Aviation Physiology: Trivia Questions Quiz!

47 Questions | Total Attempts: 80

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Aviation Physiology: Trivia Questions Quiz!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding.
    • A. 

      8 hours.

    • B. 

      12 hours.

    • C. 

      24 hours.

  • 2. 
    A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?
    • A. 

      Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest

    • B. 

      An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route

    • C. 

      A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

  • 3. 
    A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
    • A. 

      At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

    • B. 

      At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

    • C. 

      At the EFC time as amended by ATC.

  • 4. 
    A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when
    • A. 

      Ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear

    • B. 

      Eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

    • C. 

      Body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes

  • 5. 
    After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?
    • A. 

      Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

    • B. 

      Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes.

    • C. 

      At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later

  • 6. 
    Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft:
    • A. 

      Developing lift.

    • B. 

      Operating at high airspeeds.

    • C. 

      Using high power settings

  • 7. 
    Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is
    • A. 

      Closer to the runway than it actually is.

    • B. 

      Farther from the runway than it actually is.

    • C. 

      The same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

  • 8. 
    How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
    • A. 

      Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.

    • B. 

      Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.

    • C. 

      Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

  • 9. 
    Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
    • A. 

      Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

    • B. 

      Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

    • C. 

      Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.

  • 10. 
    If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
    • A. 

      Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.

    • B. 

      Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.

    • C. 

      Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

  • 11. 
    If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
    • A. 

      Prior to the point where the jet touched down.

    • B. 

      Beyond the point where the jet touched down.

    • C. 

      At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

  • 12. 
    In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as
    • A. 

      Somatogravic illusion.

    • B. 

      Ground lighting illusion.

    • C. 

      Autokinesis.

  • 13. 
    It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
    • A. 

      50 feet or less to another aircraft.

    • B. 

      500 feet or less to another aircraft.

    • C. 

      1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

  • 14. 
    Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
    • A. 

      The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.

    • B. 

      The percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased.

    • C. 

      Oxygen partial pressure is decreased.

  • 15. 
    Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute
    • A. 

      Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat.

    • B. 

      1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat.

    • C. 

      Looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.

  • 16. 
    Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
    • A. 

      Pitching up.

    • B. 

      Pitching down.

    • C. 

      Leveling off.

  • 17. 
    The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as
    • A. 

      Inversion illusion.

    • B. 

      Autokinesis.

    • C. 

      Somatogravic illusion.

  • 18. 
    To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid make turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
    • A. 

      Below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.

    • B. 

      On the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.

    • C. 

      Above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.

  • 19. 
    To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should
    • A. 

      Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath.

    • B. 

      Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.

    • C. 

      Remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

  • 20. 
    Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?
    • A. 

      When collision with another aircraft is imminent.

    • B. 

      If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.

    • C. 

      When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

  • 21. 
    Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
    • A. 

      When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.

    • B. 

      If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.

    • C. 

      If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

  • 22. 
    What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
    • A. 

      Light and variable.

    • B. 

      Wind shear.

    • C. 

      Frontal passage.

  • 23. 
    What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?
    • A. 

      Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.

    • B. 

      Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, procceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.

    • C. 

      Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

  • 24. 
    What causes hypoxia?
    • A. 

      Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

    • B. 

      An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.

    • C. 

      A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.

  • 25. 
    What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?
    • A. 

      Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

    • B. 

      Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.

    • C. 

      Advisory that indicates an emergency situaion is possible should an undue delay occur.

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