2f051 Edit Code 6 Volume 3

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2f051 Edit Code 6 Volume 3 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (401) What is the standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station?

    • A.

      4000

    • B.

      6000

    • C.

      8000

    • D.

      12000

    Correct Answer
    D. 12000
    Explanation
    The standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station is 12000. This capacity allows for a sufficient amount of fuel to be stored, ensuring that the military service station has an adequate supply to meet the needs of vehicles and equipment. It also allows for efficient refueling operations, reducing the frequency of refills and potential disruptions in service.

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  • 2. 

    (401) In inches, what is the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks?

    • A.

      18

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      36

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    C. 36
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 36. This suggests that the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service stations above and below ground tanks is 36 inches.

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  • 3. 

    (401) What is the gallon per minute rating for military automotive service station submersible turbine pumps?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The gallon per minute rating for military automotive service station submersible turbine pumps is 10.

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  • 4. 

    (401) What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

    • A.

      Single dispensing, single product.

    • B.

      Dual dispensing, single product.

    • C.

      Single dispensing, dual product.

    • D.

      Dual dispensing, dual product.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dual dispensing, single product.
    Explanation
    A dual dispensing, single product unit has two meters but only one pump. This means that the unit is capable of dispensing the same product from two separate outlets simultaneously, but it only requires one pump to do so. This type of unit is commonly used in situations where there is a need for multiple dispensing points for the same product, such as in a gas station with two fueling stations.

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  • 5. 

    (401) What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated?

    • A.

      Fuel shutoff system.

    • B.

      Pump shutoff system.

    • C.

      Electrical power down system.

    • D.

      Emergency power down system.

    Correct Answer
    D. Emergency power down system.
    Explanation
    The emergency power down system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated. This system is specifically designed for emergency situations where it is necessary to quickly and safely shut off power to all dispensers to prevent any potential hazards or accidents. It serves as a safety measure to protect both the dispensers and the individuals using them.

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  • 6. 

    (402) How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received?

    • A.

      Pipeline.

    • B.

      Tank car.

    • C.

      Tank truck.

    • D.

      Tanker/barge.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tank truck.
    Explanation
    Fuel at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system is typically received through tank trucks. Tank trucks are commonly used to transport fuel from refineries or storage facilities to the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system. These trucks have large tanks specifically designed to safely transport and deliver fuel to its destination.

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  • 7. 

    (402) When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report?

    • A.

      Delivery schedule.

    • B.

      Seal numbers.

    • C.

      Fuel grade.

    • D.

      Quantity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Delivery schedule.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report is a document used to record the receipt of materials or goods. It includes information such as seal numbers, fuel grade, and quantity. However, the delivery schedule is not required to be included on this form. The delivery schedule refers to the planned dates and times for the delivery of the fuel, which is not necessary to be recorded on the DD Form 250.

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  • 8. 

    (402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

    • A.

      Appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR).

    • B.

      Company who shipped the product.

    • C.

      Base fuels laboratory personnel.

    • D.

      Area laboratory personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR).
    Explanation
    The appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR) must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts. The QAR is responsible for ensuring the quality and compliance of the received products, so they need to be informed about any issues such as excessive contamination. The other options, including the company who shipped the product, base fuels laboratory personnel, and area laboratory personnel, may also be involved in the process, but the QAR is the primary person who needs to be notified in this situation.

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  • 9. 

    (402) What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection?

    • A.

      399 Secs

    • B.

      699 Secs

    • C.

      999 Secs

    • D.

      1,299 Secs

    Correct Answer
    C. 999 Secs
    Explanation
    The maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) to make a pump selection is 999 seconds. This means that the VIL system allows the user to take up to 999 seconds, or approximately 16 minutes and 39 seconds, to make a pump selection.

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  • 10. 

    (403) What company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system?

    • A.

      Phillips Petroleum Company.

    • B.

      Panero Petroleum Systems.

    • C.

      Pritchard Petroleum Company.

    • D.

      Palacios Petroleum Systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Phillips Petroleum Company.
    Explanation
    Phillips Petroleum Company was the first company to design and install the Type III hydrant system.

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  • 11. 

    (403) What size mesh screen is used in the Type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    C. 60
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60. In a Type III hydrant system, the receiving strainer is equipped with a mesh screen to filter out debris and prevent clogging. The size of the mesh screen used in this system is 60. This means that the screen has 60 openings per linear inch, allowing water to flow through while trapping larger particles. Using a finer mesh screen helps to ensure that the hydrant system remains free from blockages and operates effectively.

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  • 12. 

    (403) On the Type III hydrant system, which filter separator control valve function will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

    • A.

      Check valve.

    • B.

      Flow control.

    • C.

      Water slug shutoff.

    • D.

      Maximum differential pressure shutoff.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maximum differential pressure shutoff.
    Explanation
    The maximum differential pressure shutoff function on the Type III hydrant system will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream. This function is designed to automatically shut off the flow of fuel when the pressure difference between the upstream and downstream sides of the filter separator reaches a certain limit. By doing so, it prevents excessive pressure build-up that could cause the elements to burst and ensures that only clean fuel is allowed to flow downstream.

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  • 13. 

    (403) What is the minimum number of figures displayed on the non-resettable totalizer on the Type III receipt line?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 7
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 7. This means that the minimum number of figures displayed on the non-resettable totalizer on the Type III receipt line is 7.

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  • 14. 

    (403) Which alarm indicator on the Type III system, when actuated, shuts down all fueling pumps that are operating at the time?

    • A.

      Low level.

    • B.

      High level.

    • C.

      Low-low level.

    • D.

      High-high level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Low level.
    Explanation
    When the low level alarm indicator on the Type III system is actuated, it indicates that the fuel level has dropped to a dangerously low level. In order to prevent any further fueling, the system automatically shuts down all fueling pumps that are currently operating. This is a safety measure to prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks due to insufficient fuel levels.

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  • 15. 

    (403) What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) and revolutions per minute (rpm) of a deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the Type III product recovery system?

    • A.

      50 gpm; 2,200 rpm.

    • B.

      50 gpm; 1,800 rpm.

    • C.

      100 gpm; 2,200 rpm.

    • D.

      100 gpm; 1,800 rpm.

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm. This means that the rated capacity of the deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the Type III product recovery system is 50 gallons per minute and it operates at a speed of 1,800 revolutions per minute.

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  • 16. 

    (403) At what liquid percentage level will the Type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close?

    • A.

      75

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      85

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    B. 80
    Explanation
    The Type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve will close at a liquid percentage level of 80.

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  • 17. 

    (403) Commonly used pumps on the Type III system are balanced statically and dynamically for all flow rates from no flow to

    • A.

      100 percent of the designed rate.

    • B.

      110 percent of the designed rate.

    • C.

      120 percent of the designed rate.

    • D.

      130 percent of the designed rate.

    Correct Answer
    C. 120 percent of the designed rate.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 120 percent of the designed rate. This means that the commonly used pumps on the Type III system are balanced statically and dynamically for flow rates up to 120 percent of the designed rate. This ensures that the pumps can handle higher flow rates without causing any imbalance or malfunctioning.

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  • 18. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      4 Secs

    • B.

      6 Secs

    • C.

      8 Secs

    • D.

      10 Secs

    Correct Answer
    D. 10 Secs
    Explanation
    The answer "10 Secs" suggests that the person prefers a longer duration of something. Without further context, it is unclear what exactly is being referred to, but it could be a preference for a longer time to complete a task, a longer duration for an activity or event, or a longer period of time for a specific outcome to occur.

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  • 19. 

    (403) What Type III system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)?

    • A.

      Flow indicating transmitter.

    • B.

      Loop indicating transmitter.

    • C.

      Pressure indicating transmitter.

    • D.

      Differential pressure transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pressure indicating transmitter.
    Explanation
    A pressure indicating transmitter is a type III system component that signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 psi. This component is designed to measure and indicate the pressure in the system, and when it detects a pressure drop below the specified threshold, it sends a signal to the microprocessor to activate the lead pump. This ensures that the system maintains a minimum pressure level for proper operation.

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  • 20. 

    (403) What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated?

    • A.

      Hydrant control valve.

    • B.

      Fuel flow shutoff valve.

    • C.

      Deadman control valve.

    • D.

      Emergency shutoff button.

    Correct Answer
    C. Deadman control valve.
    Explanation
    A deadman control valve is a handheld device that is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated. This valve is designed to be operated by the operator's hand and requires continuous pressure to keep the fuel flow open. If the operator releases the valve due to incapacitation or any other reason, the valve automatically shuts off the fuel flow, preventing any potential accidents or hazards. Therefore, the deadman control valve is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 21. 

    (403) During the Type III hydrant system’s shut down process, the pressure control valve reduces the system pressure to

    • A.

      60 PSI

    • B.

      65 PSI

    • C.

      70 PSI

    • D.

      75 PSI

    Correct Answer
    D. 75 PSI
    Explanation
    During the Type III hydrant system's shut down process, the pressure control valve reduces the system pressure to 75 PSI.

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  • 22. 

    (403) Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type III hydrant system?

    • A.

      Engine generator fault.

    • B.

      Four refueling pumps running at the same time.

    • C.

      Manual valve closed on the product recovery tank.

    • D.

      Hydrant servicing vehicle flow control valve inoperative.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine generator fault.
    Explanation
    If the engine generator on the Type III hydrant system experiences a fault, it will cause the vibrating horn to sound.

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  • 23. 

    403) On the Type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump # 2 is selected as the lead pump?

    • A.

      1, 3, 4, and 5.

    • B.

      2, 3, 4, and 5.

    • C.

      3, 4, 5, and 1.

    • D.

      4, 5, 1, and 2.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3, 4, 5, and 1.
  • 24. 

    (403) What is the purpose of the Type III hydrant system lockout key?

    • A.

      Switch the system off for maintenance.

    • B.

      Prevent a certain fueling pump from starting.

    • C.

      Transfer control from one microprocessor to the other.

    • D.

      Keep the backpressure control valve from relieving pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Transfer control from one microprocessor to the other.
    Explanation
    The Type III hydrant system lockout key is used to transfer control from one microprocessor to the other. This key allows for a smooth transition of control between the two microprocessors, ensuring that the system continues to operate efficiently and effectively. It helps to maintain the stability and reliability of the hydrant system by seamlessly transferring control without any interruptions or disruptions.

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  • 25. 

    (403) On the Type III hydrant system, the light-emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The Type III hydrant system has a battery backup system with a microprocessor that includes a light-emitting diode (LED) indicator. This LED indicator will start indicating a problem at least 3 days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to potentially compromise the integrity of the memory.

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  • 26. 

    (404) What major command (MAJCOM) developed the Type IV hydrant system?

    • A.

      Pacific Air Forces (PACAF).

    • B.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • C.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • D.

      United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).

    Correct Answer
    D. United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE). This is because the question is asking which major command developed the Type IV hydrant system, and USAFE is the correct answer because they are responsible for air operations in Europe and have developed this specific hydrant system.

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  • 27. 

    (404) What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the Type IV hydrant system?

    • A.

      300 gpm.

    • B.

      600 gpm.

    • C.

      900 gpm.

    • D.

      1,200 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    B. 600 gpm.
    Explanation
    The rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the Type IV hydrant system is 600 gpm.

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  • 28. 

    (404) How many tanks are used with the Type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

    • A.

      2; 10,000.

    • B.

      4; 10,000.

    • C.

      2; 50,000.

    • D.

      4; 50,000.

    Correct Answer
    D. 4; 50,000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4; 50,000. This means that the Type IV hydrant system uses 4 tanks, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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  • 29. 

    (404) What component on the Type IV hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel?

    • A.

      Filter separator.

    • B.

      Fuel discharge valve.

    • C.

      Nonsurge check valve.

    • D.

      Contamination monitor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Contamination monitor.
    Explanation
    The contamination monitor is the component on the Type IV hydrant system that shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel. This device is designed to detect any contaminants in the fuel, such as water and sediment, and automatically triggers a shutdown of the fueling pumps to prevent further contamination of the fuel. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and purity of the fuel being dispensed.

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  • 30. 

    (404) On the Type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

    • A.

      A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically.

    • B.

      A flow switch will sense a sudden surge in fuel flow, shutting down the pumps.

    • C.

      The pressure switch will sense a sudden drop in pressure, shutting down the pumps.

    • D.

      The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded “butterfly” part of the valve to close.

    Correct Answer
    A. A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically.
    Explanation
    A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically to prevent fuel from spilling if the hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation.

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  • 31. 

    (405) What is the constant pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) for the Type V hydrant system?

    • A.

      15 to 120 psi.

    • B.

      30 to 135 psi.

    • C.

      45 to 150 psi.

    • D.

      60 to 165 psi.

    Correct Answer
    C. 45 to 150 psi.
    Explanation
    The constant pressure range for the Type V hydrant system is 45 to 150 psi. This means that the pressure within the system remains within this range regardless of any fluctuations or changes in demand. This range allows for a consistent and reliable water supply for firefighting purposes.

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  • 32. 

    (405) Since the Type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, as a minimum, inspections are performed every

    • A.

      Hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours
    Explanation
    The Type V hydrant system does not need to be manned while it is being operated. Therefore, inspections need to be conducted at regular intervals to ensure its proper functioning. The correct answer of 3 hours suggests that inspections should be performed every 3 hours to monitor the system and address any potential issues that may arise during its operation.

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  • 33. 

    (405) On the Type V hydrant system, what size (in inches) are the stainless steel pantographs installed inside the hardened shelters?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The stainless steel pantographs installed inside the hardened shelters on the Type V hydrant system are of size 3 inches.

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  • 34. 

    (405) How is the deadman control valve operated on the Type V hydrant system?

    • A.

      Electrically.

    • B.

      Air pressure.

    • C.

      Mechanically.

    • D.

      Fuel pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Fuel pressure.
    Explanation
    The deadman control valve on the Type V hydrant system is operated by fuel pressure. This means that the valve is controlled and activated by the pressure of the fuel in the system.

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  • 35. 

    (406) Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt?

    • A.

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR).

    • B.

      Defense Energy Support Center (DESC).

    • C.

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET).

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR).
    Explanation
    If the DD Form 250 or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt, the appropriate person to contact would be the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR). The QAR is responsible for ensuring that the fuel received meets the required specifications and quality standards. They would be able to provide guidance and instructions on how to proceed in the absence of the required documentation.

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  • 36. 

    (406) During receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when offloading in an unsecure area?

    • A.

      50 feet to the front, 100 feet to the rear.

    • B.

      25 feet to the front, 50 feet to the rear.

    • C.

      50 feet to the front and rear.

    • D.

      25 feet to the front and rear.

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 feet to the front and rear.
    Explanation
    During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed 50 feet in front and 50 feet to the rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area. This ensures that the signs are visible from a sufficient distance to warn approaching vehicles or pedestrians of the potential hazards.

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  • 37. 

    (406) The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) Energy Form 702 is prepared to cover a 24-hour duty day that runs from

    • A.

      2400 to 2400.

    • B.

      0600 to 0600.

    • C.

      0800 to 0800.

    • D.

      0900 to 0900.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2400 to 2400.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2400 to 2400. This means that the DLA Energy Form 702 is prepared to cover a 24-hour duty day that starts at midnight and ends at midnight the following day. This is the standard military time format where 2400 represents midnight.

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  • 38. 

    (406) On the Type III hydrant system, at what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) will the control system start the lead pump?

    • A.

      60 psi.

    • B.

      75 psi.

    • C.

      130 psi.

    • D.

      145 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 psi.
    Explanation
    The control system will start the lead pump on the Type III hydrant system at a pressure of 60 psi.

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  • 39. 

    (406) Which Type III hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion?

    • A.

      Bypass

    • B.

      Defuel/flush.

    • C.

      Hydrant control.

    • D.

      Pressure control.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pressure control.
    Explanation
    The pressure control valve in a Type III hydrant system will open to relieve thermal expansion. When the temperature of the fuel increases, it causes the fuel to expand, creating pressure within the system. The pressure control valve is designed to automatically open when the pressure exceeds a certain limit, allowing the excess pressure to be released and preventing any damage or failure of the system. This valve helps to maintain the proper pressure levels in the hydrant system and ensures its safe operation.

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  • 40. 

    (406) During Type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the “hot pad?”

    • A.

      Fuels operator.

    • B.

      Operations supervisor.

    • C.

      Hot refueling crewman.

    • D.

      Hot refueling supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hot refueling supervisor.
    Explanation
    The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad" during Type IV hydrant system operations. This role is specifically designated to ensure safe and efficient positioning of the aircraft during the refueling process.

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  • 41. 

    (406) The fueling control valve on the Type IV hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by

    • A.

      A flow switch located before the control pit.

    • B.

      Air pressure from the deadman control valve.

    • C.

      Fuel pressure from the deadman control valve.

    • D.

      A pressure switch located before the control pit.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air pressure from the deadman control valve.
    Explanation
    The fueling control valve on the Type IV hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by air pressure from the deadman control valve. This means that the valve is opened when air pressure is applied from the deadman control valve. The deadman control valve is a safety device that requires continuous pressure from the operator to keep the valve open. Therefore, when the operator applies air pressure to the deadman control valve, it opens the fueling control valve, allowing fuel to flow for hot refueling operations.

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  • 42. 

    (406) On a fillstand equipped with the Scully Intellitrol® control system, how often are electrical pulses sent to the high-level sensor during a filling operation?

    • A.

      30 times per second.

    • B.

      30 times per minute.

    • C.

      45 times per second.

    • D.

      D. 45 times per minute.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 times per second.
    Explanation
    During a filling operation on a fillstand equipped with the Scully Intellitrol control system, electrical pulses are sent to the high-level sensor 30 times per second.

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  • 43. 

    (406) What form serves as a record for all issues and returns to bulk?

    • A.

      Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233.

    • B.

      Air Force (AF) Form 1235.

    • C.

      DESC Form 1235.

    • D.

      AF Form 1233.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) Form 1233. This form serves as a record for all issues and returns to bulk. It is specifically used by the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) for this purpose.

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  • 44. 

    (406) Under normal conditions and as a minimum, how many hours must fuel in above ground tanks settle prior to transferring?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    D. 8
    Explanation
    Fuel in above ground tanks must settle for a minimum of 8 hours before transferring. This settling period allows any impurities or sediments in the fuel to settle at the bottom of the tank, ensuring that only clean fuel is transferred. It also helps to prevent any turbulence or agitation during the transfer process, which could lead to the mixing of impurities and affect the quality of the fuel. Therefore, waiting for 8 hours allows for a sufficient settling time to ensure the fuel is ready for transfer.

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  • 45. 

    (406) During a transfer operation, when is water removal from the tanks not required?

    • A.

      Never.

    • B.

      When equipped with a water drain valve.

    • C.

      When equipped with an Enraf®-Vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown.

    • D.

      When equipped with an ITT Barton® automated tank gauging (ATG) and no water presence is shown.

    Correct Answer
    C. When equipped with an Enraf®-Vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown.
    Explanation
    When equipped with an Enraf®-Vito probe in the sump and no water presence is shown, water removal from the tanks is not required. This is because the Enraf®-Vito probe is able to detect the presence of water in the sump and if no water is detected, there is no need for water removal.

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  • 46. 

    (406) What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R–12’s defuel pump?

    • A.

      250 gpm.

    • B.

      300 gpm.

    • C.

      450 gpm.

    • D.

      600 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    B. 300 gpm.
    Explanation
    The maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump is 300 gpm.

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  • 47. 

    (406) At what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the R–12’s defuel pump capable of delivering fuel to the Type III hydrant system?

    • A.

      125 psi.

    • B.

      135 psi.

    • C.

      165 psi.

    • D.

      185 psi.

    Correct Answer
    C. 165 psi.
    Explanation
    The R-12's defuel pump is capable of delivering fuel to the Type III hydrant system at a pressure of 165 psi.

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  • 48. 

    (406) Which valve(s) on the Type III hydrant system will modulate open, allowing the fuel to pass through when returning to the operating tanks during a defuel operation?

    • A.

      Defuel/flush.

    • B.

      Backpressure control.

    • C.

      Pressure control and defuel/flush.

    • D.

      Pressure control and backpressure control.

    Correct Answer
    B. Backpressure control.
    Explanation
    During a defuel operation on a Type III hydrant system, the valve that will modulate open, allowing the fuel to pass through when returning to the operating tanks is the backpressure control valve. This valve is designed to regulate the pressure in the system and prevent excessive backpressure, ensuring a smooth and controlled flow of fuel during defueling.

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  • 49. 

    (406) Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the

    • A.

      Type of system.

    • B.

      Rated capacity of the system.

    • C.

      Type of system and number of control valves in the system.

    • D.

      Rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of system.
    Explanation
    Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the type of system. This means that the specific instructions will vary depending on the type of system being used. The rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system may also be important factors to consider, but the primary factor for developing the operating instructions is the type of system.

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  • 50. 

    (406) When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the

    • A.

      Beginning of flushing operations.

    • B.

      Midpoint of flushing operations.

    • C.

      Completion of flushing operations.

    • D.

      Beginning, midpoint, and completion of flushing operations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Midpoint of flushing operations.
    Explanation
    When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, it is recommended to draw a visual sample on the midpoint of flushing operations. This means that the sample should be taken when the flushing process is halfway through. Drawing a visual sample at this point allows for a more accurate assessment of the water quality and ensures that any contaminants or sediments that may have been dislodged during the flushing process are properly captured and analyzed.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 04, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Marshall
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