General Surgery Trivia Questions! Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 9 | Total Attempts: 22,132
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General Surgery Trivia Questions! Quiz - Quiz


What do you know about general surgery? Do you think you can make the cut and pass this quiz? General surgery is a surgical specialty that focuses on the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, appendix, and bile ducts and sometimes the thyroid gland. General surgery has a plethora of areas; it is concentrated on Take this quiz and put your knowledge about general surgery to the test.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    BRCA gene located in?

    • A.

      Chromosome 9

    • B.

      Chromosome 13

    • C.

      Chromosome 17

    • D.

      Chromosome 22

    Correct Answer
    C. Chromosome 17
    Explanation
    The BRCA gene is located on Chromosome 17. This gene is responsible for producing proteins that help suppress the growth of tumors and repair damaged DNA. Mutations in the BRCA gene can increase the risk of developing breast, ovarian, and other types of cancer. Therefore, it is important to understand the location of this gene in order to study and diagnose genetic disorders related to it.

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  • 2. 

    Medullary carcinoma thyroid is treated by?

    • A.

      Surgery only

    • B.

      Radiotherapy only

    • C.

      Both surgery and radiotherapy

    • D.

      Radiotherapy and chemotherapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgery only
    Explanation
    Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is a rare type of thyroid cancer that originates from the C cells of the thyroid gland. It is typically treated by surgery only. The primary treatment for medullary carcinoma thyroid is the complete removal of the thyroid gland through surgery, known as a total thyroidectomy. This is because the cancer cells tend to spread to nearby lymph nodes and other parts of the body, making surgical removal crucial for effective treatment. Radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be used as additional treatments in some cases, but the mainstay of treatment for medullary carcinoma thyroid is surgery.

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  • 3. 

    CNS infection spreads in the inner ear through?

    • A.

      Internal acousticmeatus

    • B.

      Cochlear aqueduct

    • C.

      Vestibular aqueduct

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Cochlear aqueduct
    Explanation
    The cochlear aqueduct is a small canal that connects the inner ear to the subarachnoid space, which is the space surrounding the brain and spinal cord. This canal allows for the passage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the inner ear and the subarachnoid space. In the case of a CNS infection, the infection can spread through the CSF in the cochlear aqueduct and reach the inner ear. Therefore, the correct answer is the cochlear aqueduct.

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  • 4. 

    Not a complication of tracheostomy?

    • A.

      Carotid artery injury

    • B.

      Subglottic stenosis

    • C.

      Pneumothorax

    • D.

      Necrotising fascitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Subglottic stenosis
    Explanation
    Subglottic stenosis is not a complication of tracheostomy. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure in which an opening is created in the neck to provide an alternate airway. Complications of tracheostomy can include infection, bleeding, damage to nearby structures, and pneumothorax. However, subglottic stenosis, which is the narrowing of the airway below the vocal cords, is not directly related to tracheostomy. It can be caused by various factors such as prolonged intubation or inflammation, but it is not a direct complication of the tracheostomy procedure itself.

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  • 5. 

    Use of Fogarty's catheter?

    • A.

      Removal of blood clot from arteries

    • B.

      Urethral catheterization

    • C.

      For feeding

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of blood clot from arteries
    Explanation
    Fogarty's catheter is commonly used for the removal of blood clots from arteries. This catheter has a balloon-like tip that can be inflated to trap the clot and then withdrawn, effectively removing the clot from the artery. It is a minimally invasive procedure that helps restore blood flow and prevent complications associated with clot obstruction.

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  • 6. 

    Raccoon eye seen in?

    • A.

      Cranial vault hemorrhage

    • B.

      Subgaleal hemorrhage

    • C.

      Anterior cranial fossa fracture

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    C. Anterior cranial fossa fracture
    Explanation
    Raccoon eye refers to the appearance of bruising or discoloration around the eyes. This condition is commonly seen in cases of anterior cranial fossa fracture, which is a type of skull fracture that occurs in the front part of the skull. When the skull is fractured in this area, blood can accumulate around the eyes, causing the characteristic raccoon eye appearance. Cranial vault hemorrhage and subgaleal hemorrhage may also cause bruising, but they are not specifically associated with the raccoon eye presentation. Therefore, the correct answer is anterior cranial fossa fracture.

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  • 7. 

    Not removed in radical neck dissection?

    • A.

      Sternocleidomastoid muscle

    • B.

      Spinal accessory nerve

    • C.

      Internal jugular vein

    • D.

      Phrenic nerve

    Correct Answer
    D. Phrenic nerve
    Explanation
    The phrenic nerve is not removed in radical neck dissection because it is not located in the neck. The phrenic nerve originates from the cervical spine and runs down through the thorax to innervate the diaphragm, which is responsible for breathing. Radical neck dissection involves the removal of lymph nodes and surrounding structures in the neck, but it does not involve the phrenic nerve as it is not within the scope of the procedure.

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  • 8. 

    Barret esophagus shows?

    • A.

      Gastric Dysplasia

    • B.

      Intestinal metaplasia

    • C.

      Squamous metaplasia

    • D.

      Columnar metaplasia

    Correct Answer
    B. Intestinal metaplasia
    Explanation
    Barret esophagus is a condition where the normal squamous epithelium lining of the esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium. This columnar epithelium is a type of metaplasia called intestinal metaplasia, which resembles the lining of the intestines. Therefore, the correct answer is intestinal metaplasia.

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  • 9. 

    True about Hashimoto's thyroiditis all except?

    • A.

      Destruction of folicles

    • B.

      Orphan anie eye nuclei

    • C.

      Oncocytic metaplasia

    • D.

      Lymphocytosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Orphan anie eye nuclei
    Explanation
    Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and destruction of the thyroid gland. It is characterized by the presence of lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytosis, and destruction of follicles. Orphan anie eye nuclei is not a characteristic feature of Hashimoto's thyroiditis. This term is not recognized in medical literature and therefore cannot be considered a true finding in this condition.

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  • 10. 

    Hirschsprung disease occurs due to?

    • A.

      Paralytic ileus

    • B.

      Brain rumour

    • C.

      Neural crest cells fail to migrate from cranial to caudal

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Neural crest cells fail to migrate from cranial to caudal
    Explanation
    Hirschsprung disease occurs when neural crest cells, which are responsible for the migration and development of nerve cells in the intestines, fail to migrate from the cranial (head) to the caudal (tail) end of the intestines during fetal development. This results in a lack of nerve cells in certain parts of the intestines, leading to a blockage and impaired movement of stool. Paralytic ileus and brain tumor are not related to the development of Hirschsprung disease.

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  • 11. 

    Full-thickness graft not obtained from

    • A.

      Axilla

    • B.

      Elbow

    • C.

      Groin

    • D.

      Supraclavicular area

    Correct Answer
    A. Axilla
    Explanation
    Full-thickness graft is a type of skin graft that includes the epidermis and the entire dermis. The axilla, which is the armpit area, is not a suitable donor site for obtaining a full-thickness graft due to the presence of sweat glands and hair follicles. In contrast, the elbow, groin, and supraclavicular area are commonly used as donor sites for full-thickness grafts because they provide a sufficient amount of healthy skin that can be harvested for grafting purposes.

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  • 12. 

    Skip lesions are seen in?

    • A.

      Chrons disease

    • B.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • C.

      Diphtheria

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Chrons disease
    Explanation
    Skip lesions are a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. Skip lesions refer to areas of inflammation that are separated by normal or unaffected segments of the intestine. This pattern of involvement is unique to Crohn's disease and helps to distinguish it from other inflammatory bowel diseases like ulcerative colitis. Diphtheria is not associated with skip lesions.

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  • 13. 

    FNAC needle size

    • A.

      22-26

    • B.

      18-20

    • C.

      10-12

    • D.

      28-30

    Correct Answer
    A. 22-26
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 22-26. This refers to the needle size for FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology). FNAC is a procedure where a thin needle is used to extract cells from a lump or mass in the body for examination. The needle size range of 22-26 is commonly used for FNAC procedures, as it allows for precise and accurate sampling of cells while minimizing discomfort for the patient.

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  • 14. 

    Which fluid should be avoided following surgery or trauma?

    • A.

      Isotonic saline

    • B.

      5% dextrose

    • C.

      Blood

    • D.

      Ringers lactate

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotonic saline
    Explanation
    Isotonic saline should be avoided following surgery or trauma because it can increase the risk of fluid overload. Isotonic saline has the same concentration of salt as the body's cells, so it does not cause a shift of fluid into or out of the cells. However, if large amounts of isotonic saline are administered, it can lead to an excessive volume of fluid in the body, which can strain the heart and other organs. Therefore, other fluids like 5% dextrose, blood, or Ringer's lactate may be preferred in these situations.

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  • 15. 

    The preservative used while packing catgut suture?

    • A.

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • B.

      Colloidal iodine

    • C.

      Gluteraldehyde

    • D.

      Sodium hypochlorite

    Correct Answer
    A. Isopropyl alcohol
    Explanation
    Isopropyl alcohol is used as a preservative while packing catgut suture. Catgut is a type of surgical suture made from the intestines of animals, and it is prone to degradation and bacterial growth. Isopropyl alcohol acts as an antiseptic and preservative, helping to prevent bacterial contamination and maintain the sterility of the sutures. It is commonly used in medical settings for disinfection and preservation purposes.

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  • 16. 

    Gastro-oesophageal reflex diagnosed by?

    • A.

      Oesophagoscopy

    • B.

      Endoscopy

    • C.

      24 hr PH monitoring

    • D.

      Clinical features

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 hr PH monitoring
    Explanation
    24 hr PH monitoring is the most appropriate diagnostic test to diagnose gastro-oesophageal reflux. This test measures the amount of acid that flows back into the esophagus over a 24-hour period. It provides a more accurate and objective assessment of reflux compared to other diagnostic methods. Oesophagoscopy and endoscopy can visualize the esophagus and detect any damage caused by reflux, but they do not directly measure the amount of acid reflux. Clinical features alone may not be sufficient to diagnose gastro-oesophageal reflux as they can be non-specific and overlap with other conditions.

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  • 17. 

    Hematogenous osteomyelitis affects?

    • A.

      Metaphysis of bone

    • B.

      Diaphysis of bone

    • C.

      Epiphysis of bone

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Metaphysis of bone
    Explanation
    Hematogenous osteomyelitis is an infection that spreads through the bloodstream and affects the bone. The infection typically starts in the metaphysis, which is the growing part of the bone located near the joint. This area has a rich blood supply, making it more susceptible to infection. The diaphysis is the shaft of the bone, while the epiphysis is the end of the bone. Although these areas can also be affected by osteomyelitis, the metaphysis is the most common site of infection. Therefore, the correct answer is "Metaphysis of bone."

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 22, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ismayilpkn4
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