for delivery. In this case, the presence of a second set of membranes bulging through a fully dilated cervix suggests that the baby is in a breech presentation, which is a less favorable position for delivery. Therefore, performing an internal version would be the most appropriate procedure to attempt to turn the baby into a head-down position.

The best next step in the management of this patient's labor is to initiate Pitocin augmentation. Pitocin, a synthetic form of oxytocin, is commonly used to augment or stimulate contractions in order to progress labor. In this case, the patient is at term with ruptured membranes and has made some cervical progress, but her labor is not advancing adequately. The presence of early decelerations on the fetal heart rate tracing suggests that the fetal head is compressing the umbilical cord during contractions, which may be due to inadequate uterine contractions. Therefore, initiating Pitocin augmentation can help to strengthen the contractions and promote cervical dilation and descent of the fetal head, ultimately facilitating a vaginal delivery.

In this clinical situation, the woman is in active labor but is experiencing protracted progression without descent following the administration of an epidural block. This suggests that the epidural block may be causing inadequate uterine contractions. Oxytocin is a medication that can be used to stimulate uterine contractions and is the most appropriate treatment option in this case. Meperidine and epidural block are not indicated as they do not address the issue of inadequate contractions. Midforceps delivery and cesarean section are more invasive interventions that are typically reserved for situations where there is a risk to the mother or baby's health.

Dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, result from the fertilization of two separate eggs by two separate sperm. As a result, they have different genetic material and are not identical. Dizygotic twins are typically dichorionic and diamniotic, meaning they have two separate chorions (outer fetal membranes) and two separate amniotic sacs. This is true regardless of the sex of the twins. Monochorionic and monoamniotic twins are typically seen in identical twins, where a single fertilized egg splits into two embryos. Conjoined twins may also be monochorionic and monoamniotic, but this is not the case for dizygotic twins.

A threatened abortion refers to vaginal bleeding during the first half of pregnancy, without any cervical dilation or tissue passing from the uterus. In this case, the description states that there is uterine bleeding at 7 weeks gestation without cervical dilation, which aligns with the characteristics of a threatened abortion. This means that there is a possibility of the pregnancy continuing, but there is also a risk of miscarriage.

An indication for elective cerclage placement is when a woman has experienced three second-trimester pregnancy losses without evidence of labor or abruption. This suggests a potential issue with cervical insufficiency, where the cervix is unable to support the growing fetus and may lead to premature birth. Cerclage placement involves stitching the cervix closed to provide additional support and prevent premature labor.

Based on the information provided, the patient is in active labor at 6 cm dilated with ruptured membranes. The fetal heart rate tracing shows accelerations and no decelerations, indicating a reassuring fetal status. The patient's pelvis is also adequate. In this scenario, the most appropriate management for the patient would be to allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery. This is because the patient is already in active labor and there are no indications for immediate intervention such as fetal distress or cephalopelvic disproportion.

The patient is a G1 at 38 weeks gestation with regular painful contractions, cervical dilation of 3 cm and 90% effacement. After an hour, her cervix is now 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. These findings indicate that the patient is in active labor and her labor is progressing normally. Therefore, no intervention is required at this time.

The patient is at 39 weeks gestation with oligohydramnios and an unfavorable cervix. The best next step in management would be to admit her to the hospital for cervical ripening, followed by induction of labor. Cervical ripening helps to soften and thin the cervix, making it more favorable for labor induction. Induction of labor is necessary in this case to prevent further complications related to oligohydramnios and ensure a safe delivery for both the mother and the baby.

Administering oxytocin can wait until the patient is stabilized because the patient is already contracting strongly every 3 minutes and the uterus is quite firm even between contractions. Oxytocin is typically used to induce or augment labor, but in this case, the patient is already in active labor. Therefore, stabilizing the maternal circulation, attaching a fetal electronic monitor, inserting an intrauterine pressure catheter, and preparing for a cesarean section are all more urgent actions that should be prioritized.

The correct answer is C. Fetal cystic fibrosis. Fetal cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is not related to diabetes. Therefore, the risk of fetal cystic fibrosis is the same for the general population as it is for a class D diabetic. Preeclampsia and eclampsia, infection, postpartum hemorrhage, and hydramnios are all potential risks that may be increased in a diabetic pregnancy compared to the general population.

Polyhydramnios is a condition characterized by excessive amniotic fluid. In this case, the fundal height of 50 cm at 30 weeks suggests polyhydramnios. The correct answer, E, states that complications of polyhydramnios include placental abruption, uterine dysfunction, and postpartum hemorrhage. This is true because the increased volume of amniotic fluid can put pressure on the placenta, leading to its separation from the uterine wall (placental abruption). The excessive fluid can also interfere with uterine contractions (uterine dysfunction) and increase the risk of postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage).

Forceps-assisted deliveries are associated with an increased risk of neonatal complications, including corneal abrasions. This is because the forceps can cause pressure and friction on the baby's face and eyes during the delivery process, leading to corneal abrasions. Other complications such as cephalohematoma, retinal hemorrhage, jaundice, and intracranial hemorrhage are not specifically associated with forceps-assisted deliveries.