2A651 Edition 2 Vol.3 Ure
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(401) What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?
- A.
Gasoline and kerosene.
- B.
Gasoline and diesel fuel.
- C.
Diesel fuel and kerosene.
- D.
Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline.
Correct Answer
A. Gasoline and kerosene.Explanation
JP-8 fuel is a type of jet fuel commonly used by the military. It is a mixture of gasoline and kerosene. This combination allows the fuel to have a higher flash point and better performance in cold temperatures compared to regular gasoline. Additionally, the kerosene component provides a higher energy density, making it suitable for use in jet engines.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(401) At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
C. FourExplanation
At room temperature, it will take water four times longer to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(401) Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the
- A.
Lower viscosity of jet fuels.
- B.
Higher viscosity of jet fuels.
- C.
Lower viscosity of free water.
- D.
Higher viscosity of free water.
Correct Answer
B. Higher viscosity of jet fuels.Explanation
Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system's susceptibility to an icing condition. This is because at higher altitudes, the air temperature is colder, which can cause moisture in the fuel system to freeze and form ice. The viscosity of a liquid refers to its resistance to flow. Jet fuels have a lower viscosity, meaning they flow more easily, compared to free water. Therefore, the lower viscosity of jet fuels can make it easier for ice to form and accumulate in the fuel system, increasing the risk of icing.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(402) The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
- A.
Flameout.
- B.
Turbine seizure.
- C.
Compressor shift.
- D.
Overtemperature.
Correct Answer
A. Flameout.Explanation
The main fuel control is responsible for regulating the fuel flow to the jet engine. By properly controlling the fuel flow, it ensures that the engine operates within safe parameters and prevents flameout. Flameout refers to the sudden extinguishing of the flame in the combustion chamber, which can occur if the fuel supply is not properly maintained. Therefore, the main fuel control plays a crucial role in preventing flameout and ensuring the safe acceleration of the jet engine.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(402) The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
- A.
Heat the fuel and cool the oil
- B.
Cool the fuel and cool the oil.
- C.
Heat the fuel and heat the oil.
- D.
Cool the fuel and heat the oil.
Correct Answer
A. Heat the fuel and cool the oilExplanation
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to regulate the temperature of both the fuel and the oil. It heats the fuel to a desired temperature and cools the oil to prevent it from overheating. This helps to optimize the performance and efficiency of the fuel system by ensuring that the fuel is at the right temperature for combustion and the oil is kept cool to prevent degradation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(402) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?
- A.
A green flag pops out of the filter
- B.
Fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low.
- C.
A differential pressure indicator is actuated
- D.
There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.
Correct Answer
C. A differential pressure indicator is actuatedExplanation
When a fuel filter is clogged, a differential pressure indicator is actuated. This means that there is a mechanism in the fuel filter that detects the pressure difference between the input and output sides of the filter. When the pressure difference exceeds a certain threshold, the indicator is triggered, indicating that the filter is clogged and needs to be replaced. This allows for easy visual inspection without the need to disassemble the filter.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(403) On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?
- A.
Regulating engine RPM.
- B.
Regulating compressor discharge pressure.
- C.
Controlling turbine exhaust pressure.
- D.
Controlling turbine inlet temperature.
Correct Answer
D. Controlling turbine inlet temperature.Explanation
The correct answer is controlling turbine inlet temperature. In a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, the turbine inlet temperature is controlled to regulate the thrust production of the engine. By controlling the temperature of the air entering the turbine, the engine can adjust the power output and maintain optimal performance. This is achieved by regulating the fuel flow and adjusting the amount of air bypassed around the combustion chamber.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(403) During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of
- A.
RPM.
- B.
Inlet temperature.
- C.
Burner pressure.
- D.
Inlet pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Burner pressure.Explanation
During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of burner pressure. This means that the fuel flow is regulated based on the pressure inside the burner, which is a crucial factor in controlling the combustion process. By adjusting the fuel flow in response to changes in burner pressure, the hydromechanical fuel control system ensures that the engine operates safely and efficiently during deceleration.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
- A.
Pneumatic.
- B.
Fuel injection.
- C.
Hydromechanical.
- D.
Electrohydromechanical.
Correct Answer
D. Electrohydromechanical.Explanation
Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses various components such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to regulate and control the fuel flow in a jet engine. These components work together to monitor and adjust the fuel mixture based on various factors such as temperature, pressure, and engine performance. This type of fuel control system combines electrical, hydraulic, and mechanical elements to ensure efficient and precise fuel delivery, resulting in optimal engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(403) Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?
- A.
Unified.
- B.
Combined.
- C.
Bimechanical.
- D.
Electrosecondary.
Correct Answer
A. Unified.Explanation
A unified fuel metering device refers to a jet engine component that combines two separate fuel controls into one. This means that instead of having two separate controls for fuel metering, a unified device integrates both controls into a single unit. This helps to simplify the fuel system and improve efficiency by reducing the number of components needed.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(403) Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be
- A.
Replaced.
- B.
Die marked.
- C.
Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
- D.
Applied a thread locking compound.
Correct Answer
C. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.Explanation
Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be safety sealed and/or lockwired. This is because safety sealing and lockwiring ensure that the screws remain in their set position and prevent any unintended adjustments or tampering. By using safety seals and lockwires, the screws are secured and cannot be easily moved or altered, ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the engine trim procedure.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(404) When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?
- A.
MEC.
- B.
PMG.
- C.
TSFC.
- D.
DEEC.
Correct Answer
D. DEEC.Explanation
In the primary mode, the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine is controlled by the DEEC.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by
- A.
Oil
- B.
Fuel
- C.
Ram air
- D.
Hydraulic fluid
Correct Answer
B. FuelExplanation
The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is cooled by fuel. This means that fuel is used to regulate the temperature of the DEEC, preventing it from overheating. The fuel flows through the DEEC, absorbing heat and carrying it away, thus keeping the electronic control system at a safe operating temperature. This cooling mechanism ensures the proper functioning and longevity of the DEEC in the engine.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of operating in?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The MFC (Main Fuel Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is capable of operating in two modes.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(404) Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
- A.
Fuel nozzle.
- B.
P&D valve.
- C.
N2 sensor.
- D.
Tt 2.5 sensor.
Correct Answer
B. P&D valve.Explanation
The P&D valve controls the pressurization of the core engine fuel system. It regulates the flow of fuel to maintain the desired fuel pressure in the core. The fuel nozzle, N2 sensor, and Tt 2.5 sensor are not directly responsible for controlling the pressurization of the core engine fuel system.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?
- A.
7th
- B.
10th
- C.
13th
- D.
14th
Correct Answer
C. 13thExplanation
The augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine is driven by the 13th stage of compressor air.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
- A.
AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- B.
MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- C.
AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- D.
Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.
Correct Answer
B. MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.Explanation
The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This sequence indicates the order in which the fuel flows through different components of the F100-PW-220 engine. It starts at the MFC (Main Fuel Control), then goes through the fuel/oil cooler, P&D (Pump and Drain), and finally reaches the fuel nozzles.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(405) On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?
- A.
3 gear; 1 boost.
- B.
2 gear; 2 boost.
- C.
2 gear; 1 boost.
- D.
1 gear; 2 boost.
Correct Answer
C. 2 gear; 1 boost.Explanation
The T56 engine contains 2 gear fuel pumps and 1 boost fuel pump in the fuel pump and filter assembly.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(405) On a T56 engine, what controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?
- A.
Temperature.
- B.
Engine speed.
- C.
Throttle position.
- D.
Compressor inlet pressure.
Correct Answer
D. Compressor inlet pressure.Explanation
The rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve on a T56 engine is controlled by the compressor inlet pressure. This pressure is used to regulate the amount of fuel being delivered to the engine, ensuring that the correct fuel-to-air ratio is maintained for optimal engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(405) Which T56 engine component receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement?
- A.
TD valve
- B.
Fuel control.
- C.
TD control.
- D.
Fuel nozzle.
Correct Answer
A. TD valveExplanation
The TD valve receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(405) In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection does the T–56 engine fuel nozzle require?
- A.
Nondestructive.
- B.
Spray pattern.
- C.
Pre-torque.
- D.
Ultrasonic.
Correct Answer
B. Spray pattern.Explanation
The T-56 engine fuel nozzle requires a spray pattern inspection in addition to the visual inspection. This means that apart from visually inspecting the nozzle, it is also necessary to check the pattern of the fuel spray it produces. This is important to ensure that the fuel is being distributed evenly and properly for efficient combustion and engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(405) In what position must the TD valve switches be placed in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative?
- A.
OFF.
- B.
NULL.
- C.
AUTO.
- D.
LOCKED.
Correct Answer
B. NULL.Explanation
The TD valve switches must be placed in the NULL position in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(405) On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples?
- A.
TD valve.
- B.
Speed-sensitive control.
- C.
TD potentiometers.
- D.
TD amplifier.
Correct Answer
D. TD amplifier.Explanation
The TD amplifier on the T56 engine compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT (turbine inlet temperature) signal from the thermocouples. It is responsible for regulating the fuel flow to maintain the desired TIT level. The TD valve, speed-sensitive control, and TD potentiometers are not directly involved in this comparison process.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(405) Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
- A.
TD valve.
- B.
Main fuel pump.
- C.
TD amplifier.
- D.
Fuel control.
Correct Answer
A. TD valve.Explanation
The TD valve is the component of the T56 engine that sends fuel to the fuel manifold.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(405) On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when fuel pressure, in psi, in the manifold reaches
- A.
30 psi.
- B.
40 psi.
- C.
50 psi.
- D.
60 psi.
Correct Answer
C. 50 psi.Explanation
On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when the fuel pressure in the manifold reaches 50 psi. This means that when the fuel pressure reaches or exceeds 50 psi, the manifold pressure switch will cut off the power supply to the fuel enrichment relay, which controls the fuel enrichment process. This helps regulate the fuel flow and ensures that the engine is receiving the correct amount of fuel for proper operation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(405) When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?
- A.
0%.
- B.
10%.
- C.
20%.
- D.
30%.
Correct Answer
C. 20%.Explanation
When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, it means that the valve is completely closed. In this position, no fuel will bypass the valve, resulting in a bypass percentage of 0%. Therefore, the correct answer is 0%.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(405) The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which component has been replaced?
- A.
Compressor.
- B.
Power section.
- C.
Torquemeter shaft.
- D.
Reduction gearbox.
Correct Answer
B. Power section.Explanation
The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever the power section component has been replaced.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(406) When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
Correct Answer
C. Rotogear.Explanation
The question asks for a type of oil pump that is not classified based on structure. The options provided are Gear, Gerotor, Rotogear, and Sliding vane. Both Gear and Gerotor are types of oil pumps that are classified based on structure. Sliding vane is also a type of oil pump that falls under the category of a sliding vane pump. However, Rotogear is not a recognized type of oil pump based on structure. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotogear.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(406) Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
Correct Answer
B. Gerotor.Explanation
A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. This type of pump uses the interaction between the gear and rotor to create a pumping action, drawing in and pushing out oil. The gear and rotor have specially shaped lobes that allow for smooth movement and efficient oil flow. Gerotor pumps are commonly used in automotive engines and other machinery that require a reliable and efficient oil circulation system.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(406) Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?
- A.
AC high-voltage.
- B.
DC high-voltage.
- C.
Continuity.
- D.
Polarity.
Correct Answer
C. Continuity.Explanation
Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that they are used to check if there is a continuous electrical path between two points in a circuit. In the context of chip detectors, this check is important to ensure that the electrical connection between the chip detector and the system it is monitoring is intact. By confirming continuity, the chip detector can effectively detect any potential issues or abnormalities in the system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(406) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?
- A.
Air.
- B.
Fuel.
- C.
Hydraulic.
- D.
Pneumatic.
Correct Answer
A. Air.Explanation
An air oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. Both the radiator and the air oil cooler use air to cool down the fluid passing through them. In the case of a radiator, air is used to cool down the engine coolant, while in an air oil cooler, air is used to cool down the oil. The air oil cooler consists of fins that help in dissipating heat from the oil as it passes through the cooler, similar to how the radiator fins help in cooling down the engine coolant.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(406) What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?
- A.
Silicone.
- B.
Carbon.
- C.
Synthetic.
- D.
Labyrinth.
Correct Answer
D. Labyrinth.Explanation
A labyrinth oil seal is made of soft metal and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage. This type of seal has a complex design with multiple grooves and barriers that create a tortuous path for the oil, preventing it from leaking out. The soft metal composition allows for flexibility and a better seal against the rotating shaft.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(406) Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
- A.
Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.
- B.
Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.
- C.
Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.
- D.
Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.
Correct Answer
A. Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.Explanation
Labyrinth seals are constructed with soft metal, which makes them vulnerable to damage. This is why extreme care is needed when working with them. The soft metal construction of these seals increases the risk of them being easily damaged.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(406) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
- A.
Air pressure.
- B.
Oil pressure.
- C.
Spring pressure.
- D.
Hydraulic pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Spring pressure.Explanation
When an engine is not operating, the static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that the spring exerts a force on the oil seal, ensuring that it remains in contact with the shaft and prevents any leakage of oil. The spring pressure helps to maintain a tight seal even when there is no oil or hydraulic pressure present.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(407) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temperature, and
- A.
Oil jet pressure.
- B.
Fan turbine speed.
- C.
Oil nozzle condition.
- D.
Number of oil jets used.
Correct Answer
C. Oil nozzle condition.Explanation
The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temperature, and oil nozzle condition. The oil nozzle condition refers to the condition of the nozzle through which the oil is sprayed into the engine. If the nozzle is clogged or damaged, it can affect the oil pressure. Therefore, the oil nozzle condition is a factor that can cause variations in the engine oil pressure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(407) In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?
- A.
Aerator.
- B.
Deaerator.
- C.
Check valve.
- D.
Bypass valve.
Correct Answer
B. Deaerator.Explanation
A deaerator is a device used to remove air and other dissolved gases from the oil in an engine oil tank. It works by heating the oil and then passing it through a series of trays or baffles, where the air is separated and vented out. This helps to prevent air pockets or bubbles from forming in the oil, which can cause damage to the engine and reduce its efficiency. Therefore, a deaerator is the correct device for separating air from the oil in an engine oil tank.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(407) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
- A.
Dry sump.
- B.
Wet sump.
- C.
Cold tank.
- D.
Hot tank.
Correct Answer
A. Dry sump.Explanation
A dry sump oil system stores the oil in a separate tank that is mounted to the side of the engine. This design allows for better lubrication and cooling of the engine, as the oil is not stored in the engine's crankcase like in a wet sump system. The separate tank also prevents oil starvation during high-speed or high-g cornering situations, as it can provide a constant supply of oil to the engine. Therefore, the correct answer is dry sump.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(407) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
- A.
Cold tank.
- B.
Wet tank.
- C.
Dry tank.
- D.
Hot tank.
Correct Answer
D. Hot tank.Explanation
A hot tank oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem. This means that the oil cooler is located in a part of the system where the oil is under pressure. The purpose of the oil cooler is to cool the oil and prevent it from overheating. By placing it in the pressure subsystem, the cooler can effectively remove heat from the oil as it flows through the system under pressure. This design helps to maintain the oil at the proper temperature and prevent any damage or degradation that could occur from excessive heat.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(408) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
- A.
Oil tank.
- B.
Gearbox.
- C.
Oil filter.
- D.
Oil pump.
Correct Answer
B. Gearbox.Explanation
The correct answer is gearbox. The breather pressurizing valve on an F100 engine is internally mounted in the gearbox. This valve helps to maintain the proper pressure within the gearbox by regulating the flow of air. It prevents the gearbox from becoming over-pressurized, which can cause damage to the system. By being internally mounted, the valve is able to effectively control the pressure within the gearbox and ensure optimal performance of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(408) If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the
- A.
Button is defective.
- B.
Scheduled oil change is due.
- C.
Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.
- D.
Design pressure differential has been exceeded.
Correct Answer
D. Design pressure differential has been exceeded.Explanation
The correct answer is "design pressure differential has been exceeded." This means that the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the oil filter has exceeded the maximum limit set by the design. When this happens, the red button on the engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, indicating that there is a problem with the pressure in the filter. This is a safety feature to alert the operator that the filter needs attention and should be replaced.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(408) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
- A.
Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
- B.
Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.
- C.
Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.
- D.
Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.
Correct Answer
A. Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.Explanation
The air/oil coolers on an F100-PW-220 engine are mounted on the fan duct and use secondary fan airflow as a coolant. This means that the coolers are positioned in such a way that they receive the airflow generated by the secondary fan, which helps to cool the oil in the engine. This is an important function as it helps to regulate the temperature of the oil, ensuring that it does not become too hot and cause damage to the engine components.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(408) On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
- A.
Oil relief valve.
- B.
Filter poppet valve.
- C.
Oil pressure transmitter tap.
- D.
Filter assembly bypass valve.
Correct Answer
D. Filter assembly bypass valve.Explanation
The correct answer is the Filter assembly bypass valve. During cold weather starts, the oil filter can become clogged or restricted, which can cause a decrease in oil pressure. The filter assembly bypass valve allows oil to bypass the filter and flow directly to the engine, ensuring that there is sufficient lubrication even if the filter is not fully functional.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(409) The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for approximately how long during negative G conditions?
- A.
Minimum of 10 seconds.
- B.
Minimum of 20 seconds
- C.
Maximum of 10 seconds.
- D.
Maximum of 20 seconds.
Correct Answer
A. Minimum of 10 seconds.Explanation
The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for a minimum of 10 seconds during negative G conditions. This means that even under extreme conditions, the oil tank pendulum is capable of providing a continuous supply of pressurized oil for at least 10 seconds, ensuring the proper functioning of the system during negative G maneuvers.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(409) Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
9
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at the engine PTO.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(409) What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
- A.
Alternator stator.
- B.
Prop gearbox.
- C.
PUAD.
- D.
GMAD.
Correct Answer
D. GMAD.Explanation
The GMAD (Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive) is the component that drives the PGB (Propeller Gearbox) lube and scavenge pump. The GMAD is responsible for providing power to various accessories, including the lube and scavenge pump, which is essential for maintaining proper lubrication and scavenging of the propeller gearbox. The other options, such as the alternator stator, prop gearbox, and PUAD, are not directly involved in driving the PGB lube and scavenge pump.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(409) The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below
- A.
2 US gallons.
- B.
3 US gallons.
- C.
4 US gallons.
- D.
5 US gallons.
Correct Answer
C. 4 US gallons.Explanation
The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below 4 US gallons. This means that the engine requires at least 4 US gallons of oil to operate properly and efficiently. If the oil level drops below this threshold, it can lead to potential engine damage or failure. Therefore, it is important to monitor and maintain the oil level above 4 US gallons to ensure the engine's optimal performance and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(410) The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is
- A.
Toxicity.
- B.
Viscosity.
- C.
Alkalinity.
- D.
Corrosiveness.
Correct Answer
D. Corrosiveness.Explanation
The correct answer is corrosiveness. Modern jet engine oil can be corrosive, meaning it has the ability to cause damage or deterioration to metal surfaces it comes into contact with. This is an important property for a journeyman to be aware of, as it can affect the maintenance and safety of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(411) The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is
- A.
Improved safety.
- B.
Increased component life.
- C.
Reduced maintenance cost.
- D.
Increased equipment availability.
Correct Answer
A. Improved safety.Explanation
The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is improved safety. By detecting potential failures before they occur, proactive measures can be taken to prevent accidents or incidents that could compromise the safety of personnel or equipment. This allows for timely repairs or replacements to be made, reducing the risk of catastrophic failures and ensuring a safer working environment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(411) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Logistics commander.
- C.
Propulsion flight chief.
- D.
Laboratory supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Project monitor.Explanation
The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (Operating Airman Program) operates properly. This role involves overseeing and monitoring the progress and performance of the program, ensuring that all tasks and responsibilities are being carried out effectively. The project monitor is responsible for identifying any issues or challenges that may arise and taking appropriate actions to address them. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of the OAP and its successful implementation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(411) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
- A.
Wear metals.
- B.
Friction metals.
- C.
Precious metals.
- D.
Transformation metals.
Correct Answer
A. Wear metals.Explanation
Microscopic metallic particles in the oil system are called wear metals. These particles are generated as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in the system. They are small enough to be suspended in the oil and can cause damage to the system if not properly managed. Regular oil analysis is conducted to monitor the levels of wear metals and detect any potential issues or abnormalities in the system.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 02, 2012Quiz Created by
Kc10
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