The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:

Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?

May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test

A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is:

Testicular feminization syndrome

Pg Blazer - Online Test Series 28 - Obstetrics & Gynaecology

1.

HCG is secreted by:
- A.
  
  Trophoblast cells
- B.
  
  Amniotic membrane
- C.
  
  Fetal yolk sac
- D.
  
  Hypothalamus
Correct Answer
A. Trophoblast cells

Explanation
hCG is secreted by syncytiotrophoblast cells.

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2.

Appropirate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders includes all of the following except:
- A.
  
  Fetal blood
- B.
  
  Aminotic fluid
- C.
  
  Chorionic villi
- D.
  
  Maternal urine
Correct Answer
D. Maternal urine

Explanation
Antenatal genetic diagnosis is done by fetal blood sampling (via cordocentesis), amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling.

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3.

Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increases the:
- A.
  
  Gonadotrophin secretion
- B.
  
  LDL cholesterol
- C.
  
  Bone mass
- D.
  
  Muscle mass
Correct Answer
C. Bone mass

Explanation
Estrogen increases osteoblastic activity.

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4.

The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
- A.
  
  Enhanced by progesterone
- B.
  
  Enhanced by oestrogen
- C.
  
  Lnhibited by oestrogen
- D.
  
  Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone
Correct Answer
D. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone

Explanation
The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is enhanced by estrogen and inhibited by progesterone. Estrogen promotes the growth and development of the uterine lining, making it more responsive to stimuli. It also increases the number of estrogen receptors in the uterine muscles, making them more sensitive to hormonal signals. On the other hand, progesterone has a relaxing effect on the uterine muscles, reducing their responsiveness and preventing premature contractions. Therefore, the combined action of estrogen and progesterone regulates the sensitivity of the uterine musculature for proper functioning during the menstrual cycle and pregnancy.

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5.

The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome:
- A.
  
  17-OH progesterone
- B.
  
  Follicular stimulating hormone
- C.
  
  Luteinizing hormone
- D.
  
  Thyroid stimulating hormone
Correct Answer
C. Luteinizing hormone

Explanation
Androgens, estrogens, LH and insulin levels in the serum are elevated in PCOD.

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6.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?
- A.
  
  Elevated LH hormone
- B.
  
  Can cause infertility
- C.
  
  May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
- D.
  
  Results in postdated pregnancy
Correct Answer
D. Results in postdated pregnancy

Explanation
Polycystic ovarian disease is a condition characterized by the presence of multiple cysts in the ovaries. It is commonly associated with hormonal imbalances, including elevated LH hormone levels. This hormonal imbalance can disrupt the normal menstrual cycle and lead to infertility. Additionally, polycystic ovarian disease is often linked to abnormal glucose tolerance test results, indicating an increased risk of developing diabetes. However, there is no evidence to suggest that this condition results in postdated pregnancy, which refers to a pregnancy that extends beyond the expected due date.

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7.

A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A.
  
  Turner’s syndrome
- B.
  
  Mullerian agenesis
- C.
  
  Testicular feminization syndrome
- D.
  
  Premature ovarian failure
Correct Answer
C. Testicular feminization syndrome

Explanation
Well developed breasts without axillary or pubic hair in a phenotypic female with primary amenorrhoea suggests the diagnosis of testicular feminisation syndrome. Here, the karyotype is XY (male). But due to a mutation in the androgen receptors, there is peripheral resistance to action of testosterone. There is high levels of testosterone which gets converted to estrogen by aromatase enzyme. This results in female pattern of development. Testosterone is responsible for development of axillary and pubic hair even in females. Hence it is absent. The individual will have primary amenorrhoea because of absence of uterus.

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8.

The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is:
- A.
  
  Estrogens
- B.
  
  Antiandrogens
- C.
  
  ACTH
- D.
  
  Cortisone
Correct Answer
D. Cortisone

Explanation
Cortisone is the correct treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia. Virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is a condition characterized by excessive production of androgens, which can cause masculinization of female genitalia. Cortisone, a type of corticosteroid, helps to suppress the overproduction of androgens and restore hormonal balance. Estrogens and antiandrogens would not be the appropriate treatment for this condition as they do not address the underlying hormonal imbalance. ACTH, a hormone that stimulates the production of cortisol, may be used in certain cases of adrenal insufficiency but is not the primary treatment for virilizing adrenal hyperplasia.

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9.

Ln which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?
- A.
  
  Carcinoma cervix
- B.
  
  Carcinoma endometrium
- C.
  
  Carcinoma fallopian tube
- D.
  
  Uterine sarcoma
Correct Answer
A. Carcinoma cervix

Explanation
Carcinoma cervix is the correct answer because it is the least likely to metastasize to the ovary compared to the other options. Metastasis is the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another, and while it can occur in any type of cancer, certain cancers have a higher propensity for metastasis to specific organs. In the case of genital tract malignancies, carcinoma cervix has a lower likelihood of spreading to the ovary compared to carcinoma endometrium, carcinoma fallopian tube, and uterine sarcoma.

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10.

The investigation of choice in a 55 year old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is:
- A.
  
  Pap smear
- B.
  
  Fractional curettage
- C.
  
  Transvaginal ultrasound
- D.
  
  Ca 125 estimation
Correct Answer
B. Fractional curettage

Explanation
A woman having post menopausal bleeding is to be considered as a case of endometrial carcinoma unless otherwise proved. Among the options given, the best method for diagnosis of endometrial carcinoma is fractional curettage.

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Pg Blazer - Online Test Series 28 - Obstetrics & Gynaecology

HCG is secreted by:

Appropirate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders includes all of the following except:

Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increases the:

The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:

The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome:

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?

A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is:

The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is:

Ln which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?

The investigation of choice in a 55 year old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is: