1s051 Vol 2 CDC

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Mike_the_LDO
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  • 1/70 Questions

    Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called

    • Priority action.
    • An inspection survey.
    • Follow-up action.
    • An inspection analysis.
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About This Quiz

This quiz focuses on the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS), assessing knowledge on inspection protocols, safety evaluations, and program assessments within the Air Force.

1s051 Vol 2 CDC - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A procedure used by supervisors and employees to assess the hazards associated with a work procedure and determine the safest and most efficient means of doing a given task best defines

    • Change analysis.

    • Job safety analysis.

    • Operational hazard analysis.

    • Preliminary hazard analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Job safety analysis.
    Explanation
    Job safety analysis is a procedure used by supervisors and employees to assess the hazards associated with a work procedure and determine the safest and most efficient means of doing a given task. It involves breaking down the job into specific steps, identifying potential hazards, and implementing controls to minimize or eliminate those hazards. This analysis helps to ensure that workers are aware of the risks involved in their tasks and are equipped with the necessary precautions to perform their job safely.

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  • 3. 

    Who determines hazard abatement control measures?

    • Supervisor with technical assistance from Civil Engineering.

    • Safety staff with technical assistance from Civil Engineering.

    • Functional manager with technical assistance from Civil Engineering.

    • Functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials.

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials. This means that the responsibility for determining hazard abatement control measures lies with the functional manager or supervisor. They are supported by safety, fire, and health officials who provide technical assistance in identifying and implementing the necessary measures. This ensures that the control measures are effective and comply with safety regulations and guidelines.

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  • 4. 

    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called

    • Abatement priority measures.

    • Imminent danger controls.

    • Interim control measures.

    • Risk assessment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interim control measures.
    Explanation
    Interim control measures refer to temporary actions implemented to reduce the level of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency until a permanent solution is implemented through an abatement program. These measures are put in place to mitigate immediate dangers and provide a safer working environment while the comprehensive abatement program is being completed.

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  • 5. 

    Mishaps are investigated to

    • Pin down legal liability.

    • Prevent future mishaps.

    • Determine the true cost of the mishap.

    • Determine the true severity of injuries or damage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent future mishaps.
    Explanation
    Mishaps are investigated in order to prevent future mishaps. By analyzing the causes and circumstances of a mishap, measures can be taken to identify and rectify any issues or weaknesses in processes, systems, or human behavior that contributed to the mishap. This helps in implementing preventive measures and improving safety protocols to minimize the likelihood of similar incidents occurring in the future.

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  • 6. 

    Information exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law is known as

    • Secret.

    • Top secret.

    • Privileged.

    • Confidential.

    Correct Answer
    A. Privileged.
  • 7. 

    Which system is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports?

    • Intrabase System.

    • Electronic Mail System.

    • Defense Message System.

    • Air Force Safety Automated System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Safety Automated System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Safety Automated System is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports. This system is specifically designed to collect, analyze, and disseminate safety-related information within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for reporting and tracking mishap data, allowing for efficient communication and analysis of safety incidents. The other options, such as the Intrabase System, Electronic Mail System, and Defense Message System, may have their own purposes but are not specifically designed for transmitting mishap reports.

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  • 8. 

    Who must notify the Wing Safety Office of mishaps as soon as possible?

    • Supervisors only.

    • Commanders only.

    • Functional managers only.

    • Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.
    Explanation
    Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors must notify the Wing Safety Office of mishaps as soon as possible. This is because they are responsible for overseeing the safety of their units and ensuring that any accidents or incidents are reported and addressed promptly. By involving all three levels of management, there is a better chance of identifying the root causes of mishaps and implementing corrective actions to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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  • 9. 

    Many employers are required to keep a record of serious work-related injuries and illnesses when they have more than how many employees?

    • 1.

    • 10.

    • 100.

    • 1000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    Employers are required to keep a record of serious work-related injuries and illnesses when they have more than 10 employees. This means that if a company has 10 or fewer employees, they are not obligated to maintain records of such incidents. However, once the number of employees exceeds 10, the employer must start keeping a record to ensure compliance with workplace safety regulations and to accurately track and report any serious work-related incidents that may occur.

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  • 10. 

    Which is not an essential element of a mishap investigation?

    • Recommendations.

    • Opinions.

    • Findings.

    • Causes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Opinions.
    Explanation
    Opinions are not an essential element of a mishap investigation. Mishap investigations focus on gathering factual information and evidence to determine the causes, findings, and recommendations for preventing future accidents. Opinions are subjective and can vary from person to person, making them less reliable in determining the objective truth behind a mishap. Therefore, opinions are not considered an essential component of a thorough mishap investigation.

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  • 11. 

    A thorough mishap investigation is absolutely necessary not only to determine the events causal to a mishap but also to

    • Recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence.

    • Determine blame for failure to follow written standards.

    • Determine cost of mishap to support disciplinary actions.

    • Recommend appropriate emergency response for mishaps.

    Correct Answer
    A. Recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence.
    Explanation
    A thorough mishap investigation is necessary to determine the events that led to the mishap and to recommend corrective actions to prevent it from happening again. This involves identifying the root causes and factors that contributed to the mishap, analyzing the findings, and developing recommendations for changes in procedures, training, or equipment to prevent similar incidents in the future. The focus is on learning from the mishap and implementing measures to improve safety and prevent recurrence, rather than assigning blame or determining costs for disciplinary actions or emergency response.

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  • 12. 

    The purpose of outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss

    • Potential write ups.

    • All superior performers.

    • Your findings and recommendations.

    • The commander’s utilization of assigned manpower.

    Correct Answer
    A. Your findings and recommendations.
    Explanation
    The purpose of outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss your findings and recommendations. This is done to provide a summary of the inspection results and present any identified issues or areas for improvement. Outbriefing allows for a comprehensive discussion of the inspection findings and provides an opportunity to suggest recommendations for addressing any identified shortcomings or implementing improvements. It serves as a platform for sharing important information and ensuring that the necessary steps are taken to address the findings and make necessary changes.

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  • 13. 

    What two activities help ensure that the hazards are mitigated for all findings identified during the annual inspection?

    • Spot and the customer survey.

    • Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting.

    • Mishap notifications and customer survey.

    • Mishap notifications and unit follow-up reporting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting.
    Explanation
    Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting are two activities that help ensure that the hazards are mitigated for all findings identified during the annual inspection. Spot inspections involve conducting random checks to identify any potential hazards or non-compliance issues. Unit follow-up reporting entails documenting and addressing the findings from the inspection, ensuring that corrective actions are taken to mitigate the identified hazards. These activities work together to ensure that all hazards are identified, reported, and addressed in a timely manner, promoting a safe and compliant environment.

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  • 14. 

    Your hazard abatement recommendations should be

    • Subjective and suitable.

    • Realistic and subjective.

    • Appropriate and feasible.

    • Objective and unquestionable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appropriate and feasible.
    Explanation
    The hazard abatement recommendations should be appropriate and feasible because it is important to suggest actions that are suitable for the specific hazard and can actually be implemented. The recommendations should take into consideration the nature of the hazard and its potential impact, as well as the resources and capabilities available for implementation. It is crucial to ensure that the recommendations are not only suitable for addressing the hazard but also realistic and achievable within the given constraints.

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  • 15. 

    An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called

    • Hazard abatement.

    • End analysis.

    • Probability.

    • Severity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Probability.
    Explanation
    Probability refers to the assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap. It involves evaluating the chances of an event or incident occurring based on various factors such as past occurrences, statistical data, and expert judgment. By considering the probability of a hazard or deficiency leading to a mishap, individuals and organizations can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to mitigate risks and prevent accidents.

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  • 16. 

    How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    • 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.
    Explanation
    The RAC matrix process uses a total of 5 risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions.

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  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for reminding the contractor of the contractual obligation to comply with all pertinent regulations?

    • Civil engineer.

    • Safety personnel.

    • Corp of engineers.

    • Contracting officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for reminding the contractor of the contractual obligation to comply with all pertinent regulations. They are the individual who oversees the contract and ensures that all parties involved are fulfilling their obligations. This includes reminding the contractor of their responsibilities, such as complying with regulations, to ensure that the contract is being executed properly.

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  • 18. 

    When a mishap occurs involving an individual in permanent change of station status, the mishap is accountable to the

    • Gaining command.

    • Air Force at large.

    • Base closest to the mishap site.

    • Losing command until the individual signs in at the next duty station.

    Correct Answer
    A. Losing command until the individual signs in at the next duty station.
    Explanation
    When an individual is in permanent change of station status and a mishap occurs, the losing command is responsible and accountable for the mishap until the individual signs in at the next duty station. This means that the losing command must handle any investigations, reports, or actions related to the mishap until the individual arrives at their new duty station. Once the individual signs in at the next duty station, the responsibility for the mishap transfers to the gaining command.

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  • 19. 

    What are mishap findings not based on?

    • Investigator’s best judgment.

    • Professional knowledge.

    • Weight of the evidence.

    • First impressions.

    Correct Answer
    A. First impressions.
    Explanation
    Mishap findings are not based on first impressions. First impressions can often be misleading and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the situation. Instead, mishap findings should be based on the investigator's best judgment, professional knowledge, and the weight of the evidence gathered during the investigation. These factors allow for a more thorough and accurate analysis of the incident, leading to more reliable and informed findings.

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  • 20. 

    Despite the high up-front costs, what is the most preferable solution to eliminate a hazard?

    • Design fixes.

    • Send operators to training.

    • Develop informative pamphlets.

    • Brief all personnel during a safety down day.

    Correct Answer
    A. Design fixes.
    Explanation
    Design fixes are the most preferable solution to eliminate a hazard despite the high up-front costs. This is because design fixes address the root cause of the hazard and prevent it from occurring in the first place. Training operators, developing informative pamphlets, and briefings during a safety down day are all important measures, but they may not completely eliminate the hazard. Design fixes, on the other hand, provide a long-term solution that ensures the hazard is permanently eliminated, making it the most effective option.

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  • 21. 

    Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) inspections are conducted on behalf of whom?

    • Secretary of Defense, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels

    • Secretary of Defense, Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels

    • Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels

    • Secretary of the Air Force, Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels
    Explanation
    AFIS inspections are conducted on behalf of the Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels. This means that these inspections are carried out to ensure accountability, readiness, and compliance with regulations within the Air Force. The Secretary of the Air Force and Chief of Staff of the Air Force are responsible for overseeing the overall operations and effectiveness of the Air Force, while commanders at all levels are responsible for the specific units and personnel under their command. Conducting AFIS inspections helps to maintain high standards and ensure the Air Force's mission readiness.

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  • 22. 

    Which is not an assessment rating used under the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS)?

    • Was not effective.

    • Met but needs minor improvement(s).

    • Was either met and somewhat effective.

    • Met but needs significant improvements(s).

    Correct Answer
    A. Was either met and somewhat effective.
    Explanation
    The answer "Was either met and somewhat effective" is not an assessment rating used under the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS). The other options listed are all possible assessment ratings used in the system.

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  • 23. 

    Who monitors the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated?

    • Supervisor.

    • Commander.

    • Functional manager.

    • Safety professionals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety professionals.
    Explanation
    Safety professionals are responsible for monitoring the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the hazards, identify appropriate control measures, and ensure that these measures are implemented effectively. Safety professionals play a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment by continuously monitoring hazards and taking necessary actions to eliminate them. They collaborate with other stakeholders such as supervisors, commanders, and functional managers, but the ultimate responsibility of monitoring the hazard report lies with the safety professionals.

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  • 24. 

    What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?

    • Severity and probability.

    • Severity and cost-effectiveness.

    • Probability and mission requirements.

    • Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity and probability.
    Explanation
    The two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard are severity and probability. Severity refers to the potential impact or harm that could result from the hazard, while probability refers to the likelihood or chance of the hazard occurring. By considering both severity and probability, decision-makers can prioritize their efforts and resources towards addressing hazards that pose the highest potential risk.

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  • 25. 

    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the

    • Probability.

    • Personnel exposure.

    • Cost effectiveness index.

    • Severity and probability multiplier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost effectiveness index.
    Explanation
    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code that helps prioritize the order in which abatement actions should be taken. It consists of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the cost effectiveness index. The cost effectiveness index takes into consideration the cost of implementing the abatement action and the effectiveness of that action in reducing the risk. Therefore, the APN with a higher cost effectiveness index would indicate that the abatement action is more cost-effective in reducing the risk compared to other actions with lower cost effectiveness indexes.

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  • 26. 

    Who has authority over a contract?

    • Contractor.

    • Stakeholder.

    • Civil Engineer.

    • Contracting officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer has authority over a contract. They are responsible for the administration and management of the contract, including ensuring that all parties involved fulfill their obligations and that the contract is executed according to the agreed terms and conditions. The contracting officer has the power to make decisions, resolve disputes, and take necessary actions to enforce the contract. They play a crucial role in overseeing the contract's execution and ensuring its successful completion.

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  • 27. 

    Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called

    • Washing the report.

    • Sanitizing the report.

    • Scrubbing the report.

    • Disassociating the report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sanitizing the report.
    Explanation
    Sanitizing the report refers to the act of hiding or removing any information that reveals the connection between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations mentioned in the report. This ensures that the report does not disclose any sensitive or confidential information that could potentially harm individuals or organizations involved in the mishap.

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  • 28. 

    Using statistical charts and graphs in the analysis process is helpful in determining

    • The accuracy of the investigation.

    • More detailed numbers crunching.

    • The need for additional documents.

    • Mishap areas that should be analyzed further.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mishap areas that should be analyzed further.
    Explanation
    Using statistical charts and graphs in the analysis process can provide visual representations of data, making it easier to identify patterns and trends. By examining these charts and graphs, analysts can identify areas where there may be anomalies or outliers, indicating potential mishap areas that require further investigation. This allows for a more thorough analysis and understanding of the data, helping to uncover any hidden issues or problems that may not be apparent through other methods.

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  • 29. 

    The Air Force classifies mishaps by the

    • Direct total dollar cost and degree of property damage.

    • Degree of injury/illness and replacement cost of equipment.

    • Direct total dollar cost of damage and degree of injury/illness.

    • Degree of injury/illness, and replacement cost of equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct total dollar cost of damage and degree of injury/illness.
    Explanation
    The Air Force classifies mishaps based on two factors: the direct total dollar cost of damage and the degree of injury/illness. This means that they consider both the financial impact of the damage caused and the severity of any injuries or illnesses resulting from the mishap. By evaluating these two factors, the Air Force can assess the overall impact and consequences of the mishap accurately.

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  • 30. 

    The four major graded areas (MGA) assessed by the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) include all except

    • Leading people

    • Improving the unit

    • Managing resources

    • Executing the vision

    Correct Answer
    A. Executing the vision
    Explanation
    The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) assesses the four major graded areas (MGA), which are leading people, improving the unit, managing resources, and executing the vision. The correct answer is executing the vision because it is not one of the MGAs assessed by AFIS.

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  • 31. 

    The safety assessment for geographically separated units (GSU) is conducted at intervals not to exceed

    • 1 year

    • 2 years

    • 3 years

    • 4 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years
    Explanation
    The safety assessment for geographically separated units (GSU) is conducted at intervals not to exceed 3 years. This means that the assessment should be done every 3 years or less frequently. Conducting safety assessments at regular intervals ensures that the GSU is regularly evaluated for any potential safety risks or hazards. This helps to maintain a safe environment for the people working in or around the GSU and ensures that any necessary safety measures are implemented in a timely manner.

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  • 32. 

    Who evaluates a hazard report to determine if it is a valid hazard?

    • Chief of Safety.

    • Legal office staff.

    • Functional manager.

    • Supervisor where the hazard exists.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief of Safety.
    Explanation
    The Chief of Safety is responsible for evaluating hazard reports to determine their validity. As the highest-ranking safety officer in an organization, they have the expertise and authority to assess the potential risks and hazards mentioned in the report. The Chief of Safety's evaluation ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate the identified hazards and maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 33. 

    Which risk assessment codes (RAC) are required to be included on the Air Force Form 3, Hazard Abatement Plan?

    • Only RAC 1 and 2.

    • Only RAC 1, 2 and 3.

    • Only RAC 4 and 5.

    • All RAC codes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only RAC 1, 2 and 3.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Form 3, Hazard Abatement Plan, requires the inclusion of RAC 1, 2, and 3. This means that the risk assessment codes 1, 2, and 3 are necessary to be included in the plan. Other risk assessment codes, such as RAC 4 and 5, are not required for this specific form.

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  • 34. 

    A single investigation officer (SIO) normally investigates what types of mishaps?

    • Class A, B, and C.

    • Class B, C, and D.

    • Class C, D, and E.

    • Class D, E, and HAPs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C, D, and E.
    Explanation
    A single investigation officer (SIO) normally investigates mishaps classified as Class C, D, and E.

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  • 35. 

    When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a

    • Colonel or GS–13.

    • Colonel or GS–15.

    • Lieutenant colonel or GS–13.

    • Lieutenant colonel or GM–15.

    Correct Answer
    A. Colonel or GS–15.
    Explanation
    When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a colonel or GS–15. This means that the person leading the investigation must have a rank of colonel or a General Schedule (GS) level of 15. This requirement ensures that the person in charge has the necessary experience, authority, and expertise to effectively investigate and handle the serious nature of a Class A mishap.

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  • 36. 

    Promises of confidentiality are not allowed for which mishaps?

    • Nuclear, aviation, and space.

    • Chemical agents, afloat, and aviation.

    • Afloat, motor vehicle, and ground and industrial.

    • Aviation, ground and industrial, and directed energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Afloat, motor vehicle, and ground and industrial.
  • 37. 

    The occupational safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Form 300A must be posted in a conspicuous place and remain in place until

    • 1 April.

    • 30 April.

    • 1 August.

    • 30 August.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 April.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 April. According to OSHA regulations, employers must post Form 300A, which is a summary of workplace injuries and illnesses, in a conspicuous place from February 1 to April 30 of each year. This requirement ensures that employees are aware of the safety record of their workplace and promotes transparency in reporting and preventing workplace injuries and illnesses.

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  • 38. 

    Fatigue, complacency, illness, and the physical/technological environment and their effect on individual performance can be described as

    • Latent failures.

    • Human weakness.

    • Negligent behavior.

    • A preexisting condition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Latent failures.
    Explanation
    The given answer, latent failures, refers to factors that contribute to errors or failures in a system, but are not immediately evident or visible. Fatigue, complacency, illness, and the physical/technological environment can all contribute to latent failures, as they can impair an individual's performance and increase the likelihood of mistakes. These factors are not necessarily due to human weakness or negligent behavior, but rather are underlying conditions that can lead to errors.

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  • 39. 

    What must Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) representatives present before conducting an inspection of a workplace on an Air Force installation?

    • Official credentials.

    • Military identification.

    • Personal identification.

    • Identifying credentials.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifying credentials.
    Explanation
    Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) representatives must present identifying credentials before conducting an inspection of a workplace on an Air Force installation. This is important to establish their authority and legitimacy as OSHA representatives. By presenting their identifying credentials, they can verify their identity and ensure that they are authorized to perform the inspection. This helps to maintain the security and integrity of the workplace inspection process.

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  • 40. 

    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk?

    • Supervisor.

    • Individual.

    • Commander.

    • Functional manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual.
    Explanation
    The individual has the primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk. This means that each employee is responsible for being aware of potential hazards in their work environment and taking necessary precautions to ensure their own safety and the safety of others. Supervisors, commanders, and functional managers may also have a role in identifying hazards, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the individual worker.

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  • 41. 

    If you encounter an imminent danger situation, you should immediately notify

    • A responsible supervisor.

    • The chief of Safety.

    • The functional manager.

    • An occupational safety manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. A responsible supervisor.
    Explanation
    In an imminent danger situation, it is important to immediately notify a responsible supervisor. This is because a supervisor is typically in a position of authority and can take appropriate action to address the danger. They have the authority to implement safety protocols, evacuate the area if necessary, and communicate with other relevant parties such as the chief of Safety or the occupational safety manager. The responsible supervisor is the first point of contact to ensure that the situation is promptly addressed and necessary measures are taken to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 42. 

    When mishap reports are no longer needed, dispose of them in accordance with (IAW) Air Force

    • Instructions.

    • Policy directives.

    • Records and Distribution Schedule.

    • Occupational Safety and Health Standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Records and Distribution Schedule.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Records and Distribution Schedule." When mishap reports are no longer needed, they should be disposed of in accordance with the Records and Distribution Schedule. This schedule provides guidelines and instructions for the management and disposal of records within the Air Force. It ensures that records are properly maintained and disposed of in a systematic and organized manner, in compliance with Air Force policies and regulations.

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  • 43. 

    The formal written inspection report must be sent to the squadron or unit commander within how many days after the inspection is complete?

    • 10

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    The formal written inspection report must be sent to the squadron or unit commander within 15 days after the inspection is complete. This allows for a reasonable amount of time to compile and review the report before submitting it to the commander. It also ensures that any necessary actions or improvements identified during the inspection can be addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 44. 

    A promise of confidentiality is authorized for which mishap?

    • Spaces.

    • Explosives.

    • Chemical agents.

    • Off-duty military.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spaces.
    Explanation
    A promise of confidentiality is authorized for mishaps that occur in spaces. This means that if an accident or incident happens in a confined area such as a room, building, or any enclosed space, confidentiality can be promised to those involved. This is done to encourage individuals to report the mishap without fear of retaliation or negative consequences. By maintaining confidentiality, it allows for a more open and honest reporting process, which can ultimately lead to better understanding and prevention of future mishaps.

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  • 45. 

    If a safety investigator believes Air Force personnel questioned in the investigation may be guilty of criminal misconduct, the safety investigator immediately stops the investigation and notifies

    • The convening authority (CA).

    • The Chief of Safety.

    • The commander.

    • Security Forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. The convening authority (CA).
    Explanation
    If a safety investigator believes Air Force personnel questioned in the investigation may be guilty of criminal misconduct, the safety investigator immediately stops the investigation and notifies the convening authority (CA). The convening authority is responsible for overseeing the investigation and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken. By notifying the convening authority, they can determine the next steps, such as involving law enforcement or initiating a separate criminal investigation. The convening authority has the authority to take disciplinary or legal action against the individuals involved if necessary.

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  • 46. 

    A deficiency which if corrected, eliminated, or avoided, would likely have prevented or mitigated the mishap damage or significant injuries is called a

    • Cause.

    • Finding.

    • Recommendation.

    • Finding of other significance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cause.
    Explanation
    A deficiency that, if addressed, could have prevented or reduced the damage or injuries caused by an accident is referred to as a "cause." In other words, it is something that directly contributed to the mishap. This term is used to identify the root factors or factors that played a significant role in the occurrence of the incident.

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  • 47. 

    A safety evaluation is completed in conjunction with

    • A unit effectiveness inspection (UEI)

    • An annual inspection

    • A facility inspection

    • An assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. A unit effectiveness inspection (UEI)
    Explanation
    A safety evaluation is completed in conjunction with a unit effectiveness inspection (UEI) because both assessments are important for ensuring the overall effectiveness and safety of a unit or organization. While a UEI focuses on evaluating the unit's operational readiness and effectiveness in meeting its mission objectives, a safety evaluation specifically assesses the unit's safety protocols, practices, and compliance with safety regulations. By conducting these evaluations together, any safety deficiencies or risks can be identified and addressed alongside the unit's overall effectiveness, ensuring that safety is an integral part of the unit's operations.

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  • 48. 

    In addition to the unit commander, send a copy of a tenant unit’s annual inspection report to the

    • Major command (MAJCOM) Safety office.

    • Unit Safety representative.

    • Unit’s parent Safety office.

    • Air Force Safety Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit’s parent Safety office.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to send a copy of a tenant unit's annual inspection report to the unit's parent Safety office. This is because the parent Safety office is responsible for overseeing the safety of all units under its command, including tenant units. By providing the annual inspection report to the parent Safety office, they can assess the safety performance of the tenant unit and take any necessary actions to address any deficiencies or concerns.

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  • 49. 

    Although units are cited individually, Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) may classify a similar finding at another installation as a

    • Finding.

    • Citation.

    • Repeat finding.

    • Repeat citation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeat citation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "repeat citation" because the question states that although units are cited individually, OSHA may classify a similar finding at another installation as a "repeat citation." This means that if OSHA finds the same violation at another installation, it will be considered a repeat citation, indicating that the violation has occurred before and the establishment has not taken appropriate actions to address it.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 01, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Mike_the_LDO
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