What Do You Know About Digestive System? Pathophysiology Trivia Quiz

52 Questions | Total Attempts: 205

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What Do You Know About Digestive System? Pathophysiology Trivia Quiz - Quiz

What do you know about the digestive system? In this pathophysiology trivia quiz, you will get to see all there is a specific way that the system works, and there are different parts of the body that are involved in the whole process. Do give it a look and get to see just how


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What causes elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis?
    • A. 

      Systemic effects of viral infection

    • B. 

      Obstruction of bile ducts and malabsorption

    • C. 

      Necrosis of liver cells

    • D. 

      Ammonia toxicity

  • 2. 
    What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
    • A. 

      Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material is removed

    • B. 

      Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice

    • C. 

      Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage

    • D. 

      Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis

  • 3. 
    What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?
    • A. 

      Below normal blood levels of AST and ALT

    • B. 

      ULQ tenderness and dull pain

    • C. 

      A small, firm, nodular liver and portal hypertension

    • D. 

      Accumulation of fat in the hepatocytes and hepatomegaly

  • 4. 
    A primary factor causing encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:
    • A. 

      Serum urea

    • B. 

      Conjugated bilirubin

    • C. 

      Serum ammonia

    • D. 

      Serum pH

  • 5. 
    In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:
    • A. 

      Ingesting excessive lipids

    • B. 

      Bleeding occurs in the digestive tract

    • C. 

      An increase in unconguated bilirubin occurs in the serum

    • D. 

      Less bile is produced

  • 6. 
    What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?
    • A. 

      Portal hypertension

    • B. 

      Alcohol irritating the mucosa

    • C. 

      Failure to inactivate estrogen

    • D. 

      Poor nutritional status

  • 7. 
    What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
    • A. 

      Anemia and leukopenia

    • B. 

      Jaundice and pruritus

    • C. 

      Recurrent infections

    • D. 

      Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin

  • 8. 
    Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
    • A. 

      Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin

    • B. 

      Severe anemia and increase serum bilirubin

    • C. 

      Hypoalemia and increased serum ammonia

    • D. 

      Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
    • A. 

      Metastic tumors

    • B. 

      Acute hepatitis

    • C. 

      Long term exposure to certain chemicals

    • D. 

      Chronic cholelithiasis

  • 10. 
    What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?
    • A. 

      Formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia

    • B. 

      Infection by intestinal

    • C. 

      Immune complex reaction

    • D. 

      Activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes

  • 11. 
    How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
    • A. 

      Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance

    • B. 

      Erosions in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria

    • C. 

      Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop

    • D. 

      Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic

  • 12. 
    Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
    • A. 

      Damage to the intestinal villi

    • B. 

      Obstruction in the pancreatic ducts

    • C. 

      Acidosis preventing activation of digestive enzymes

    • D. 

      Insufficient bile for absorption

  • 13. 
    Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?
    • A. 

      A light gray colored stool

    • B. 

      A tarry black stool

    • C. 

      Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools

    • D. 

      Watery stools with mucus and blood

  • 14. 
    What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?
    • A. 

      Low sodium, high fat

    • B. 

      High carbohydrate, low protein

    • C. 

      High calorie with vitamin supplements

    • D. 

      Gluten-free

  • 15. 
    What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
    • A. 

      Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine

    • B. 

      Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis

    • C. 

      A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon

    • D. 

      Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas

  • 16. 
    Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus, frank blood, and pus are typical of:
    • A. 

      Diverticulitis

    • B. 

      Ulcerative colitis

    • C. 

      Chron's disease

    • D. 

      Celiac disease

  • 17. 
    How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?
    • A. 

      Lack of peristalsis leading to dilated areas of intestine

    • B. 

      Fibrosis and thickening of the wall causing obstruction

    • C. 

      Erosion of the mucosa causing bleeding

    • D. 

      Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis forming a connection between intestinal loops

  • 18. 
    How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
    • A. 

      Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum

    • B. 

      Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes

    • C. 

      Chronic blood loss in stools

    • D. 

      Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption

  • 19. 
    What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
    • A. 

      Physical and emotional stress

    • B. 

      An autoimmune reaction

    • C. 

      A combination of recessive genes

    • D. 

      Idiopathic

  • 20. 
    What pain is typical of diverticulitis?
    • A. 

      Lower left quadrant

    • B. 

      Lower right quadrant

    • C. 

      Sharp, colicky, periumbilical

    • D. 

      Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin

  • 21. 
    What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
    • A. 

      Infection in the appendix

    • B. 

      An episode of severe diarrhea

    • C. 

      Obstruction of the lumen in the appendix

    • D. 

      Eating a low-fiber diet

  • 22. 
    With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
    • A. 

      Increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon

    • B. 

      Inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall

    • C. 

      Increased gas and fluid inside the appendix

    • D. 

      Local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum

  • 23. 
    How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?
    • A. 

      The (m)omentum walls off the inflamed area.

    • B. 

      Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall

    • C. 

      The obstructing object inside the appendix perforates the wall

    • D. 

      Bacteria escape into the circulating blood

  • 24. 
    What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?
    • A. 

      Change in shape of the stool

    • B. 

      Bleeding with defecation

    • C. 

      Mild but persisitant pain in the lower left quadrant

    • D. 

      Occult blood in the stool

  • 25. 
    To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
    • A. 

      Lungs

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Spleen

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