3D1X3 U.S. Air Force CDC: Hardest Quiz

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 122

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3d1x3 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
    • A. 

      Core task.

    • B. 

      Duty competency

    • C. 

      Core competency.

    • D. 

      Duty position task.

  • 2. 
    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 3. 
    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • B. 

      Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

    • C. 

      On-the-Job Training (OJT) program

    • D. 

      Occupational Analysis Program.

  • 4. 
    What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
    • A. 

      Remedy

    • B. 

      Training Business Area.

    • C. 

      Telephone Management System.

    • D. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data System.

  • 5. 
    Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
    • A. 

      National Security Policy.

    • B. 

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C. 

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D. 

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

  • 6. 
    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
    • A. 

      Title 10.

    • B. 

      Title 30.

    • C. 

      Title 50.

    • D. 

      Title 52.

  • 7. 
    What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
    • A. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • C. 

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

  • 8. 
    What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
    • A. 

      Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • C. 

      Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

  • 9. 
    Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B. 

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • C. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D. 

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

  • 10. 
    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
    • A. 

      Coding.

    • B. 

      Positioning.

    • C. 

      Tempo bands.

    • D. 

      Unit type code.

  • 11. 
    The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
    • A. 

      Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • B. 

      Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • C. 

      Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

    • D. 

      Improve the efficiency of the mission.

  • 12. 
    How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 13. 
    Records that are considered to be in draft format
    • A. 

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B. 

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • C. 

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • D. 

      Officially signed and officially released.

  • 14. 
    Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
    • A. 

      Base records manager.

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C. 

      Command records manager.

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager.

  • 15. 
    What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
    • A. 

      DODD 8140.01

    • B. 

      DODD 5515.01

    • C. 

      DODD 8220.01.

    • D. 

      DODD 8570.01.

  • 16. 
    What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
    • A. 

      Directive.

    • B. 

      Non-directive.

    • C. 

      Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

  • 17. 
    What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instructions (AFI).

    • B. 

      Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

    • C. 

      Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).

  • 18. 
    What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
    • A. 

      Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • B. 

      Office Automation System (OAS).

    • C. 

      Decision Support System (DSS).

    • D. 

      Training Business Area (TBA).

  • 19. 
    Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
    • A. 

      Defense Standardization Program (DSP).

    • B. 

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C. 

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D. 

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

  • 20. 
    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
    • A. 

      Commerce.

    • B. 

      The Treasury.

    • C. 

      Defense.

    • D. 

      Labor.

  • 21. 
    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
    • A. 

      Falls.

    • B. 

      Poor lighting.

    • C. 

      Horseplay

    • D. 

      Poor ergonomics.

  • 22. 
    How are fires classified?
    • A. 

      Fuel type

    • B. 

      Heat source.

    • C. 

      Temperature.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric conditions.

  • 23. 
    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
    • A. 

      50.

    • B. 

      40.

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      10.

  • 24. 
    How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 25. 
    Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
    • A. 

      Administrative record.

    • B. 

      Maintenance record.

    • C. 

      Drawing record.

    • D. 

      Outage record.

  • 26. 
    What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
    • A. 

      Data Transport and Application.

    • B. 

      Session and Data Transport.

    • C. 

      Network and Presentation.

    • D. 

      Application and Session.

  • 27. 
    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
    • A. 

      Star

    • B. 

      Ring.

    • C. 

      Loop.

    • D. 

      Linear.

  • 28. 
    What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
    • A. 

      Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    • B. 

      Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

    • C. 

      Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

    • D. 

      Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

  • 29. 
    What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
    • A. 

      Class A address.

    • B. 

      Class B address.

    • C. 

      Class C address.

    • D. 

      Class D address.

  • 30. 
    What action is the main purpose of system cache?
    • A. 

      Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • B. 

      Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • C. 

      Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

    • D. 

      Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

  • 31. 
    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 32. 
    What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
    • A. 

      Switch.

    • B. 

      Modem.

    • C. 

      Gateway.

    • D. 

      Converter.

  • 33. 
    What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
    • A. 

      Shell.

    • B. 

      Kernel.

    • C. 

      User programs.

    • D. 

      Dynamic-link library.

  • 34. 
    What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
    • A. 

      Word.

    • B. 

      Access.

    • C. 

      Outlook.

    • D. 

      PowerPoint.

  • 35. 
    Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?
    • A. 

      Banner Lines.

    • B. 

      Portion Marks

    • C. 

      Component and office

    • D. 

      Classification authority.

  • 36. 
    Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?
    • A. 

      Classified Information Program Manager.

    • B. 

      Information Assurance Officer.

    • C. 

      Security Manager.

    • D. 

      Supervisor.

  • 37. 
    Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?
    • A. 

      Defense Switched Network (DSN).

    • B. 

      Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

    • C. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.

  • 38. 
    Which system is the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?
    • A. 

      Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

    • B. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

    • C. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 39. 
    Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast System (GBS).

    • B. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 40. 
    What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force’s strategic aircraft and missile functions?
    • A. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 41. 
    What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?
    • A. 

      Mystic Star

    • B. 

      Global HF system.

    • C. 

      Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.

    • D. 

      System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).

  • 42. 
    Cyberspace is a man-made domain
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 43. 
    The Network Operations Security Center is an AFNetOps capability provided by which two squadrons?
    • A. 

      71st and 468th NOS

    • B. 

      83th and 561th NOS

    • C. 

      46th and 371st NOS

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 44. 
    What is an RC?
    • A. 

      Records custodian

    • B. 

      Records customer

    • C. 

      Returning Chief

    • D. 

      Remote Car

  • 45. 
    Which is NOT addressed in US Code Title 15?
    • A. 

      Commerce and Trade

    • B. 

      Securities Exchange

    • C. 

      Trademarks

    • D. 

      Federal Crimes

  • 46. 
    How often is the Air Force Cyber Security and Control System (CSCS) weapon system active?
    • A. 

      Mon-Fri

    • B. 

      24/7

    • C. 

      Only on Weekends

    • D. 

      Only in emergencies

  • 47. 
    How many subdiscipline areas are monitored/ assessed in the Cyberspace Defense Analysis (CDA) Weapon System?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 48. 
    The 24th AF is comprised of how many cyberspace wings?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 49. 
    Phishing, where a program masquerades as another
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 50. 
    Which operations are incorporated in the AOC?
    • A. 

      Air and land

    • B. 

      Air, land, sea

    • C. 

      Air, land, sea, space

    • D. 

      Air, land, sea, space, cyberspace

  • 51. 
    Microsoft SharePoint is NOT server-based.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 52. 
    DCS stands for?
    • A. 

      Defense Collaboration Services

    • B. 

      Dynamic Correction Services

    • C. 

      Dependent Control Services

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 53. 
    DCS can scale to handle up to how many concurrent users?
    • A. 

      5000

    • B. 

      10000

    • C. 

      15000

    • D. 

      20000

  • 54. 
    E-mail etiquette provides guidelines for proper behavior while online.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 55. 
    Who ensures offices of record receive a staff assistance visit at least every 24 months?
    • A. 

      Command records manager

    • B. 

      Base records manager

    • C. 

      Functional area records manager

    • D. 

      Chief of the office of record

  • 56. 
    Airforce Doctrine describes and guides the proper use of airpower in military operations.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 57. 
    Which AFI does one reference when reporting a hazard?
    • A. 

      AFI 91-202

    • B. 

      AFI 91-201

    • C. 

      AFI 21-902

    • D. 

      AFI 21-901

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is not part of the fundamental objective of risk management?
    • A. 

      Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels

    • B. 

      Preserve assets

    • C. 

      Safeguard the health and welfare of personnel

    • D. 

      Increase costs over benefits

  • 59. 
    True or false. In the OSI reference model, the session layer establishes, manages, and terminates connections between presentation layer entities.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is a disadvantage to a ring topology?
    • A. 

      Data packets can travel at greater speed

    • B. 

      There are no collisions

    • C. 

      A break in the cable will bring many types of ring networks down

    • D. 

      No terminators needed

  • 61. 
    Which is not a TCP protocol>
    • A. 

      FTP

    • B. 

      UDP

    • C. 

      SMTP

    • D. 

      Domain Name Services (DNS)

  • 62. 
    What component, also called the microprocessor, consists of two main components: a control unit (CU) and the Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)?
    • A. 

      Central Processing Unit (CPU)

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      Motherboard

    • D. 

      Hard disk drive

  • 63. 
    True or false. Modem is actually an acronym for MOdulator/DEModulator.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 64. 
    Which distance in meters is the limit of a RG-11 coaxial cable?
    • A. 

      300

    • B. 

      500

    • C. 

      185

    • D. 

      400

  • 65. 
    True or false. COMSEC does not refer to measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons from information systems of the United States Government.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 66. 
    Which of the following are approved methods of destruction for classified information?
    • A. 

      Shredding

    • B. 

      Pulverizing and disintegrating

    • C. 

      Pulping

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 67. 
    What feature of DMS allows users to specify the precedence of each message they originate subject to controls that limit the precedence levels that each user is authorized to originate message?
    • A. 

      Priority transmission

    • B. 

      Guarantees message delivery

    • C. 

      Security access control

    • D. 

      Interoperability

  • 68. 
    True or false. Two of the more common DISN voice services are SBU voice and VOSIP.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 69. 
    Which of the following systems make up the bigger GCCS-AF program?
    • A. 

      Joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES)

    • B. 

      Global command and Control system status of resources and training system (GSORTS)

    • C. 

      Common Operation Picture (COP)

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 70. 
    True or false. NMCC is not one of the command nodes that NMCS functions with.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 71. 
    True or false. The Global HF system provides rapid reliable non-dedicated communications between the National Command Authority, DOD, aircraft and ships of the US government.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 72. 
    May be real or perceived and involve ethical/moral values.
    • A. 

      Personal conflict of interest.

    • B. 

      Covered relationships.

    • C. 

      Misuse of position.

    • D. 

      Non-public information.

  • 73. 
    An overarching stage for maintaining service quality.
    • A. 

      Service station

    • B. 

      Service operation

    • C. 

      CSI

    • D. 

      Service design

  • 74. 
    Ensures offices of records receive a SAV at least every 24 months.
    • A. 

      RM

    • B. 

      FARM

    • C. 

      COR

    • D. 

      RC

  • 75. 
    Support equipment designed and manufactured for commercial use.
    • A. 

      TCTO

    • B. 

      O&M TO

    • C. 

      COTS Manual

    • D. 

      MPTO

  • 76. 
    Contain instructions for use in conjunction with data contained in their parent TOs, and are not stand-alone publications.
    • A. 

      Joint use publication

    • B. 

      SIPTO

    • C. 

      General TO

    • D. 

      Supplemental TO

  • 77. 
    Employers must
    • A. 

      Follow all OSHA safety and health standards.

    • B. 

      Keep records of work-related injuries.

    • C. 

      Not retaliate against any worker.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 78. 
    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
    • A. 

      The AF OJT Program

    • B. 

      CDCs

    • C. 

      5-level upgrade

    • D. 

      QA

  • 79. 
    What is NOT a component of the AF OJT program?
    • A. 

      Job knowledge

    • B. 

      Job proficiency

    • C. 

      Job experience

    • D. 

      Job control

  • 80. 
    What AFI outlines the AF’s training program?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2101

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2201

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2301

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2401

  • 81. 
    What career field relies on many services provided by the Cyberspace Support Community?
    • A. 

      3D0X2

    • B. 

      3D1X2

    • C. 

      1B4X1

    • D. 

      1B4X2

  • 82. 
    The four sub-discipline areas of AFINC are Defense-in-Depth, Proactive Defense, Network Standardization, and Situational Awareness
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 83. 
    What reaches across geopolitical boundaries and is tightly integrated into the operation of critical infrastructures and the conduct of commerce, governance, and national security?
    • A. 

      Blogosphere

    • B. 

      Internet

    • C. 

      Social networking

    • D. 

      Cyberspace

  • 84. 
    Who is the principal defense policy advisor to the President?
    • A. 

      The Secretary of the Air Force

    • B. 

      The Secretary of Defense

    • C. 

      The Secretary of Offense

    • D. 

      The Secretary of State

  • 85. 
    Permanent visual aids must be attributable to guidance or information in a directive publication.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 86. 
    What form would you use to recommend changes and improvements to Air Force publications?
    • A. 

      AF Form 846

    • B. 

      AF Form 847

    • C. 

      AF Form 848

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2903

  • 87. 
    What office/individual is responsible for developing JSTOs?
    • A. 

      The supervisor

    • B. 

      The Section Chief

    • C. 

      The pro-sup

    • D. 

      The commander

  • 88. 
    What are the five classes of fires?
    • A. 

      Class A, B, C, D, E

    • B. 

      Class 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

    • C. 

      Class A, B, C, D, K

    • D. 

      Class Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Zulu

  • 89. 
    If the topology cannot be seen or touched what type is it?
    • A. 

      Ring topology

    • B. 

      Local topology

    • C. 

      Star topology

    • D. 

      Peer-to-peer

  • 90. 
    What is another name for a bus topology?
    • A. 

      Double decker bus

    • B. 

      Night bus

    • C. 

      Hogwarts express

    • D. 

      Linear bus

  • 91. 
    Which of the following is NOT a protocol that uses TCP?
    • A. 

      FTP

    • B. 

      HTTP

    • C. 

      SMTP

    • D. 

      IDGAF

  • 92. 
    What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
    • A. 

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • B. 

      Develop Career Development Courses.

    • C. 

      Review the occupational analysis report.

    • D. 

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 93. 
    What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
    • A. 

      Strategic Considerations

    • B. 

      Military Strategic Framework

    • C. 

      Implementation and Assessment.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

  • 94. 
    What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
    • A. 

      A rewriting of the main point.

    • B. 

      A well-written summary.

    • C. 

      A postscript message

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 95. 
    Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
    • A. 

      Base records manager.

    • B. 

      Command records manager

    • C. 

      Chief of the Office of Records.

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager.

  • 96. 
    What three sub-categories make up human factors?
    • A. 

      Physiological, physical, stress.

    • B. 

      Physiological, Physical, social

    • C. 

      Stress, organizational, physical.

    • D. 

      Physical, physiological, organizational.

  • 97. 
    The risk management process includes how many steps?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 98. 
    What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
    • A. 

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • B. 

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • C. 

      Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D. 

      Protocol access to the links of a network.

  • 99. 
    What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
    • A. 

      Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • B. 

      Four GB/S.

    • C. 

      Five GB/S.

    • D. 

      10 GB/S.

  • 100. 
    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
    • A. 

      Printer.

    • B. 

      Scanner.

    • C. 

      Monitor.

    • D. 

      Camera lens.