General Surgery Trivia Quiz! Test

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  • 1/20 Questions

    Not involved in total parenteral nutrition?

    • Proteins
    • Carbohydrates
    • Proteins
    • Fibers
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About This Quiz


Do you know anything about general surgery? Do you imagine you can answer correctly and pass this quiz? General surgeons perform both consultation and surgery on medical conditions involving the breast, endocrine system, gastrointestinal tract, colon, liver, pancreas, and rectum. In most fields, the surgeon will be expected to be competent in diagnosing and treating a myriad of diseases. Taking this quiz will help you see exactly how much you know about general surgery.

General Surgery Trivia Quiz! Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The most common histologic type of thyroid carcinoma?

    • Folicular carcinoma

    • Anaplastic carcinoma

    • Papillary carcinoma

    • Medullary carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Papillary carcinoma
    Explanation
    Papillary carcinoma is the most common histologic type of thyroid carcinoma. It is a well-differentiated tumor that arises from follicular cells and typically has a good prognosis. It is characterized by papillary formations and nuclear features such as nuclear grooves and pseudoinclusions. This type of carcinoma is more common in women and tends to occur in younger individuals. It often presents as a solitary nodule in the thyroid gland and has a high rate of lymph node metastasis. Treatment usually involves surgical removal of the tumor followed by radioactive iodine therapy.

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  • 3. 

    Structures not seen in bronchoscopy?

    • Vocal cords

    • Trachea

    • Subcarinal lymph nodes

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Subcarinal lymph nodes
    Explanation
    Bronchoscopy is a procedure used to examine the airways for any abnormalities or diseases. During bronchoscopy, a flexible tube with a camera is inserted into the airways to visualize the structures. The vocal cords and trachea are easily visible during bronchoscopy as they are located in the upper part of the airways. However, the subcarinal lymph nodes, which are located at the point where the trachea splits into the two main bronchi, are not directly visible during bronchoscopy. Therefore, the correct answer is "Subcarinal lymph nodes."

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  • 4. 

    Some segments resected in the liver to the left of the attachment of falciform ligament. The segments that have been resected are?

    • Segment 1a and 4

    • Segments 2 and 3

    • Segments 1and 3

    • Segments 1 and 4b

    Correct Answer
    A. Segments 2 and 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Segments 2 and 3. The falciform ligament is a fold of peritoneum that attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall. It separates the liver into left and right lobes. Resection to the left of the attachment of the falciform ligament would involve removing segments 2 and 3, which are located in the left lobe of the liver. Segments 1a and 4 are located in the right lobe and would not be affected by resection to the left of the falciform ligament. Segments 1 and 4b are also located in the right lobe and would not be resected in this scenario.

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  • 5. 

    An abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonly occurs due to?

    • Atherosclerosis

    • Vasculitis

    • Syphilis

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. Atherosclerosis
    Explanation
    An abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonly occurs due to atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries. This plaque can weaken the walls of the aorta and cause it to bulge or balloon out, forming an aneurysm. Atherosclerosis is a progressive condition that can lead to the narrowing and hardening of the arteries, increasing the risk of aneurysm formation. Vasculitis and syphilis can also contribute to the development of abdominal aortic aneurysms, but they are less common causes compared to atherosclerosis.

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  • 6. 

    If a patient needs mechanical ventilation tubes used in tracheostomy are?

    • Fenestrated

    • Cuffed

    • Un cuffed

    • Laryngeal mask airway

    Correct Answer
    A. Cuffed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Cuffed." When a patient requires mechanical ventilation, cuffed tracheostomy tubes are used. These tubes have an inflatable cuff that creates a seal in the trachea, preventing air leakage and ensuring that the air goes directly into the lungs. This helps in maintaining proper ventilation and preventing aspiration of fluids or secretions. Fenestrated tracheostomy tubes have an opening to allow speech, but they are not suitable for mechanical ventilation. Uncuffed tracheostomy tubes do not have an inflatable cuff and are used when the patient can breathe independently. Laryngeal mask airway is a different type of airway device used for temporary ventilation.

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  • 7. 

    Acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis caused by?

    • E.Coli E.Coli

    • Staphylococcus

    • Both

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. E.Coli E.Coli
    Explanation
    Acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and infection of the peritoneum, which is the lining of the abdominal cavity. E.Coli is a common cause of this condition, as it can enter the peritoneal cavity through various means such as perforated organs or surgical procedures. Staphylococcus is also a possible cause, but in this case, only E.Coli is mentioned as the cause, so it is the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for?

    • Anerysmal bone cyst

    • Pleimorphic adenoma

    • Papillary carcinoma thyroid

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Anerysmal bone cyst
    Explanation
    Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) is a diagnostic procedure that involves inserting a thin needle into a suspicious area to extract cells for examination under a microscope. It is not suitable for aneurysmal bone cysts because these cysts contain blood-filled spaces and are composed of fibrous tissue and reactive bone. The aspirated material may not provide enough representative cells for accurate diagnosis. Therefore, other imaging techniques or surgical biopsy may be required for the definitive diagnosis of aneurysmal bone cysts.

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  • 9. 

    Non absorbable suture?

    • Polypropylene

    • Vicryl

    • Catgut

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Polypropylene
    Explanation
    Polypropylene is a non-absorbable suture material commonly used in surgeries. It is made from a synthetic polymer that is resistant to degradation in the body. This type of suture is ideal for situations where long-term support is needed, as it maintains its strength for an extended period of time. Polypropylene sutures are commonly used in procedures such as hernia repairs and cardiovascular surgeries. Vicryl and Catgut, on the other hand, are absorbable sutures that break down over time and are eventually absorbed by the body.

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  • 10. 

    Follicular carcinoma best differentiated from follicular adenoma by?

    • Clinical features

    • Dysplastic features

    • Vascular invasion

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Vascular invasion
    Explanation
    Follicular carcinoma can be best differentiated from follicular adenoma by the presence of vascular invasion. While clinical features and dysplastic features can provide some information, the presence of vascular invasion is a more definitive characteristic of follicular carcinoma. Vascular invasion refers to the invasion of blood vessels by cancer cells, indicating a higher likelihood of malignancy. Therefore, the presence of vascular invasion is a key differentiating factor between follicular carcinoma and follicular adenoma.

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  • 11. 

    All true except?

    • Hematoma seen after hemithyroidectomy

    • Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy seen after hemitjyroidectomy

    • Hypocalcemia seen after hemithyroidectomy

    • Digastric muscle is a land mark for facial nerve during parotid surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypocalcemia seen after hemithyroidectomy
    Explanation
    Hypocalcemia is not typically seen after hemithyroidectomy. This is because the parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium levels in the body, are usually preserved during the surgery. However, there is a risk of damage to the parathyroid glands during the procedure, which can lead to hypocalcemia. Nonetheless, it is not a common occurrence. The other options mentioned, such as hematoma, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, and the digastric muscle as a landmark for facial nerve during parotid surgery, are all potential complications or anatomical landmarks associated with the respective procedures.

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  • 12. 

    Renal calculi where more proteus infection is seen?

    • Triple phosphate

    • Uric acid

    • Calcium oxalate

    • Cysteine

    Correct Answer
    A. Triple phosphate
    Explanation
    Triple phosphate, also known as struvite, is a type of renal calculi that is commonly associated with proteus infection. Proteus bacteria produce urease, an enzyme that breaks down urea into ammonia, leading to an alkaline urine pH. This alkaline environment promotes the formation of triple phosphate stones. These stones are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals and are often found in individuals with urinary tract infections caused by proteus bacteria. Therefore, the presence of proteus infection is more commonly associated with triple phosphate stones.

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  • 13. 

    Are stones hard to break by ESWL?

    • Calcium oxalate monohydrate

    • Calcium oxalate dihydrate

    • Both

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
    Explanation
    Calcium oxalate monohydrate is a type of kidney stone that is known for being particularly hard and difficult to break. This type of stone is resistant to Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL), which is a non-invasive procedure used to break up kidney stones using shock waves. Therefore, stones made of calcium oxalate monohydrate are hard to break by ESWL.

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  • 14. 

    All are true except?

    • Insular type is a histologic variant of thyroid neoplasm

    • Lymphoma of thyroid is more common in females

    • Best prognostic factor of head injury is age

    • CEA is a marker for pagets disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Best prognostic factor of head injury is age
    Explanation
    Age is not the best prognostic factor for head injury. Prognostic factors for head injury include Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, pupillary response, and presence of intracranial hemorrhage. Age can have an impact on the outcome of head injury, but it is not considered the best prognostic factor.

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  • 15. 

    Penetrating neck injury is defined by?

    • 4 cm depth wound

    • Injury to carotid

    • Breach of platysma

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. Breach of platysma
    Explanation
    Penetrating neck injury is defined by the breach of the platysma. The platysma is a superficial muscle in the neck, and if it is breached, it indicates that the injury has penetrated through the layers of the neck. This can be a serious condition as it may involve damage to vital structures such as blood vessels, nerves, or the airway. Therefore, identifying a breach of the platysma is crucial in diagnosing and managing penetrating neck injuries.

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  • 16. 

    TRISS(Trauma and injury severity score) includes?

    • RTS plus ISS plus age

    • GCS Plus BP

    • Both

    • GCS plus ISS

    Correct Answer
    A. RTS plus ISS plus age
    Explanation
    TRISS (Trauma and Injury Severity Score) is a scoring system used to assess the severity of trauma and predict patient outcomes. It includes the Revised Trauma Score (RTS), Injury Severity Score (ISS), and the patient's age. The RTS evaluates the patient's physiological response to trauma based on their Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), systolic blood pressure (BP), and respiratory rate. The ISS measures the severity of injuries in six body regions. By combining these scores with the patient's age, the TRISS provides a comprehensive assessment of trauma severity and helps predict patient outcomes.

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  • 17. 

    Prognosis after subarachnoid hemorrhage is assessed by?

    • Glassgow coma scale

    • Subarachnoid hemorrhage score

    • Hess and Hunt scale

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. Hess and Hunt scale
    Explanation
    The Hess and Hunt scale is used to assess the prognosis after subarachnoid hemorrhage. This scale evaluates the severity of the hemorrhage based on the patient's level of consciousness, motor deficits, and presence of cranial nerve palsies. It provides a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition and helps in predicting the outcome and determining the appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as the Glasgow coma scale and subarachnoid hemorrhage score, may be used to evaluate specific aspects of the patient's condition but do not provide a complete prognosis assessment like the Hess and Hunt scale.

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  • 18. 

    In laryngocele, laryngeal mucosa herniates through?

    • Thyrohyoid

    • Cricothyroid

    • Cricotracheal

    • Hyosternal

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyrohyoid
    Explanation
    In laryngocele, the laryngeal mucosa herniates through the thyrohyoid. This means that the lining of the larynx protrudes through the thyrohyoid membrane, which is a fibrous membrane located between the thyroid cartilage and the hyoid bone. This herniation can lead to the formation of a laryngocele, which is a cystic dilation of the laryngeal saccule.

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  • 19. 

    Common cyst seen in spleen?

    • Splenic capsular cyst

    • Cystic hygroma

    • Hydatid cyst

    • Dermoid cyst

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydatid cyst
    Explanation
    A hydatid cyst is a common cyst that can be seen in the spleen. It is caused by the larval stage of a tapeworm called Echinococcus. The cyst is filled with fluid and contains the tapeworm larvae. It can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and enlargement of the spleen. Treatment usually involves surgical removal of the cyst and administration of antiparasitic medications.

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  • 20. 

    Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with?

    • Recurrent abortions

    • Pregnancy induced hypertension

    • Polyhydraminos

    • Premature birth

    Correct Answer
    A. Polyhydraminos
    Explanation
    Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely to be associated with polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can be caused by various factors such as fetal abnormalities or maternal diabetes. However, hypothyroidism does not typically contribute to the development of polyhydramnios. Instead, it is more commonly associated with recurrent abortions, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and premature birth.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 02, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ismayilpkn4
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