Aviation Physiology: Trivia Questions Quiz!

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  • 1/47 Questions

    What causes hypoxia?

    • Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
    • An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.
    • A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.
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About This Quiz

Explore key aspects of aviation physiology and decision-making with this trivia quiz. Topics include alcohol effects, communication failures, spatial disorientation, and vortex turbulence. Essential for pilots and aviation professionals to assess their knowledge and readiness.

Aviation Physiology: Trivia Questions Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is a sympton of carbon monoxide poisoning?

    • Rapid, shallow breathing.

    • Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.

    • Dizziness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dizziness.
    Explanation
    Dizziness is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning. When a person inhales carbon monoxide, it binds to the hemoglobin in their blood, preventing oxygen from being transported effectively throughout the body. This lack of oxygen can lead to dizziness, as well as other symptoms such as headache, confusion, nausea, and difficulty breathing. Therefore, experiencing dizziness can be an indication of carbon monoxide poisoning.

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  • 3. 

    A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?

    • Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest

    • An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route

    • A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

    Correct Answer
    A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the pilot should use the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. This means that the pilot should maintain the altitude that was last assigned by air traffic control, or if no altitude was assigned, they should fly at the altitude that ATC has advised them to expect. If neither of these altitudes are known, the pilot should fly at the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) for the route, which is the altitude that provides adequate obstacle clearance along the entire route.

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  • 4. 

    Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

    • Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

    • Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

    • Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
    Explanation
    Hypoxia is a condition characterized by a lack of oxygen supply to the body's tissues and organs. In this case, the correct answer is "Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain." This means that the brain is not receiving an adequate amount of oxygen, which can lead to various symptoms such as confusion, dizziness, and loss of consciousness. Hypoxia can be caused by various factors, including respiratory problems, cardiovascular issues, or high altitudes where oxygen levels are lower.

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  • 5. 

    What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?

    • Light and variable.

    • Wind shear.

    • Frontal passage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wind shear.
    Explanation
    When more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported, it indicates the presence of wind shear. Wind shear refers to a sudden and significant change in wind direction or speed over a short distance. This can be dangerous for aircraft during takeoff, landing, or while in flight, as it can cause turbulence and affect the aircraft's performance. Therefore, the tower reports wind shear as the airport condition in such situations.

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  • 6. 

    Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?

    • One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed.

    • One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed.

    • One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

    Correct Answer
    A. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size." This is the most concerning target aircraft for collision avoidance because it indicates that the aircraft is on a collision course and getting closer. The lack of lateral or vertical movement suggests that the target aircraft is not changing its course, and the increasing size indicates that it is getting closer. This situation requires immediate action to avoid a potential collision.

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  • 7. 

    Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases

    • The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.

    • The percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased.

    • Oxygen partial pressure is decreased.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
    Explanation
    As cabin altitude increases, the pressure inside the cabin decreases. This decrease in pressure leads to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen, which is the measure of the concentration of oxygen in the air. Hypoxia occurs when there is a lack of oxygen in the body, and this decrease in oxygen partial pressure can lead to hypoxia in individuals inside the cabin.

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  • 8. 

    What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?

    • Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.

    • Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abbilities.

    • Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
    Explanation
    Alcohol has a depressant effect on the central nervous system, which can be exacerbated at higher altitudes. This means that alcohol consumption at higher altitudes can have a stronger impact on the body, leading to impaired coordination, judgment, and decision-making abilities. The statement about small amounts of alcohol increasing judgment and decision-making abilities is incorrect, as alcohol generally impairs these functions. Likewise, the statement about alcohol having little effect if followed by black coffee is also incorrect, as the presence of caffeine does not counteract the effects of alcohol.

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  • 9. 

    Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?

    • Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.

    • Increased vision keenness.

    • Decreased breathing rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.
    Explanation
    Hyperventilation is a condition where a person breathes rapidly and deeply, leading to an imbalance of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body. One common symptom of hyperventilation is tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. This is caused by a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which can affect the nerves and cause a tingling sensation. Increased vision keenness and decreased breathing rate are not common symptoms of hyperventilation.

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  • 10. 

    Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?

    • 0000 through 1000.

    • 7200 and 7500 series.

    • 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

    Correct Answer
    A. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.
    Explanation
    Pilots should avoid switching through the 7500, 7600, and 7700 series of transponder codes. These codes are used to indicate emergencies or other critical situations. 7500 is used to indicate unlawful interference, such as hijacking. 7600 is used to indicate a communication failure, and 7700 is used to indicate a general emergency. By avoiding these codes, pilots can prevent any confusion or unnecessary alarms in air traffic control systems.

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  • 11. 

    A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when

    • Ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear

    • Eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

    • Body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes

    Correct Answer
    A. Body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes
    Explanation
    When a pilot relies solely on their body sensations to interpret flight attitudes, they are more likely to experience spatial disorientation. This is because the body's sensory organs, such as the inner ear, can be easily deceived in certain flying conditions, leading to a false perception of the aircraft's position and movement. By disregarding or overcoming these sensations and instead relying on the flight instruments for accurate information, pilots can mitigate the risk of spatial disorientation. Additionally, frequent eye movements during the process of cross-checking the flight instruments can also contribute to spatial disorientation.

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  • 12. 

    Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

    • A stressful situation causing anxiety.

    • The excessive consumption of alcohol.

    • An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    A. A stressful situation causing anxiety.
    Explanation
    A stressful situation causing anxiety can lead to hyperventilation because it triggers the body's "fight or flight" response. This response causes the individual to breathe rapidly and shallowly, taking in more oxygen than necessary. This can disrupt the balance of carbon dioxide in the body, leading to hyperventilation.

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  • 13. 

    What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?

    • Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

    • Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.

    • Advisory that indicates an emergency situaion is possible should an undue delay occur.

    Correct Answer
    A. Advisory that indicates an emergency situaion is possible should an undue delay occur.
    Explanation
    The term "minimum fuel" implies that the aircraft has reached a critical point in terms of fuel availability. It serves as an advisory to air traffic control (ATC) that an emergency situation is possible if there is any undue delay in reaching the destination airport. This indicates that the aircraft may not have enough fuel to sustain a prolonged delay and may require priority handling or diversion to the nearest suitable airport for refueling.

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  • 14. 

    What is the hijack code?

    • 7200

    • 7500

    • 7777

    Correct Answer
    A. 7500
    Explanation
    The hijack code referred to in the question is a specific code used in aviation to indicate that an aircraft has been hijacked. Among the given options, 7500 is the correct answer as it is the designated code for hijacking. The other options, 7200 and 7777, are not the correct codes for hijacking.

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  • 15. 

    Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft:

    • Developing lift.

    • Operating at high airspeeds.

    • Using high power settings

    Correct Answer
    A. Developing lift.
    Explanation
    Hazardous vortex turbulence is created behind large aircraft when they are developing lift. This occurs because as the aircraft generates lift, it creates a pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces of the wings. This pressure difference leads to the formation of vortices, which are swirling air masses. These vortices can be dangerous for other aircraft flying behind as they can cause turbulence and potentially disrupt the airflow, making it difficult for the following aircraft to maintain control. Operating at high airspeeds and using high power settings may contribute to the intensity of the vortices, but they are not the sole factors responsible for their creation.

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  • 16. 

    To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should

    • Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath.

    • Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.

    • Remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

    Correct Answer
    A. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.
    Explanation
    To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. Wingtip vortices are created when high-pressure air from underneath the wing flows towards the lower-pressure air on top of the wing, creating a swirling motion. These vortices can be dangerous for smaller aircraft as they can cause turbulence and instability. By climbing above the flightpath and staying upwind, the pilot ensures that they are not in the direct path of the vortices, reducing the risk of encountering turbulence and maintaining a safe distance from the departing jet airplane.

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  • 17. 

    What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?

    • Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.

    • When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.

    • When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety." This is because declaring an emergency is necessary when there is uncertainty or doubt about a condition that could potentially compromise the safety of the flight. It is important for pilots to prioritize safety and take immediate action when they have concerns about the well-being of the aircraft, crew, or passengers.

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  • 18. 

    It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least

    • 50 feet or less to another aircraft.

    • 500 feet or less to another aircraft.

    • 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. 500 feet or less to another aircraft.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 500 feet or less to another aircraft. When a pilot and crew experience a near midair collision, they are required to report it if the proximity to another aircraft is 500 feet or less. This reporting is crucial for safety purposes and helps authorities investigate and take necessary actions to prevent future incidents.

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  • 19. 

    Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute

    • Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat.

    • 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat.

    • Looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat." This scanning procedure suggests that pilots should spend more time looking outside the aircraft (15 seconds) to maintain situational awareness and avoid potential collisions. They should then spend a shorter amount of time (5 seconds) looking inside the aircraft to monitor instruments and systems. This cycle should be repeated continuously to ensure effective collision avoidance.

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  • 20. 

    What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?

    • Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.

    • Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, procceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.

    • Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.
    Explanation
    In the event of a two-way radio communication failure while flying in IFR weather conditions, the pilot should continue on the route specified in the clearance. They should fly at the highest of the following altitudes: the last assigned altitude, the altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA). This ensures that the pilot remains on the designated route and at a safe altitude.

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  • 21. 

    Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

    • Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.

    • Rely on the kinesthetic sense.

    • Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
    Explanation
    Relying entirely on the indications of the flight instruments is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation. Spatial disorientation occurs when a pilot loses their sense of orientation in relation to the Earth's surface. This can happen when visual cues are limited or misleading, such as in poor weather conditions or at night. By relying on the flight instruments, which provide accurate and reliable information about the aircraft's attitude, altitude, and heading, pilots can maintain proper orientation and avoid making incorrect control inputs based on their own senses, which can lead to dangerous situations.

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  • 22. 

    While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?

    • The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.

    • An off-airway route to the point of departure.

    • The route filed in the flight plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. The route filed in the flight plan.
    Explanation
    In the given scenario, the correct answer is "The route filed in the flight plan." When a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure in IFR conditions, they should continue to fly the route that was filed in their flight plan. This is because the filed route is the one that has been communicated to ATC prior to the flight and is the route that ATC would expect the pilot to follow. It ensures that the pilot remains on a known and pre-approved route, minimizing the risk of conflicting with other aircraft or airspace restrictions. Flying the filed route also allows ATC to anticipate the pilot's position and intentions, facilitating coordination and assistance if necessary.

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  • 23. 

    If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off

    • Prior to the point where the jet touched down.

    • Beyond the point where the jet touched down.

    • At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

    Correct Answer
    A. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.
    Explanation
    When taking off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, it is important to plan to lift off beyond the point where the jet touched down. This is because the heavy jet may create turbulence and wake turbulence as it lands, which can affect the performance and stability of the aircraft taking off behind it. By lifting off beyond the point where the jet touched down, the aircraft can avoid the turbulence and ensure a safe takeoff.

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  • 24. 

    What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

    • Look only at far away, dim lights.

    • Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.

    • Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
    Explanation
    The most effective way to use the eyes during night flight is to scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. This allows the pilot to use their peripheral vision to detect any objects or lights that may not be directly in front of them. By scanning slowly and using offcenter viewing, the pilot can effectively maintain situational awareness and spot any potential hazards or obstacles in their surroundings. This technique helps to maximize visibility and minimize the risk of missing important visual cues during night flight.

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  • 25. 

    While making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as?

    • Autokinesis.

    • Coriolis illusion.

    • The leans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coriolis illusion.
    Explanation
    During prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can cause the Coriolis illusion. This illusion occurs when the fluid in the semicircular canals of the inner ear continues to move after the turn has stopped, creating a sensation of rotation on a different axis. This can lead to disorientation and a false perception of movement. The other options, autokinesis and the leans, do not accurately describe this specific phenomenon.

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  • 26. 

    Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:

    • Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

    • Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.

    • Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
    Explanation
    Wingtip vortices are created when an aircraft generates lift. These vortices are caused by the difference in air pressure above and below the wings. The vortices tend to sink below the aircraft because they are heavier than the surrounding air. This sinking motion creates turbulence in the air below the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is that wingtip vortices sink below the aircraft, generating turbulence.

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  • 27. 

    The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as

    • Inversion illusion.

    • Autokinesis.

    • Somatogravic illusion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Somatogravic illusion.
    Explanation
    The somatogravic illusion is the correct answer because during rapid acceleration takeoff, the sensation of being in a nose-up attitude can be perceived due to the acceleration forces acting on the body. This illusion occurs because the vestibular system, responsible for balance and spatial orientation, interprets the acceleration as a tilt in the aircraft's orientation. This can lead to a false perception of being in a nose-up position, even though the aircraft is actually in a level attitude.

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  • 28. 

    In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as

    • Somatogravic illusion.

    • Ground lighting illusion.

    • Autokinesis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Autokinesis.
    Explanation
    Autokinesis is the correct answer because when staring at a stationary light in the dark, the lack of visual reference points causes the light to appear to move. This is a visual illusion known as autokinesis. It occurs due to the eye's inability to accurately perceive the position of a stationary object in the absence of surrounding visual cues. The perceived movement is a result of the eye's involuntary micro-movements and the brain's attempt to interpret the ambiguous visual information.

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  • 29. 

    What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?

    • Does not cause illusions.

    • Lower than actual.

    • Higher than actual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher than actual.
    Explanation
    Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of objects appearing higher than they actually are. This is because the raindrops on the windscreen act as a lens, refracting light and distorting the perception of the objects' position. As a result, objects may appear to be higher than they truly are, creating an optical illusion.

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  • 30. 

    Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?

    • Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

    • Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.

    • Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
    Explanation
    When an airplane is heavy, slow, and has its gear and flaps up, it creates the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength. Wingtip vortices are created when high-pressure air underneath the wings flows towards the lower pressure on top of the wings, causing a swirling motion. These vortices can be dangerous for other aircraft flying behind, as they can cause turbulence and affect their stability. The combination of heavy weight, slow speed, and gear and flaps up increases the intensity of these vortices, making them more hazardous.

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  • 31. 

    What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

    • Direct tailwind.

    • Light quartering tailwind.

    • Light quartering headwind.

    Correct Answer
    A. Light quartering tailwind.
    Explanation
    A light quartering tailwind refers to a wind that blows from behind and at an angle to the aircraft's direction of travel. This wind condition creates a situation where the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft during landing remains in the vicinity of the runway for a longer duration. The combination of a tailwind and the angle of the wind increases the time it takes for the wake turbulence to disperse, posing a prolonged hazard for other aircraft attempting to land on the same runway.

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  • 32. 

    When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too:

    • High.

    • Low.

    • Shallow

    Correct Answer
    A. High.
    Explanation
    When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusions. One common illusion is the "black hole" illusion, where the lack of visual references can make the approach appear higher than it actually is. This can lead to the pilot flying a higher approach path than necessary, potentially resulting in a hard landing or overshooting the runway. Therefore, being aware of this illusion and adjusting the approach accordingly is crucial for a safe landing.

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  • 33. 

    Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of

    • Pitching up.

    • Pitching down.

    • Leveling off.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitching up.
    Explanation
    When there is a sudden penetration of fog, it can obstruct visibility and make it difficult for pilots to accurately perceive the aircraft's orientation. This lack of visual references can lead to spatial disorientation, where pilots may incorrectly perceive their aircraft's position. In the case of pitching up, the illusion occurs when the aircraft's nose is actually level or pitching down but is perceived as pitching up due to the visual cues provided by the fog. This illusion can be dangerous as it may cause pilots to make incorrect control inputs, potentially leading to a loss of control of the aircraft.

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  • 34. 

    You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.

    • This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.

    • ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.

    • If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
    Explanation
    When your remaining usable fuel supply indicates that you need traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, it is important to declare an emergency due to low fuel and report the amount of fuel remaining in minutes. This action will inform ATC of your critical fuel situation and they will prioritize your aircraft for landing. By declaring an emergency, ATC will treat your situation as if it were an actual emergency, ensuring that you receive the necessary assistance and expedited handling to reach your destination without any undue delay.

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  • 35. 

    Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is

    • Closer to the runway than it actually is.

    • Farther from the runway than it actually is.

    • The same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Farther from the runway than it actually is.
    Explanation
    Haze can cause a decrease in visibility, making objects appear farther away than they actually are. This is because the particles in the haze scatter and absorb light, reducing the contrast and making objects appear more distant. Therefore, in the case of an aircraft, haze can create the illusion that it is farther from the runway than it actually is.

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  • 36. 

    To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid make turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly

    • Below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.

    • On the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.

    • Above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.

    Correct Answer
    A. On the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.
  • 37. 

    Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?

    • When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.

    • If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.

    • If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

    Correct Answer
    A. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
    Explanation
    A pilot on IFR should advise ATC of minimum fuel status if the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. This means that if the pilot does not have enough fuel to continue flying without the risk of running out before reaching their destination or an alternate airport, they should inform ATC. This allows ATC to prioritize their flight for landing or provide appropriate assistance to ensure a safe landing is possible without any unnecessary delays.

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  • 38. 

    When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most the concern would be for aircraft.

    • Above the horizon and increasing in size.

    • On the horizon with little relative movement.

    • On the horizon and increasing in size.

    Correct Answer
    A. On the horizon and increasing in size.
    Explanation
    When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, the most concern would be for aircraft on the horizon and increasing in size. This is because when an aircraft is on the horizon, it means it is at a far distance and approaching, which could potentially lead to a collision if not monitored closely. Additionally, the increasing size indicates that the aircraft is getting closer, further emphasizing the need for attention and caution.

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  • 39. 

    Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?

    • Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft.

    • The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.

    • Wake turbulence behind a propellerdriven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.

    Correct Answer
    A. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the vortex characteristics of any given aircraft can be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. This means that the size, strength, and duration of the wake turbulence produced by the aircraft can be influenced by these factors. By extending the flaps or changing the speed, the aircraft can potentially reduce the intensity of the vortices it creates, making it safer for other aircraft to fly behind it.

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  • 40. 

    How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

    • Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.

    • Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.

    • Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
    Explanation
    The wake turbulence vortex circulates around each wingtip in an outward, upward, and around motion. This means that the vortex flows away from the aircraft, rises upwards, and then continues to circulate around the wingtip.

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  • 41. 

    In the USA, a person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding.

    • 8 hours.

    • 12 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 hours.
    Explanation
    According to the Federal Aviation Administration's regulation outlined in 14 CFR § 91.17, it is prohibited to assume the role of a crewmember on a civil aircraft if, within the previous 8 hours, you have consumed alcoholic beverages, are under the influence of alcohol, have used any substance impairing your faculties in a way that jeopardizes safety, or have an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or higher in a blood or breath sample.

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  • 42. 

    If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

    • Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.

    • Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.

    • Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
    Explanation
    If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, the correct action to take is to fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. This ensures that the pilot continues to follow the assigned route and maintains separation from other aircraft. Squawking 7700 and climbing to VFR on Top is not the appropriate action in this situation as it does not address the issue of lost communication with ATC. Flying directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continuing the flight is also not the correct action as it does not account for the vector clearance that was given.

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  • 43. 

    What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?

    • The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

    • A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.

    • The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

    Correct Answer
    A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
    Explanation
    A light crosswind will have the effect of pushing the upwind vortex towards the runway, causing it to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. This is because the crosswind creates a force that opposes the movement of the upwind vortex, making it more difficult for it to dissipate. On the other hand, the downwind vortex is assisted by the crosswind, which helps to disperse it more quickly. Therefore, the upwind vortex will have a longer persistence on the runway compared to the downwind vortex.

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  • 44. 

    After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?

    • Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

    • Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes.

    • At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the pilot should begin the descent for the instrument approach upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure, but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. This means that the pilot should wait until reaching the designated initial approach fix before starting the descent, taking into account any changes to the estimated time of arrival provided by air traffic control.

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  • 45. 

    Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?

    • When collision with another aircraft is imminent.

    • If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.

    • When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

    Correct Answer
    A. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.
    Explanation
    ATC issues safety alerts when the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. This means that if the aircraft is flying too close to the ground or any other object, ATC will issue a safety alert to warn the pilot and prevent a potential collision or accident.

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  • 46. 

    A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?

    • At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

    • At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

    • At the EFC time as amended by ATC.

    Correct Answer
    A. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "At the EFC time as amended by ATC." This means that the pilot should begin descent for the instrument approach at the Estimated Further Clearance (EFC) time, which is provided by air traffic control (ATC). This time may be adjusted or amended by ATC based on various factors. It is important for the pilot to follow the instructions and guidance given by ATC to ensure a safe and coordinated approach.

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  • 47. 

    When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach:

    • Altitude may be higher than it appears.

    • Altitude may be lower than it appears.

    • May result in leveling off too high and landing hard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Altitude may be lower than it appears.
    Explanation
    When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach altitude may be lower than it appears. This means that the pilot should exercise caution and be prepared for the possibility that the actual altitude may be lower than what it appears visually. This is important to ensure a safe landing and avoid any potential hazards that may arise due to misjudging the altitude.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 08, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Juan Guzman
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