Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 168

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Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?
    • A. 

      Kelly Field, TX.

    • B. 

      Tinker Field, OK.

    • C. 

      Camp Ripley, MN.

    • D. 

       Camp Lajeune, NC.

  • 2. 
     Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except
    • A. 

      Riots

    • B. 

      Air raids

    • C. 

      Light tanks

    • D. 

      Parachute attacks

  • 3. 
     On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
    • A. 

      Air Police School

    • B. 

      Air Leaders School

    • C. 

      Corp Training Office

    • D. 

      Base Defense Academy

  • 4. 
     In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1950

    • D. 

      1957

  • 5. 
     The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash
    • A. 

      Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel.

    • B. 

      Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression.

    • C. 

      Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.

    • D. 

       is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War.

  • 6. 
     In what year was the name of the career field changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police"?
    • A. 

      1985

    • B. 

      1971

    • C. 

      1966

    • D. 

      1950

  • 7. 
     The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?
    • A. 

      The 1041st SPS (Test).

    • B. 

      The 4110th SPS (Test).

    • C. 

      The 1401st SPS.

    • D. 

      The 1140th SPS.

  • 8. 
    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on
    • A. 

      Weapons systems protective concept.

    • B. 

      Aircraft protection system concept.

    • C. 

      Air base defense protective system.

    • D. 

      Whole-base protective system.

  • 9. 
    In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?  
    • A. 

      Police dog units and law enforcement specialties

    • B. 

      Law enforcement and security specialties

    • C. 

      Security and force protection elements

    • D. 

      Security teams and security elements.

  • 10. 
    Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?
    • A. 

      Operation NORIEGA.

    • B. 

      Operation URGENT FURY.

    • C. 

      Operation FREE PANAMA.

    • D. 

      Operation JUST CAUSE.

  • 11. 
    What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?
    • A. 

      Rising Sun Program.

    • B. 

      Noble Eagle Program.

    • C. 

      Flying Falcon Program.

    • D. 

      Phoenix Raven Program.

  • 12. 
    The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called
    • A. 

      Operation ENDURING FREEDOM.

    • B. 

      Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM.

    • C. 

      Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.

    • D. 

      Operation NOBLE EAGLE.

  • 13. 
    During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy
    • A. 

      Commander duty.

    • B. 

      Response duty

    • C. 

      Escort duty

    • D. 

      Driver duty.

  • 14. 
    What Security Forces (SF) unit conducted the career field’s first combat parachute assault?
    • A. 

      343rd SFS.

    • B. 

      786th SFS.

    • C. 

      1041st SPS.

    • D. 

      1140th SPS.

  • 15. 
    The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to
    • A. 

      Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded.

    • B. 

      Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills.

    • C. 

      Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders.

    • D. 

      Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.

  • 16. 
    Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?
    • A. 

      Falcon over crossed runways.

    • B. 

      Eagle over crossed runways.

    • C. 

      Falcon over crossed swords.

    • D. 

      Eagle over crossed swords.

  • 17. 
    In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?
    • A. 

      S–1/Administration.

    • B. 

      S–2/Intelligence.

    • C. 

      S–3/Operations.

    • D. 

      S–4/Logistics

  • 18. 
    In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?
    • A. 

      S–1/Administration

    • B. 

      S–2/Intelligence.

    • C. 

      S–4/Operations.

    • D. 

      S–5/Plans and Programs.

  • 19. 
    What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?
    • A. 

      Security Forces (SF) leader’s course.

    • B. 

      Supply manager’s course.

    • C. 

      SF craftsman resident course.

    • D. 

      Security superintendent non-resident course.

  • 20. 
    As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct only.

    • B. 

      SF General Orders only.

    • C. 

      Performance Fitness Examination.

    • D. 

      Code of Conduct and General Orders.

  • 21. 
    Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?
    • A. 

      Fulfilling the mission.

    • B. 

      B. Personal appearance.

    • C. 

      C. Off-duty conduct.

    • D. 

      D. Attention to duty.

  • 22. 
    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator’s race?
    • A. 

      Seeking favors.

    • B. 

      B. Exercising authority.

    • C. 

      C. Assistance to others.

    • D. 

      D. Personal attitudes.

  • 23. 
    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to
    • A. 

      AFI 31–301, Air Base Defense.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 31–205, The Air Force Corrections Program.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 31–206, Security Forces Investigation Program.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.

  • 24. 
    At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?
    • A. 

      1 to 2

    • B. 

      3 to 5

    • C. 

      6 to 8

    • D. 

      9 to 10

  • 25. 
    Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?
    • A. 

      A. Bioenvironmental Engineering Section.

    • B. 

      b. Base Hazardous Waste Section.

    • C. 

      C. Bioenvironmental Waste Section

    • D. 

      D. Bioenvironmental Health Section.

  • 26. 
    What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?
    • A. 

      Sweat

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Syringes

    • D. 

      Foreign fluids

  • 27. 
    Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is
    • A. 

      Engineering controls.

    • B. 

      b. employee work practices.

    • C. 

      c. personal protective equipment usage.

    • D. 

      D. housekeeping guidelines.

  • 28. 
    When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?
    • A. 

      A. Search for weapons first.

    • B. 

      B. Always, begin your search at the front pocket.

    • C. 

      C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.

    • D. 

      D. Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer.

  • 29. 
    Defender’s Edge training was developed by
    • A. 

      A. defenders for defenders.

    • B. 

      B. medical professionals for defenders.

    • C. 

      C. base services for all AF personnel.

    • D. 

      D. base operations for all AF personnel.

  • 30. 
    The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the
    • A. 

      A. digestive and intestinal systems.

    • B. 

      B. immune and psychological systems.

    • C. 

      C. psychological and emotional systems.

    • D. 

      D. sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

  • 31. 
    As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?
    • A. 

      A. Chaplains.

    • B. 

      B. Team members.

    • C. 

      C. Family members.

    • D. 

      D. Medical personnel.

  • 32. 
    Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • B. 

      B. US Constitution.

    • C. 

      C. Federal statutes.

    • D. 

      D. International law.

  • 33. 
    What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?
    • A. 

      A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC).

    • B. 

      B. Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes.

    • C. 

      C. Rules of Engagement (ROE).

    • D. 

      D. Rules of war.

  • 34. 
    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice’s (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
    • A. 

      A. Article 77.

    • B. 

      B. Article 5.

    • C. 

      C. Article 2.

    • D. 

      D. Article 1.

  • 35. 
    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person
    • A. 

      A. must be tried overseas.

    • B. 

      B. is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • C. 

      C. can be tried overseas or stateside.

    • D. 

      D. may choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority.

  • 36. 
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
    • A. 

      A. concurrent, current, proprietary.

    • B. 

      B. exclusive, bilateral, concurrent.

    • C. 

      C. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral.

    • D. 

      D. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal.

  • 37. 
    The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations
    • A. 

      A. when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.

    • B. 

      B. when partial jurisdiction exists.

    • C. 

      C. under proprietary jurisdiction.

    • D. 

      D. located in overseas areas.

  • 38. 
    Under concurrent jurisdiction
    • A. 

      A. state laws are not enforced.

    • B. 

      B. the state has property rights only.

    • C. 

      C. the federal government has no authority.

    • D. 

      D. both the state and federal government have authority.

  • 39. 
    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
    • A. 

      A. proprietary government.

    • B. 

      B. military government.

    • C. 

      C. nationalist regime.

    • D. 

      D. military state.

  • 40. 
    Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force.

    • B. 

      B. Coast Guard.

    • C. 

      C. Army.

    • D. 

      D. Navy.

  • 41. 
    What are the two types of martial law?   
    • A. 

      A. Qualified and absolute.

    • B. 

      B. Absolute and unqualified.

    • C. 

      C. Qualified and concurrent.

    • D. 

      D. Exclusive and absolute.

  • 42. 
    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
    • A. 

      A. Military law.

    • B. 

      B. Exclusive.

    • C. 

      c. Qualified.

    • D. 

      D. Absolute.

  • 43. 
    What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)? 
    • A. 

      A. Military.

    • B. 

      B. Martial.

    • C. 

      C. Executive.

    • D. 

      D. Concurrent.

  • 44. 
    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?
    • A. 

      Article 2 (2)

    • B. 

      B. Article 5.

    • C. 

      C. Article 92 (2).

    • D. 

      D. Article 134.

  • 45. 
    Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?
    • A. 

      A. Federal government.

    • B. 

      B. State government.

    • C. 

      C. Civilian companies.

    • D. 

      D. Private citizens.

  • 46. 
    In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on
    • A. 

      A. circumstances and facts.

    • B. 

      B. witnesses and statements.

    • C. 

      C. hearsay and rumors.

    • D. 

      D. opinion and belief.

  • 47. 
    Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?
    • A. 

      A. The legal office.

    • B. 

      B. The Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) office.

    • C. 

      C. The base commander.

    • D. 

      D. A Security Forces investigator.

  • 48. 
    The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against
    • A. 

      A. self-inspection.

    • B. 

      B. self-infliction.

    • C. 

      C. self-incrimination.

    • D. 

      D. self-determination.

  • 49. 
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
    • A. 

      A. psychological deterrent.

    • B. 

      B. mobile flight-line force multiplier.

    • C. 

      C. base defense detection capability.

    • D. 

      D. replacement for base sensor systems.

  • 50. 
    When is a military working dog’s (MWD) detection ability more effective?
    • A. 

      A. First thing in the morning.

    • B. 

      b. Thirty minutes after every meal.

    • C. 

      C. During the day in very busy areas.

    • D. 

      D. During darkness or limited visibility.

  • 51. 
    When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally
    • A. 

      A. on leash.

    • B. 

      B. off leash.

    • C. 

      C. on long leash.

    • D. 

      D. left in the vehicle.

  • 52. 
    The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the
    • A. 

      A. front side or street side.

    • B. 

      B. crosswind direction.

    • C. 

      C. downwind side.

    • D. 

      D. upwind side.

  • 53. 
    Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military working dog detect and respond to intruders?
    • A. 

      A. 100 yards.

    • B. 

      B. 150 yards.

    • C. 

      C. 200 yards or less.

    • D. 

      D. 250 yards or more.

  • 54. 
    The military working dog’s primary mission is to
    • A. 

      A. deter, detect, and detain intruders.

    • B. 

      B. provide a psychological deterrent.

    • C. 

      C. search vehicles and buildings.

    • D. 

      D. act as back up on all calls.

  • 55. 
    Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
    • A. 

      A. search occupied buildings.

    • B. 

      B. bite and hold multiple witnesses.

    • C. 

      C. search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds.

    • D. 

      D. bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building.

  • 56. 
    Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must
    • A. 

      A. give a verbal warning stating you are about to release the dog.

    • B. 

      B. loudly announce your intentions to order the dog to bite.

    • C. 

      C. place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • D. 

      D. have the dog bark three times.

  • 57. 
    If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should
    • A. 

      A. allow another investigator to do the interview.

    • B. 

      B. find out why the interviewee does not like him or her.

    • C. 

      c. continue with the interview.

    • D. 

      D. threaten the interviewee.

  • 58. 
    If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?
    • A. 

      A. Have a second investigator present.

    • B. 

      B. Reschedule when a same sex SF is available.

    • C. 

      C. Continue the interview alone.

    • D. 

      D. Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable.

  • 59. 
    Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
    • A. 

      A. Suspects.

    • B. 

      B. Victims.

    • C. 

      C. Witnesses.

    • D. 

      d. Prosecutors.

  • 60. 
    The goal of any interview is to
    • A. 

      A. obtain statements by all means possible.

    • B. 

      B. to obtain legally admissible statements.

    • C. 

      C. interrogating suspects into confessions.

    • D. 

      D. to gain written statements.

  • 61. 
    What are the types of interview approaches?
    • A. 

      A. Reverse, direct, indirect.

    • B. 

      B. Direct, indirect, and reverse.

    • C. 

      C. Indirect, alternating, and straight.

    • D. 

      D. Direct, indirect, and alternating.

  • 62. 
    Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?
    • A. 

      A. Direct approach.

    • B. 

      b. Indirect approach.

    • C. 

      C. Alternating approach.

    • D. 

      D. Good cop - Bad cop approach.

  • 63. 
    If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should
    • A. 

      A. call the staff judge advocate.

    • B. 

      B. get some tissues and continue.

    • C. 

      C. wait an hour and continue.

    • D. 

      d. terminate and reschedule.

  • 64. 
    Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released
    • A. 

      A. to their spouse.

    • B. 

      B. on their own recognizance.

    • C. 

      c. to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander.

    • D. 

      D. to their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate.

  • 65. 
    As a Security Forces member, what is the primary rule in court testimony?
    • A. 

      A. Ensure your opinion is heard and justice is served.

    • B. 

      B. Make sure the accused goes to jail.

    • C. 

      C. Make sure your testimony sounds real.

    • D. 

      D. Tell the truth.

  • 66. 
    As a Security Force (SF) member, prior to testifying in court, you should
    • A. 

      A. review the entire case file.

    • B. 

      B. contact your lawyer for information.

    • C. 

      C. wait for the trail to begin before preparing.

    • D. 

      D. take some leave to clear your mind and get prepared.

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is not a purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet)?
    • A. 

      A. Consolidate programs.

    • B. 

      B. Maximize efficiency.

    • C. 

      C. Increase computer usage.

    • D. 

      D. Reduce resource allocation.

  • 68. 
    What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG)?
    • A. 

      A. AFSFC.

    • B. 

      B. SFCFM.

    • C. 

      C. SFCEM.

    • D. 

      D. AFSFS.

  • 69. 
    What "S" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members?
    • A. 

      A. S–1.

    • B. 

      B. S–2

    • C. 

      C. S–3

    • D. 

      D. S–4

  • 70. 
    Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identifications except
    • A. 

      A. state identification cards.

    • B. 

      B. retiree identifications cards.

    • C. 

      C. dependent identification cards.

    • D. 

      D. Department of Defense-issued identification.

  • 71. 
    Who is responsible to ensure personnel are Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) trained? a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Training. b. Staff judge advocate (SJA). c. Unit training manager (UTM). d. Installation defense force commander (DFC).
    • A. 

      A. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Training.

    • B. 

      B. Staff judge advocate (SJA).

    • C. 

      C. Unit training manager (UTM).

    • D. 

      D. Installation defense force commander (DFC).

  • 72. 
    Security Forces Management Information System’s (SFMIS) users report information only to those with
    • A. 

      A. a security clearance.

    • B. 

      B. a valid need to know.

    • C. 

      C. appropriate credentials.

    • D. 

      D. a vested interest in the case.

  • 73. 
    National Crime Information Center (NCIC) training must meet
    • A. 

      A. state and Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) requirements.

    • B. 

      B. installation and major command (MAJCOM) requirements.

    • C. 

      C. Security Forces Center and Air Force Office of Investigative (AFOSI) requirements.

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Office of Investigative Services (AFOIS) requirements.

  • 74. 
    Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as
    • A. 

      A. For Official Use Only (FOUO) Department of Defense classified.

    • B. 

      B. FOUO Department of Defense sensitive.

    • C. 

      C. FOUO Law Enforcement classified.

    • D. 

      D. FOUO Law Enforcement sensitive.

  • 75. 
    You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I training?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 76. 
    Which type of training is considered universal training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code?
    • A. 

      A. Ancillary.

    • B. 

      B. On-the-job.

    • C. 

      C. Special skills.

    • D. 

      D. Collective skills.

  • 77. 
    Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called
    • A. 

      A. expeditionary skills training.

    • B. 

      B. collective skills training.

    • C. 

      C. individual skills training.

    • D. 

      D. battlefield skills training.

  • 78. 
    You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapon(s)?
    • A. 

      A. One to three.

    • B. 

      B. Three to six.

    • C. 

      C. Five to seven.

    • D. 

      D. Six to twelve.

  • 79. 
    Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/Eval program? 
    • A. 

      A. Defense force commander.

    • B. 

      B. Security forces manager.

    • C. 

      C. Operations commander

    • D. 

      D. Flight commander.

  • 80. 
    A Stan/Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every
    • A. 

      A. 48 months.

    • B. 

      B. 24 months.

    • C. 

      C. 12 months.

    • D. 

      d. 6 months.

  • 81. 
    Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?
    • A. 

      A. Urgent.

    • B. 

      B. Critical.

    • C. 

      C. Necessary.

    • D. 

      D. Mandatory.

  • 82. 
    The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces (SF) members is to
    • A. 

      A. help them pass the time during duty hours.

    • B. 

      B. have them practice their hand-to-hand combat training.

    • C. 

      c. help them stay sharp and put their training into practice.

    • D. 

      D. have them demonstrate their ability to keep the installation secure.

  • 83. 
    What information should leadership brief all personnel on before conducting any exercise?
    • A. 

      A. Location of the exercise.

    • B. 

      B. Type of scenarios being evaluated.

    • C. 

      C. How long the exercise will take.

    • D. 

      D. Weapon, vehicle, and ground safety.

  • 84. 
    What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 626, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 627, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 628, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

  • 85. 
    What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 522.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 629.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 797.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1297.

  • 86. 
    What should Security Forces (SF) members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?
    • A. 

      A. Squadron leadership.

    • B. 

      b. Geography of the base.

    • C. 

      C. Local law enforcement.

    • D. 

      D. Installation operating hours.

  • 87. 
    What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols use?
    • A. 

      A. Hand and arm signals and base station remote.

    • B. 

      B. Portable hand held radio.

    • C. 

      C. Mobile two-way radio.

    • D. 

      D. Base station.

  • 88. 
    What is the purpose of call signs?
    • A. 

      A. To return entire transmission back to sender.

    • B. 

      B. For use as an order, a request, or as information.

    • C. 

      C. To separate the text from other portions of the message.

    • D. 

      D. To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected.

  • 89. 
    Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the
    • A. 

      A. installation commander.

    • B. 

      B. operations officer.

    • C. 

      C. major command.

    • D. 

      D. Chief, Security Forces.

  • 90. 
    Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?
    • A. 

      A. MAJCOM/DET.

    • B. 

      B. AFSFC/DET.

    • C. 

      C. AFDFC/A7R.

    • D. 

      D. USAFA/A7S.

  • 91. 
    Conducting building checks is an excellent form of
    • A. 

      A. exercise.

    • B. 

      B. in processing.

    • C. 

      C. intelligence gathering.

    • D. 

      D. proactive crime prevention.

  • 92. 
    When conducting a building check, what is the first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?
    • A. 

      A. Contact the Base Defense Operations Center BDOC and inform the controller of the incident.

    • B. 

      B. Take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building.

    • C. 

      C. Enter the building and conduct a room-to-room search for suspects.

    • D. 

      D. Make contact with the on-duty K9 patrol and initiate an off-leash search.

  • 93. 
    What is your first responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller (IAC)?
    • A. 

      A. Conduct a post changeover.

    • B. 

      b. Test your radio and duress system.

    • C. 

      C. Call Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) and tell them you have arrived.

    • D. 

      d. Change the radio station, store your gear, and relax.

  • 94. 
    Which is not a required piece of equipment for Security Forces (SF) personnel?
    • A. 

      A. Flashlight.

    • B. 

      B. Commercial radio.

    • C. 

      C. Handcuffs with key.

    • D. 

      D. Cold/foul weather gear.

  • 95. 
    Which confinement facility (CF) or joint regional correctional facility (JRCF) is used to house all male confinees with sentences over 10 years?
    • A. 

      A. Level 1 RCF.

    • B. 

      B. Level 1 CF.

    • C. 

      C. Level 2 CF.

    • D. 

      D. Level 3 CF.

  • 96. 
    Which US military service is the executive agency for Level III corrections?
    • A. 

      A. Naval Brigade.

    • B. 

      B. Marine Corps.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force.

    • D. 

      D. Army.

  • 97. 
    The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confinees is the operational responsibility of the
    • A. 

      A. Wing commander.

    • B. 

      B. Security Forces manager.

    • C. 

      C. Chief, Security Forces.

    • D. 

      D. Installation commander and defense force commander.

  • 98. 
    Individuals awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as
    • A. 

      A. pretrial detainees.

    • B. 

      B. pretrial convicts.

    • C. 

      C. post-trial confinees.

    • D. 

      D. stand-by detainees.

  • 99. 
    Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?
    • A. 

      A. Trustee.

    • B. 

      B. Minimum.

    • C. 

      C. Maximum.

    • D. 

      D. Medium.

  • 100. 
    What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?
    • A. 

      A. Complete and frisk.

    • B. 

      B. Simple and complete.

    • C. 

      C. Initial and simple.

    • D. 

      D. Complete and modest frisks.