3D1X3 U.S. Air Force CDC: Hardest Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 576

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1/100 Questions

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- Core task.
- Duty competency
- Core competency.
- Duty position task.

About This Quiz

Here we are with a 3D1X3 U. S. Air Force CDC Exam practice quiz. A person who has undergone this training on transmission systems is placed in charge of establishing and maintaining circuits, configuring and managing system and network connectivity. Do you know how to successfully fix any issues that may arise with wireless radio frequencies ground-based satellite? This quiz See morewill give you scenarios to test your understanding. Do give them a try and see how well you do!

3D1X3 U.S. Air Force CDC: Hardest Quiz - Quiz

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2.

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- Unit training manager (UTM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM)
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. Base functional manager (BFM).

Explanation

The on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM).

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3.

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- On-the-Job Training (OJT) program
- Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer

A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program

Explanation

The correct answer is On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. This program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. OJT allows individuals to learn and gain practical experience while working under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. It is a hands-on training approach that helps individuals develop the necessary skills and expertise needed for their specific job roles.

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4.

What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- Remedy
- Training Business Area.
- Telephone Management System.
- Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer

A. Remedy

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It is a comprehensive IT service management tool that helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. Remedy enables organizations to streamline their IT asset management processes, improve efficiency, and ensure compliance with regulations. It provides features such as asset tracking, procurement management, contract management, and retirement/disposal management, making it the ideal solution for managing IT assets throughout their lifecycle.

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5.

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- National Security Policy.
- National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer

A. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. This policy aims to protect the nation's cyber assets and ensure the security and resilience of the country's critical infrastructure systems. It outlines strategic objectives and actions to be taken by the government, private sector, and individuals to enhance cybersecurity and defend against cyber threats.

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6.

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- Title 10.
- Title 30.
- Title 50.
- Title 52.
Correct Answer

A. Title 10.

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations. In order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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7.

What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. It is designed to protect and secure the Air Force's cyberspace operations and infrastructure.

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8.

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer

A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in critical mission networks and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate these risks. The other options mentioned are not specifically designed for vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment as the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

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9.

Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- Area Processing Center (APC)
- Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer

A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Explanation

The correct answer is the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). This unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is focused on streamlining processes and providing efficient and effective support to the warfighters, allowing them to focus more on their mission rather than spending excessive time on training and administrative tasks.

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10.

What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- Coding.
- Positioning.
- Tempo bands.
- Unit type code.
Correct Answer

A. Unit type code.

Explanation

Unit type codes are the basic building blocks used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). These codes provide a standardized way to identify and categorize different types of units, including their capabilities, equipment, and personnel. By using unit type codes, planners can effectively organize and allocate resources, ensure interoperability between different units, and streamline the deployment process. This allows for efficient and effective joint operations and enhances the overall readiness and effectiveness of AEF deployments.

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11.

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- Improve the effectiveness of the mission.
- Improve the efficiency of the mission.
Correct Answer

A. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to help users effectively and efficiently utilize the information available within the organization to drive better decision-making, improve processes, and achieve business objectives. By exploiting information, organizations can gain valuable insights, identify opportunities, and make informed decisions that contribute to their overall success.

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12.

How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?
- One.
- Two.
- Three.
- Four.
Correct Answer

A. Three.

Explanation

SharePoint Server offers three workflow capabilities: SharePoint Designer workflows, Microsoft Flow, and Visual Studio workflows. These capabilities allow users to automate and streamline business processes, improve collaboration, and enhance productivity within the SharePoint environment. SharePoint Designer workflows provide a user-friendly interface for creating and managing workflows. Microsoft Flow offers a cloud-based service that allows users to create automated workflows across various applications and services. Visual Studio workflows provide a more advanced and customizable option for creating complex workflows using code.

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13.

Records that are considered to be in draft format
- Can be altered and are not officially released.
- Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer

A. Can be altered and are not officially released.

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and are subject to changes. They have not been officially approved or released to the public or relevant parties. Therefore, they can be modified before their final version is officially released.

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14.

Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
- Base records manager.
- Chief of Office of Records.
- Command records manager.
- Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer

A. Functional area records manager.

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management of records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies, and maintaining the integrity and accessibility of records. They work closely with other records managers and staff to ensure efficient and effective records management practices are implemented throughout the organization.

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15.

What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
- DODD 8140.01
- DODD 5515.01
- DODD 8220.01.
- DODD 8570.01.
Correct Answer

A. DODD 8570.01.

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense information systems must receive initial information assurance awareness orientation and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for information assurance training and certification for individuals who have access to DOD information systems.

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16.

What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
- Directive.
- Non-directive.
- Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).
- Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
Correct Answer

A. Non-directive.

Explanation

Non-directive publications are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general principles and concepts, allowing individuals to adapt and apply them according to their specific needs and situations. Unlike directive publications, which provide specific instructions and requirements, non-directive publications offer more flexibility and discretion in their application. Therefore, non-directive publications are the correct answer as they align with the description provided in the question.

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17.

What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
- Air Force Instructions (AFI).
- Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)
- Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
- Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
18.

What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
- Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
- Office Automation System (OAS).
- Decision Support System (DSS).
- Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer

A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that specifically manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of distributing and printing technical orders, ensuring that the correct information is delivered to the right people in a timely manner. ETIMS is a comprehensive system that helps to improve efficiency and accuracy in managing technical orders, making it the appropriate choice for this particular task.

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19.

Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
- Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
- Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer

A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

Explanation

The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards.

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20.

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- Commerce.
- The Treasury.
- Defense.
- Labor.
Correct Answer

A. Labor.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Labor." The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It is a part of the United States Department of Labor, which is the federal agency responsible for protecting workers' rights, improving working conditions, and promoting fair and safe employment practices.

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21.

What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- Falls.
- Poor lighting.
- Horseplay
- Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer

A. Falls.

Explanation

In a typical office, falls are the greatest hazard. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping hazards, or improper use of equipment. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to serious fractures or head injuries. It is important to maintain a safe working environment by ensuring proper housekeeping, installing non-slip mats, and providing training on safe practices to prevent falls.

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22.

How are fires classified?
- Fuel type
- Heat source.
- Temperature.
- Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer

A. Fuel type

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can result in different fire behaviors and require different firefighting techniques. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can better assess the potential hazards and determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire.

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23.

Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- 50.
- 40.
- 20
- 10.
Correct Answer

A. 50.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This is because the human body has a low threshold for electrical current when it comes to the heart. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can disrupt the normal rhythm of the heart and potentially cause it to stop beating. It is important to note that this threshold can vary depending on factors such as the pathway of the current and the duration of exposure.

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24.

How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- One.
- Two.
- Three.
- Four.
Correct Answer

A. Four.

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is comprised of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the architecture framework, including the overall guidance, the architecture data, the architecture products, and the architecture usage. These volumes provide a comprehensive and detailed guide for the development and implementation of architectures within the Department of Defense.

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25.

Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- Administrative record.
- Maintenance record.
- Drawing record.
- Outage record.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance record.

Explanation

The correct answer is maintenance record. The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains crucial information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including repairs, replacements, and upgrades. It helps to track the history of maintenance and ensures that the systems are functioning properly.

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26.

What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- Data Transport and Application.
- Session and Data Transport.
- Network and Presentation.
- Application and Session.
Correct Answer

A. Data Transport and Application.

Explanation

The two categories of the seven layers of the OSI reference model are the lower layers and the upper layers. The lower layers consist of the Physical, Data Link, and Network layers, which handle the actual transmission and routing of data. The upper layers consist of the Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application layers, which focus on providing services and interfaces to the end user. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Transport and Application.

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27.

What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- Star
- Ring.
- Loop.
- Linear.
Correct Answer

A. Linear.

Explanation

A bus topology is a network setup in which all devices are connected to a single communication line, called a bus. The devices share this bus to transmit and receive data. This type of topology is also referred to as a linear topology because the devices are arranged in a linear fashion along the bus. The correct answer, "Linear," accurately describes the bus topology.

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28.

What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
Correct Answer

A. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services. It is passed as an argument between layers in the networking stack. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over a network. The port number helps identify the specific application or process on each machine, while the IP address helps identify the destination machine.

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29.

What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- Class A address.
- Class B address.
- Class C address.
- Class D address.
Correct Answer

A. Class D address.

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IPv4, multicast addresses are used to send data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, allowing for a large number of multicast groups. These addresses are not assigned to specific devices, but rather used to identify a group of devices that are interested in receiving the multicast data. Multicast addresses are commonly used for streaming media, online gaming, and other applications that require efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients.

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30.

What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
- Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
- Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer

A. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently used data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to access it more quickly. This helps to improve overall system performance by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve data from the main memory.

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31.

Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN)
- Virtual private network (VPN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. Wide area network (WAN)

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects multiple local area networks (LANs) and metropolitan area networks (MANs) over long-distance communication links provided by a telecommunications company. This allows for the sharing of resources and information between different LANs and MANs that are geographically dispersed. A WAN typically covers a larger geographic area than a LAN or MAN, and it provides connectivity to remote locations. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer for a network that links LANs and MANs using long-distance communication links.

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32.

What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
- Switch.
- Modem.
- Gateway.
- Converter.
Correct Answer

A. Gateway.

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that connects two different networks, allowing them to communicate with each other. In this case, it provides connectivity between a remote network and a host network. A switch is a device that connects multiple devices within a local network, a modem is used to connect a computer or network to the internet, and a converter is used to convert signals from one type to another. However, none of these devices specifically provide connectivity between remote and host networks like a gateway does.

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33.

What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
- Shell.
- Kernel.
- User programs.
- Dynamic-link library.
Correct Answer

A. Kernel.

Explanation

The kernel is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It provides essential services and manages the system's resources, including the CPU, memory, and devices. The kernel is responsible for handling low-level tasks such as device drivers, memory management, process scheduling, and input/output operations. It acts as an intermediary between the hardware and the user programs, allowing them to access and utilize the system's resources efficiently.

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34.

What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
- Word.
- Access.
- Outlook.
- PowerPoint.
Correct Answer

A. Outlook.

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, tasks, and notes. Outlook provides users with a centralized platform to organize and handle their personal information effectively. It offers features like email management, scheduling meetings, setting reminders, and maintaining address books. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are not personal information managers but rather applications for word processing, database management, and presentation creation respectively.

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35.

Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?
- Banner Lines.
- Portion Marks
- Component and office
- Classification authority.
Correct Answer

A. Banner Lines.

Explanation

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. These markings typically appear at the top and bottom of each page of a classified document and indicate the level of classification, such as Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential. They serve as a visual reminder to individuals handling the document of its sensitivity and the need to protect it from unauthorized disclosure. Banner Lines are a crucial element in ensuring the proper handling and safeguarding of classified information.

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36.

Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?
- Classified Information Program Manager.
- Information Assurance Officer.
- Security Manager.
- Supervisor.
Correct Answer

A. Security Manager.

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This role is responsible for overseeing the security of classified information and ensuring compliance with regulations. They have the knowledge and authority to assess the risks and make decisions regarding the shipment of classified materials during non-business hours. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have related responsibilities, but the Security Manager specifically has the authority in this context.

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37.

Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?
- Defense Switched Network (DSN).
- Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).
- Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
- Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.
Correct Answer

A. Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. It is a dedicated network used by the U.S. Department of Defense and other government agencies for secure voice and data communication. The DRSN ensures reliable and encrypted communication, making it suitable for critical operations and sensitive information sharing.

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38.

Which system is the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?
- Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
- Global Combat Support System (GCSS)
- Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
- Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Correct Answer

A. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). This system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system. It is responsible for gathering and analyzing information from various sources, such as satellites, drones, and ground-based sensors, and providing actionable intelligence to commanders and decision-makers. DCGS plays a crucial role in enhancing situational awareness and enabling effective decision-making in military operations.

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39.

Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?
- Global Broadcast System (GBS).
- Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
- Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
- Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
Correct Answer

A. Global Broadcast System (GBS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Broadcast System (GBS). The GBS is a space-based high data rate communications link that allows for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure means of transmitting critical information, such as intelligence, weather updates, and command and control messages, to military personnel in the field. The GBS enables real-time situational awareness and enhances the ability of deployed forces to make informed decisions and carry out their missions effectively.

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40.

What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force’s strategic aircraft and missile functions?
- Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
- Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
- Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
- Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
Correct Answer

A. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS is specifically designed to ensure the secure and reliable communication of critical information related to the command and control of strategic assets, such as nuclear weapons systems. It enables the Air Force to maintain control over these assets and ensure their effective operation in accordance with strategic objectives. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same focus on secure communications for strategic aircraft and missile functions.

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41.

What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?
- Mystic Star
- Global HF system.
- Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.
- System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).
Correct Answer

A. Global HF system.

Explanation

The Global HF system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war.

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42.

Cyberspace is a man-made domain
- True
- False
- Option 3
- Option 4
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Cyberspace refers to the virtual world created by computer systems and networks. It is a man-made domain because it is created and maintained by humans through the development and use of technology. Humans design and build the infrastructure, software, and systems that make up cyberspace, allowing for communication, information sharing, and various online activities. Therefore, the statement "Cyberspace is a man-made domain" is true.

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43.

The Network Operations Security Center is an AFNetOps capability provided by which two squadrons?
- 71st and 468th NOS
- 83th and 561th NOS
- 46th and 371st NOS
- Option 4
Correct Answer

A. 83th and 561th NOS

Explanation

The Network Operations Security Center is provided by the 83rd and 561st NOS squadrons.

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44.

What is an RC?
- Records custodian
- Records customer
- Returning Chief
- Remote Car
Correct Answer

A. Records custodian

Explanation

An RC refers to a records custodian. A records custodian is an individual or entity responsible for managing and maintaining records. They ensure that records are properly stored, organized, and accessible when needed. This role is crucial in maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of records, as well as complying with legal and regulatory requirements.

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45.

Which is NOT addressed in US Code Title 15?
- Commerce and Trade
- Securities Exchange
- Trademarks
- Federal Crimes
Correct Answer

A. Federal Crimes

Explanation

US Code Title 15 addresses various aspects of Commerce and Trade, Securities Exchange, and Trademarks. However, it does not address Federal Crimes. The US Code is a compilation of all the general and permanent federal laws of the United States, and Title 15 specifically focuses on laws related to commerce and trade, securities exchange, and trademarks. Federal Crimes are typically addressed in other titles of the US Code, such as Title 18 which deals with criminal laws.

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46.

How often is the Air Force Cyber Security and Control System (CSCS) weapon system active?
- Mon-Fri
- 24/7
- Only on Weekends
- Only in emergencies
Correct Answer

A. 24/7

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System (CSCS) weapon system is active 24/7, which means it operates continuously throughout the week, including weekends and weekdays. This suggests that the system is constantly monitoring and protecting against cyber threats and ensuring the security of the Air Force's networks and information.

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47.

How many subdiscipline areas are monitored/ assessed in the Cyberspace Defense Analysis (CDA) Weapon System?
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
Correct Answer

A. 6

Explanation

The Cyberspace Defense Analysis (CDA) Weapon System monitors/assesses six subdiscipline areas. This suggests that there are multiple aspects or components within the CDA system that are monitored or assessed. The specific subdiscipline areas are not mentioned in the question, but it can be inferred that there are at least six distinct areas that are considered important in the context of cyberspace defense analysis.

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48.

The 24th AF is comprised of how many cyberspace wings?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct Answer

A. 2

Explanation

The 24th AF is comprised of 2 cyberspace wings.

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49.

Phishing, where a program masquerades as another
- True
- False
- Option 3
- Option 4
Correct Answer

A. False

Explanation

Phishing is a type of cyber attack where an attacker disguises themselves as a trustworthy entity to deceive individuals into revealing sensitive information. It does not involve a program masquerading as another program. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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3D1X3 U.S. Air Force CDC: Hardest Quiz

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

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Phishing, where a program masquerades as another