Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1

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1. The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces (SF) members is to

Explanation

The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces (SF) members is to help them stay sharp and put their training into practice. This means that the exercises are designed to keep SF members prepared and ready for any security threats they may face. It allows them to maintain their skills and ensure that they are able to effectively respond to any situation that may arise.

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About This Quiz
Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1 - Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 1 is a specialized quiz assessing knowledge on the evolution and roles of military police and security forces within the Air Force from... see more1942 onwards. It focuses on key historical milestones, security protocols, and the significance of specialized insignias and training. see less

2. Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must

Explanation

Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, it is important for the handler to give a verbal warning stating that they are about to release the dog. This verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to ensure the safety of anyone inside the building who may not be aware of the dog's presence. By announcing the release, it allows individuals to evacuate or take necessary precautions to avoid any potential harm or injury. This also helps to prevent any misunderstandings or unnecessary confrontations between the dog and individuals inside the building.

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3. If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should

Explanation

If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, it would be best to allow another investigator to do the interview. This is because a personality conflict can create a biased or uncomfortable environment, which may hinder the interviewer's ability to gather accurate information from the interviewee. Allowing another investigator to take over the interview ensures a fair and unbiased process, increasing the chances of obtaining reliable information.

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4. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This is because AFI 31–117 specifically addresses the guidelines and regulations for arming and using force by Air Force Personnel. It provides the necessary instructions and procedures for apprehending suspects, ensuring that the conduct is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations.

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5.   Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except

Explanation

APS battalions were specifically created to provide security and protection against various threats. They were trained to handle riots, air raids, and parachute attacks, as these are all forms of potential threats that could occur in a conflict or wartime situation. However, light tanks are not typically considered a direct threat to security and protection, as they are primarily used for offensive purposes in a military context. Therefore, APS battalions were not designed to protect against light tanks.

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6.   On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

Explanation

On 1 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This institution was responsible for training and educating air police personnel, equipping them with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties of maintaining security and order on the base. The establishment of the Air Police School at Tyndall AFB played a crucial role in ensuring the safety and protection of the base and its personnel.

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7.   The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash

Explanation

The correct answer explains that the Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. This means that wearing this beret distinguishes the SF personnel as a specialized and highly trained group responsible for the security and protection of the Air Force on a global scale.

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8. Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?

Explanation

Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This operation took place in Panama in 1989 and aimed to remove General Manuel Noriega from power. It involved intense urban combat and showcased the US military's ability to operate effectively in urban environments.

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9. When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?

Explanation

To protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids when conducting individual searches, it is essential to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching. This step ensures that you are aware of any potential risks or hazards before proceeding with the search. By taking this precautionary measure, you can minimize the chances of coming into contact with blood or other body fluids, thereby protecting yourself from potential harm or infection.

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10. Defender's Edge training was developed by

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. defenders for defenders." This means that the Defender's Edge training was created by individuals who are defenders themselves, for the purpose of training and educating other defenders. This suggests that the training program was designed by people who have first-hand experience and knowledge in the field of defense, making it more relevant and effective for the target audience.

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11. Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

Explanation

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is the correct answer because it is a legal document that contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It is a comprehensive set of rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel and covers a wide range of offenses and punishments. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and justice within the military and helps maintain the effectiveness and readiness of the armed forces.

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12. The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer accurately reflects the mission of all Security Forces. They are responsible for protecting and defending their respective organizations, as well as actively engaging in combat when necessary. Their ultimate goal is to ensure the success of Air Force, Joint, and Coalition missions.

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13. The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

Explanation

The correct answer is d. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal. This answer accurately describes the types of jurisdiction found on US government installations. "Exclusive" jurisdiction means that the US government has sole authority over the installation. "Concurrent" jurisdiction means that both the US government and the state or local government have authority over the installation. "Proprietary" jurisdiction means that the US government has control and authority over the installation, similar to private property. "Reciprocal" jurisdiction means that the US government and the host nation government have agreed to share jurisdiction over the installation.

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14. The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

Explanation

The statement suggests that the federal government has the power to enforce laws on installations, but only when it has exclusive jurisdiction. This means that the federal government has complete control and authority over these areas, without any interference from state or local governments. This answer option accurately reflects the concept of exclusive jurisdiction.

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15. In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?

Explanation

In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, the S-3/Operations branch is typically the largest. This is because the S-3 branch is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all operational activities within the unit. This includes planning and executing missions, coordinating training exercises, and ensuring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the unit. As operations are a core function of the SF unit, it is expected that the S-3 branch would have the largest personnel and resources allocation compared to other branches such as S-1/Administration, S-2/Intelligence, and S-4/Logistics.

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16. As a Security Forces member, what is the primary rule in court testimony?

Explanation

The primary rule in court testimony for a Security Forces member is to tell the truth. This is important because providing false or misleading testimony can compromise the integrity of the judicial process and potentially lead to wrongful convictions or acquittals. By telling the truth, Security Forces members uphold their duty to seek justice and ensure a fair trial for all parties involved.

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17. The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against

Explanation

The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects individuals from being forced to incriminate themselves. This means that individuals have the right to remain silent and cannot be compelled to testify against themselves in a criminal case. This protection ensures that individuals are not coerced into providing evidence that could be used against them in court.

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18. What information should leadership brief all personnel on before conducting any exercise?

Explanation

Leadership should brief all personnel on weapon, vehicle, and ground safety before conducting any exercise. This is important to ensure the safety of all individuals involved in the exercise. By providing information on these safety measures, leadership can help prevent accidents, injuries, or damage to equipment during the exercise. This includes guidelines on handling weapons, operating vehicles, and being aware of potential hazards on the ground. Briefing personnel on these safety protocols helps to create a safe and controlled environment for the exercise to take place.

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19. Conducting building checks is an excellent form of

Explanation

Conducting building checks involves regularly inspecting buildings to identify any potential security vulnerabilities or suspicious activities. By doing so, it helps prevent crimes from occurring in the first place, hence the term "proactive crime prevention." This practice allows authorities to take necessary precautions and implement security measures to deter criminals and protect the safety of individuals and properties.

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20. Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released

Explanation

When Air Force personnel are subjects of an investigation, they must be released to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander. This is because these individuals are responsible for overseeing the personnel and handling any disciplinary actions or legal proceedings. Releasing them to their spouse or on their own recognizance may not be appropriate in such situations, as it could potentially interfere with the investigation or compromise the integrity of the process. Releasing them to their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate ensures that the proper chain of command and legal authorities are involved in the investigation.

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21. Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identifications except

Explanation

DBIDS is a system used for biometric identification and it is capable of reading retiree identification cards, dependent identification cards, and Department of Defense-issued identification. However, it is not capable of reading state identification cards.

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22. If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?

Explanation

If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, it is important to have a second investigator present. This is necessary to ensure that the interview is conducted in a fair and unbiased manner. Having a second investigator present can help to provide a different perspective, prevent any potential misconduct or mistreatment, and ensure that the interviewee feels comfortable and supported throughout the process.

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23. As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Explanation

As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to the Code of Conduct and General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides principles and guidelines for SF members to follow in order to maintain their integrity, honor, and loyalty, even in the face of adversity. General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations that SF members must follow to ensure the smooth operation and effectiveness of their missions. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and General Orders, SF members can fulfill their duties and responsibilities effectively, ultimately leading to mission accomplishment.

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24. You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race?

Explanation

If you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race, you have failed to follow the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. This means that your personal biases and prejudices have influenced your decision-making process, which is not acceptable in law enforcement. It is important to treat all individuals fairly and impartially, regardless of their race or any other characteristic.

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25. During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy

Explanation

During the Global War on Terrorism, the need for convoy security became crucial. As a result, the Security Forces (SF) took on the nontraditional task of convoy commander duty. This involved coordinating and leading the convoy, ensuring its safe passage, and protecting it from potential threats. Within this duty, one of the specific responsibilities was to provide escort duty, which involved accompanying and safeguarding the convoy throughout its journey. Therefore, the correct answer is escort duty.

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26. Under concurrent jurisdiction

Explanation

Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government can enforce their laws and regulations within the same geographical area and on the same subject matter. It allows for a sharing of power and responsibilities between the state and federal governments, ensuring that both have the ability to address issues and enforce laws within their respective jurisdictions.

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27. Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

Explanation

The US Army has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government. This is because the Army is the largest branch of the US military and is primarily responsible for land-based operations. During military government, the Army is responsible for maintaining order, providing security, and overseeing the administration of the occupied territory. The Air Force, Coast Guard, and Navy have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but they do not have the primary responsibility for operations and administration during military government.

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28. Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?

Explanation

The position that requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE) is the "critical" position. This means that individuals in this position must demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the verbal/written aspects of their job in order to meet the minimum passing requirement.

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29. What should Security Forces (SF) members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) members should be familiar with the geography of the base prior to being assigned as controllers. This is important because they need to have a clear understanding of the layout of the base in order to effectively carry out their duties. Knowing the geography of the base allows SF members to navigate the area efficiently, respond quickly to incidents, and effectively patrol and secure the premises. It also helps them to familiarize themselves with key locations, such as access points, buildings, and potential security vulnerabilities, which is crucial for maintaining a safe and secure environment.

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30. What is the purpose of call signs?

Explanation

Call signs are used to simplify and clarify communications by providing a unique identifier for individuals or groups. They also serve to make communications more protected by allowing for secure and encrypted communication. Call signs are commonly used in military, aviation, and radio communications to ensure effective and efficient communication between parties.

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31. Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?

Explanation

MAJCOM/DET determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms.

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32. Which is not a required piece of equipment for Security Forces (SF) personnel?

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) personnel are responsible for maintaining security and enforcing regulations in various settings. They require specific equipment to carry out their duties effectively. A flashlight is necessary for illuminating dark areas during patrols or searches. Handcuffs with a key are essential for restraining individuals when necessary. Cold/foul weather gear is crucial to protect SF personnel from extreme weather conditions. However, a commercial radio is not a required piece of equipment for SF personnel as they typically use military-grade communication devices for effective communication within their unit.

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33. Security Forces Management Information System's (SFMIS) users report information only to those with

Explanation

The correct answer is b. a valid need to know. This means that SFMIS users are only allowed to report information to individuals who have a legitimate reason to access that information. This ensures that sensitive and confidential data is only shared with authorized personnel, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of information. This requirement helps maintain the security and integrity of the SFMIS system.

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34. You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I training?

Explanation

Phase II training must be completed within 60 calendar days of completing Phase I training. This indicates that there is a specific timeframe for completing Phase II training after completing Phase I. It is important to adhere to this timeline to ensure that the training is completed in a timely manner.

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35. At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?

Explanation

Significant heat acclimatization requires a minimum of 3 to 5 days. This period allows the body to adapt to the heat and become more efficient at regulating its temperature. Heat acclimatization is crucial in preventing heat injuries, as it allows the body to better tolerate and cope with high temperatures, reducing the risk of heat-related illnesses. A shorter period may not provide enough time for the body to fully adjust, while a longer period may not be necessary for acclimatization.

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36.   Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?

Explanation

Camp Ripley, MN was established as the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp in 1942.

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37. In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?  

Explanation

In 1971, the Security Police was divided into two distinct functions: law enforcement and security specialties. This means that the Security Police department was split into two separate departments, one focusing on enforcing the law and the other specializing in security-related tasks. This division allowed for a more focused and efficient approach to maintaining both law and order and security within the organization.

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38. What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Phoenix Raven Program. This program was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997. The Phoenix Raven Program was established to enhance the security of Air Mobility Command aircraft and personnel during high-risk missions in hostile or sensitive environments. The program trained select Security Forces personnel to provide close-in security for aircraft, crew, and passengers, ensuring their safety and the successful completion of their missions.

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39. The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called

Explanation

Operation ENDURING FREEDOM was the military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001. This operation was aimed at dismantling the Taliban regime in Afghanistan and disrupting terrorist networks. It involved a coalition of forces led by the United States and supported by several other countries. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" suggests the objective of ensuring lasting freedom and stability in Afghanistan by eliminating the threat posed by the Taliban and their allies. This operation was distinct from Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, which was launched in 2003 to overthrow Saddam Hussein's regime in Iraq. Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM and Operation NOBLE EAGLE are not relevant to the context of the question.

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40. As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?

Explanation

In dealing with stress, our closest allies to strengthen our resilience are our team members. Team members provide support, understanding, and encouragement during challenging times. They share similar experiences and can relate to the stressors faced by Security Forces (SF) members. By working together and supporting each other, team members can help build resilience and foster a sense of camaraderie within the SF community.

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41. What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva conventions are international treaties that establish rules and guidelines for the conduct of armed conflicts. These conventions aim to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and the wounded during times of war. They outline the rights and responsibilities of both combatants and non-combatants, and provide regulations for the use of weapons, treatment of prisoners, and the protection of cultural property. The Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is the term used to refer to the body of international law that encompasses these conventions and other related treaties and customary practices.

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42. If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person

Explanation

When a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried either overseas or stateside. This is because military jurisdiction extends to offenses committed by military personnel while they are abroad. The decision on where to hold the trial depends on various factors such as the nature of the offense, the availability of resources, and the agreements between the involved countries. Therefore, the person may face a court-martial either in the country where the offense occurred or back in their home country.

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43. Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?

Explanation

The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately describes our Security Force because the falcon represents agility, speed, and keen eyesight, which are important qualities for security personnel. The crossed runways symbolize control and protection, indicating the Security Force's role in maintaining order and safety within the organization.

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44. Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?

Explanation

The direct approach is primarily used to interrogate because it involves asking straightforward and specific questions to gather information or elicit a response from the person being interviewed. This approach is often used in investigative settings or when time is limited, as it allows for a focused and efficient exchange of information. The direct approach does not involve any manipulation or deception, making it a reliable and transparent method of gathering information.

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45. What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Military." The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is a law that establishes the standards of behavior for members of the Armed Forces. It is specifically designed to address the unique needs and circumstances of the military and governs the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ covers a wide range of offenses and provides a system of military justice that ensures discipline and accountability within the military.

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46. Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

Explanation

If you have doubts concerning rights advisement, you should consult the legal office. They are the experts in providing legal advice and guidance, and they can help clarify any questions or concerns you may have about your rights. The legal office is specifically trained to handle legal matters and can provide the most accurate and up-to-date information regarding rights advisement. Consulting the legal office ensures that you receive the correct and appropriate guidance in relation to your rights.

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47. Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

Explanation

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective psychological deterrent. These dogs are trained to be highly skilled and obedient, which can intimidate potential criminals or adversaries. The presence of a well-trained and disciplined dog can deter individuals from engaging in illegal activities or hostile actions. The psychological aspect of having a military working dog team can create a sense of fear and uncertainty, making it an effective tool in maintaining law and order.

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48. Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called

Explanation

Expeditionary skills training refers to the acquisition of skills, knowledge, and abilities (KSA) that are not typically gained through regular occupational or ancillary training programs. This type of training is designed to prepare individuals for specific tasks and challenges that they may encounter in expeditionary or remote environments. It focuses on developing specialized skills that are necessary for operating in unfamiliar and potentially hostile settings. This type of training is often used in military or emergency response contexts, where individuals need to be prepared for a wide range of scenarios and conditions.

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49. What is your first responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller (IAC)?

Explanation

When assuming the post as an installation access controller (IAC), the first responsibility is to conduct a post changeover. This involves receiving a thorough briefing from the outgoing IAC to understand the current situation and any ongoing issues. It also includes checking all equipment, ensuring it is in working order, and familiarizing oneself with the specific procedures and protocols of the post. This step is crucial to ensure a smooth transition and maintain the security and efficiency of the installation access control.

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50. As a Security Force (SF) member, prior to testifying in court, you should

Explanation

As a Security Force (SF) member, it is important to review the entire case file prior to testifying in court. This is necessary in order to have a clear understanding of the facts and evidence related to the case. Reviewing the case file allows the SF member to refresh their memory and ensure that they are prepared to provide accurate and reliable testimony. It also helps in anticipating any potential questions or challenges that may arise during cross-examination. By reviewing the entire case file, the SF member can ensure that they are well-prepared and able to provide a thorough and credible testimony in court.

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51. Which of the following is not a purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet)?

Explanation

The purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet) is to consolidate programs, maximize efficiency, and reduce resource allocation. Increasing computer usage is not a purpose of SMARTNet. SMARTNet focuses on managing and tracking resources, not on increasing computer usage.

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52. When is a military working dog's (MWD) detection ability more effective?

Explanation

A military working dog's detection ability is more effective during darkness or limited visibility because their heightened senses, particularly their sense of smell, are better suited for detecting threats in low-light conditions. Additionally, their ability to navigate and move stealthily is enhanced during darkness, making them more effective in carrying out their duties.

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53. The military working dog's primary mission is to

Explanation

The military working dog's primary mission is to deter, detect, and detain intruders. This means that the dog's main role is to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering a specific area, identify potential threats or intruders through their sense of smell and other detection methods, and physically restrain or detain them if necessary. This is an important task as it helps to enhance security and protect military personnel and facilities.

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54.   The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?

Explanation

The success of the 1041st SPS (Test) in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP).

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55. Which Uniform Code of Military Justice's (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

Explanation

Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article defines the individuals who fall under the jurisdiction of the military justice system, including members of the armed forces, both active duty and reserve, as well as individuals who have been retired or separated from the military but are still subject to certain provisions of the UCMJ. It also includes civilians accompanying the military, prisoners of war, and individuals who have committed offenses while serving in the military. Therefore, Article 2 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the subject of military jurisdiction.

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56. The goal of any interview is to

Explanation

The goal of any interview is to obtain legally admissible statements. This means that the interviewer aims to gather information and statements from individuals that can be used as evidence in a legal setting. The focus is on ensuring that the statements obtained are valid and can be presented in court if necessary. This is important to ensure that the information gathered is reliable and can be used effectively in legal proceedings.

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57. Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?

Explanation

Private citizens may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law. This means that individuals who are not affiliated with the federal or state government, or civilian companies, have the right to initiate a legal action for a civil wrong committed by a government employee or agency. Private citizens can seek compensation for damages caused by the negligence or wrongful actions of the government, such as personal injury, property damage, or violation of constitutional rights.

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58. Which US military service is the executive agency for Level III corrections?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Army. The Army is the executive agency for Level III corrections in the US military. This means that the Army is responsible for managing and overseeing correctional facilities and programs for military personnel who have committed more serious offenses. The Army has its own system of military justice and is responsible for maintaining discipline and order within its ranks.

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59. National Crime Information Center (NCIC) training must meet

Explanation

The correct answer is a. State and Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) requirements. This is because the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) is a database maintained by the FBI that provides law enforcement agencies with information on wanted persons, stolen property, and other criminal records. Therefore, training on the NCIC would need to meet the requirements set by both the state and the FBI to ensure that law enforcement personnel are properly trained to use the system effectively and in compliance with legal and operational protocols.

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60. When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally

Explanation

During building checks, it is important to have control over the military working dog to ensure the safety of both the dog and the personnel involved. Keeping the dog on a leash allows the handler to maintain control and prevent the dog from wandering off or getting into potentially dangerous situations. It also allows the handler to quickly and effectively direct the dog's movements and actions as needed during the building check.

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61. The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the

Explanation

When approaching buildings, the military working dog team should approach from the downwind side. This is because approaching from the downwind side allows the dog to pick up scents and detect any potential threats or hidden individuals inside the building more effectively. Approaching from the upwind side would cause the dog to be exposed to scents coming from inside the building, which could potentially mask any relevant scents. Approaching from the front side or street side may also expose the team to potential threats or ambushes. Therefore, the downwind side is the most strategic approach in this situation.

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62. Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?

Explanation

Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to the conduct guideline of fulfilling the mission. This means that when interacting with offenders, the focus is on carrying out the objectives and goals of the organization, which includes treating them with respect and dignity. By fulfilling the mission, the organization ensures that offenders are treated fairly and their rights are upheld, promoting a professional and ethical approach to dealing with them.

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63.   In what year was the name of the career field changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police"?

Explanation

In 1966, the name of the career field was changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police".

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64. What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?

Explanation

Blood is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace because it can carry various bloodborne pathogens, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C, which can easily be transmitted through contact with infected blood. In a workplace setting, blood can be present due to accidents, injuries, or medical procedures. It is crucial to handle and dispose of blood properly, use personal protective equipment, and follow proper infection control protocols to prevent the spread of viruses and protect the health and safety of employees.

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65. The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the

Explanation

The stress response system, also known as the fight-or-flight response, is a physiological response to stress. It is regulated by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The sympathetic system prepares the body for action by increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing stress hormones like adrenaline. On the other hand, the parasympathetic system helps the body relax and recover after the stressor has passed by slowing heart rate, constricting blood vessels, and promoting digestion. Therefore, option d, which includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, is the correct answer.

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66. When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

Explanation

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a military government. This type of government is established by the occupying military force in order to maintain control and governance over the occupied territory. It typically involves the imposition of military laws and regulations, as well as the appointment of military officials to oversee the administration of the territory. The purpose of a military government is to ensure stability and security in the occupied territory until a more permanent solution can be reached.

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67. A Stan/Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 12 months. A Stan/Eval inspection is conducted every 12 months in each functional area. This regular inspection ensures that the functional area is meeting the necessary standards and regulations. Conducting inspections at this frequency allows for timely identification of any issues or deficiencies and ensures that corrective actions can be taken promptly. This helps maintain the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the functional area.

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68. If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should

Explanation

If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, it is important to prioritize their well-being and emotional state. Terminating the interview and rescheduling allows the victim time to regain composure and ensures that they are in a better emotional state to continue the interview. Continuing the interview while the victim is upset may not yield accurate or reliable information, and could potentially cause further distress to the victim.

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69. What "S" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members?

Explanation

The "S-3" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members.

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70. What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt. This form is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis. It serves as a record of the transfer of the firearm from the issuing authority to the individual who received it. This form includes information such as the type of firearm, serial number, and the signature of both the issuing authority and the recipient. It is an important document for tracking and accountability purposes.

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71. What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols use?

Explanation

Walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols typically use portable hand-held radios. These radios are designed to be easily carried and operated while on the move, making them ideal for mobile personnel. They provide two-way communication capabilities, allowing patrols to stay in contact with each other and with a central base station. Hand and arm signals and base station remotes are not typically used by these patrols, and while a base station may be used for communication purposes, it is not the primary type of radio used by patrols. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Portable hand-held radio.

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72. Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must

Explanation

Military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This is because in these situations, the dogs need to have the freedom to move and perform their duties effectively. Keeping them on a leash in other situations helps to ensure their safety and the safety of others around them.

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73. What are the types of interview approaches?

Explanation

The types of interview approaches are direct, indirect, and alternating. Direct interviews involve straightforward questioning and immediate responses from the interviewee. Indirect interviews focus on gathering information through observations and non-verbal cues. Alternating interviews involve switching between direct and indirect approaches to gather comprehensive information.

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74. What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?

Explanation

The trainee must attend the SF craftsman resident course in order to be awarded the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071.

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75. The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confinees is the operational responsibility of the

Explanation

The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confinees is the operational responsibility of the Installation commander and defense force commander. This means that these individuals are in charge of ensuring that confinees are treated with dignity and respect while incarcerated. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing procedures that promote humane treatment and ensure the well-being of confinees. This includes providing appropriate living conditions, access to medical care, and addressing any complaints or issues that may arise during confinement.

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76.   In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?

Explanation

In 1957, the Air Force approved the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield. This suggests that before 1957, there was no official security police shield in place.

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77. The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on

Explanation

The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the need for a revised doctrine that focused on protecting an entire military base rather than just individual weapons systems or aircraft. A whole-base protective system would encompass various measures to defend the entire base, including perimeter security, anti-aircraft defenses, and measures to counter ground attacks. This approach recognizes the importance of safeguarding the entire base as a cohesive unit, rather than relying solely on the protection of individual components.

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78. Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is

Explanation

Employee work practices are the specific procedures that individuals must follow on the job to reduce their risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. This can include practices such as proper hand hygiene, using appropriate personal protective equipment, following safe needle disposal protocols, and adhering to infection control measures. These practices are essential in minimizing the risk of transmission and ensuring a safe working environment for employees.

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79. In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?

Explanation

The S-5/Plans and Programs branch is responsible for maintaining the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). This branch focuses on developing and implementing plans and programs within the Security Forces unit. They are in charge of managing the SFMIS, which is a system used to gather and analyze data related to security forces operations. This information is crucial for making informed decisions and improving the overall effectiveness of the unit.

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80. Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?

Explanation

Article 92 (2) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives Security Forces (SF) members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article specifically addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations and states that any person who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, as an SF member, it is important to understand and follow the guidelines outlined in Article 92 (2) to ensure the proper execution of duties and maintain discipline within the military.

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81. Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/Eval program? 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Security forces manager. The overall management of the Stan/Eval program is the responsibility of the Security forces manager. This role is specifically tasked with overseeing the program and ensuring its effectiveness and compliance with regulations. The Defense force commander, Operations commander, and Flight commander may have other responsibilities within the organization, but the Security forces manager is specifically responsible for the Stan/Eval program.

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82. Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?

Explanation

The Bioenvironmental Engineering Section is responsible for routinely testing firing ranges for amounts of lead. This section specializes in assessing and managing environmental risks and hazards, including the monitoring and control of pollutants such as lead. They have the expertise and equipment necessary to conduct regular testing and ensure that lead levels are within acceptable limits at firing ranges. The other options, Base Hazardous Waste Section, Bioenvironmental Waste Section, and Bioenvironmental Health Section, do not specifically mention the testing of firing ranges for lead, making them less likely to be responsible for this task.

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83. Individuals awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as

Explanation

Individuals who are awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as pretrial detainees. This means that they have been arrested or detained but have not yet been convicted of any crime. They are held in custody until their trial or until the charges against them are resolved. This designation is used to distinguish them from individuals who have already been convicted and sentenced (post-trial confinees) or individuals who are on standby for possible detention (stand-by detainees). Therefore, the correct answer is a. pretrial detainees.

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84. What are the two types of martial law?   

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Qualified and absolute. Martial law refers to the imposition of military control over a civilian population. Qualified martial law is when certain civil liberties and legal procedures are still upheld, while absolute martial law involves the suspension of these rights and complete military control. This explanation provides a clear understanding of the two types of martial law without explicitly stating the correct answer.

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85. What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFSFC. AFSFC, which stands for Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSFC), is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG). This office is specifically tasked with managing the spectrum of frequencies used by the Air Force and ensuring efficient and effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum. They develop and publish guidelines and procedures to ensure proper management and utilization of electronic resources.

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86. Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?

Explanation

Victims are normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation. They have firsthand knowledge and experience of the incident, making their testimony crucial in understanding the events that took place. By interviewing victims, investigators can gather information about the sequence of events, identify potential suspects, and uncover any additional evidence that may assist in solving the case. Victims' statements can provide valuable insight and help establish a timeline, motive, and potential leads for further investigation.

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87. What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Explanation

AF Form 1297 is the correct answer because it is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form, also known as the Temporary Issue Receipt, is used to document the temporary transfer of firearms and other equipment to individuals for a specific purpose or period of time. It ensures accountability and tracks the temporary possession of firearms by personnel.

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88. When conducting a building check, what is the first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?

Explanation

If you find a building with signs of forced entry during a building check, the first step you should take is to take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building. This is the safest course of action as it allows you to assess the situation and gather information without putting yourself at unnecessary risk. It also provides an opportunity to observe any suspicious activity or potential threats before taking further action.

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89. What Security Forces (SF) unit conducted the career field's first combat parachute assault?

Explanation

The correct answer is 786th SFS. This unit conducted the career field's first combat parachute assault.

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90. Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military working dog detect and respond to intruders?

Explanation

Under ideal conditions, the average military working dog can detect and respond to intruders at a distance of 250 yards or more. This means that the dog's senses and training enable it to detect and react to potential threats at a greater distance than the other options provided.

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91. Who is responsible to ensure personnel are Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) trained? a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Training. b. Staff judge advocate (SJA). c. Unit training manager (UTM). d. Installation defense force commander (DFC).

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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92. Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as

Explanation

The correct answer is d. FOUO Law Enforcement sensitive. This means that access to the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data is restricted and classified as sensitive information for law enforcement purposes. The data contains confidential information related to crime and criminal records, and therefore, it is important to limit access to authorized personnel in the law enforcement community to maintain its integrity and protect individual privacy.

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93. You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapon(s)?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Five to seven. This means that after completing qualification training on your primary weapon(s), you must complete live-fire sustainment training within a period of five to seven months. This training is important to maintain proficiency and ensure that soldiers are adequately prepared to use their primary weapons in combat situations.

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94. Which type of training is considered universal training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code?

Explanation

Ancillary training is considered universal training regardless of an individual's Air Force Specialty code. Ancillary training refers to the basic training that all members of the Air Force must undergo, regardless of their specific job or specialty. It covers topics such as physical fitness, basic military skills, and general knowledge about the Air Force. This type of training ensures that all members are equipped with essential skills and knowledge needed to serve in the Air Force, regardless of their specific role or specialty.

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95. In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on

Explanation

When determining whether an individual is a suspect, it is important to rely on objective evidence such as circumstances and facts, witness statements, and reliable information. Basing this decision on personal opinion and belief can introduce bias and may not be supported by concrete evidence. It is crucial to use reliable sources and factual information to make an informed decision about a suspect.

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96. Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?

Explanation

The custody classification assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision is medium. This means that they are considered to have a moderate level of security risk and are allowed limited freedom of movement under supervision.

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97. Which confinement facility (CF) or joint regional correctional facility (JRCF) is used to house all male confinees with sentences over 10 years?

Explanation

Level 2 CF is the correct answer because it is the confinement facility or joint regional correctional facility (JRCF) used to house all male confinees with sentences over 10 years. The other options, Level 1 RCF, Level 1 CF, and Level 3 CF, do not specifically mention housing male confinees with sentences over 10 years.

Submit
98. What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Complete and frisk. In confinement facilities, there are two types of searches that are commonly used. The first type is a complete search, which involves thoroughly checking every area and item within the facility to ensure that there are no prohibited or dangerous items present. The second type is a frisk search, which involves a quick and less thorough search of an individual's person to check for any hidden items. These two types of searches are essential for maintaining safety and security within confinement facilities.

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99. Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the

Explanation

Localized training alarm monitors are responsible for monitoring and responding to alarms within a specific area or location. As such, any equipment or devices used by these monitors must be approved by the major command. The major command is the higher level of authority that oversees and coordinates the activities of multiple installations or units. They have the final say in approving equipment and ensuring that it meets the necessary standards and requirements for use in training alarm monitoring. The installation commander, operations officer, and Chief, Security Forces may have input or involvement in the approval process, but the ultimate decision lies with the major command.

Submit
100. Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

Explanation

When military authority completely replaces civil authority, it is referred to as absolute martial law. This means that the military has full control and power over the governance and decision-making processes, without any involvement or influence from civilian institutions or authorities.

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