Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

     Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except

    • Riots
    • Air raids
    • Light tanks
    • Parachute attacks
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About This Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 1 is a specialized quiz assessing knowledge on the evolution and roles of military police and security forces within the Air Force from 1942 onwards. It focuses on key historical milestones, security protocols, and the significance of specialized insignias and training.

Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

     On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

    • Air Police School

    • Air Leaders School

    • Corp Training Office

    • Base Defense Academy

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Police School
    Explanation
    On 1 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This institution was responsible for training and educating air police personnel, equipping them with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties of maintaining security and order on the base. The establishment of the Air Police School at Tyndall AFB played a crucial role in ensuring the safety and protection of the base and its personnel.

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  • 3. 

     The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash

    • Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel.

    • Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression.

    • Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.

    •  is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that the Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. This means that wearing this beret distinguishes the SF personnel as a specialized and highly trained group responsible for the security and protection of the Air Force on a global scale.

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  • 4. 

    Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?

    • Operation NORIEGA.

    • Operation URGENT FURY.

    • Operation FREE PANAMA.

    • Operation JUST CAUSE.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation JUST CAUSE.
    Explanation
    Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This operation took place in Panama in 1989 and aimed to remove General Manuel Noriega from power. It involved intense urban combat and showcased the US military's ability to operate effectively in urban environments.

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  • 5. 

    The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to

    • Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded.

    • Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills.

    • Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders.

    • Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer accurately reflects the mission of all Security Forces. They are responsible for protecting and defending their respective organizations, as well as actively engaging in combat when necessary. Their ultimate goal is to ensure the success of Air Force, Joint, and Coalition missions.

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  • 6. 

    In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?

    • S–1/Administration.

    • S–2/Intelligence.

    • S–3/Operations.

    • S–4/Logistics

    Correct Answer
    A. S–3/Operations.
    Explanation
    In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, the S-3/Operations branch is typically the largest. This is because the S-3 branch is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all operational activities within the unit. This includes planning and executing missions, coordinating training exercises, and ensuring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the unit. As operations are a core function of the SF unit, it is expected that the S-3 branch would have the largest personnel and resources allocation compared to other branches such as S-1/Administration, S-2/Intelligence, and S-4/Logistics.

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  • 7. 

    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to

    • AFI 31–301, Air Base Defense.

    • B. AFI 31–205, The Air Force Corrections Program.

    • C. AFI 31–206, Security Forces Investigation Program.

    • D. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This is because AFI 31–117 specifically addresses the guidelines and regulations for arming and using force by Air Force Personnel. It provides the necessary instructions and procedures for apprehending suspects, ensuring that the conduct is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations.

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  • 8. 

    When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?

    • A. Search for weapons first.

    • B. Always, begin your search at the front pocket.

    • C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.

    • D. Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.
    Explanation
    To protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids when conducting individual searches, it is essential to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching. This step ensures that you are aware of any potential risks or hazards before proceeding with the search. By taking this precautionary measure, you can minimize the chances of coming into contact with blood or other body fluids, thereby protecting yourself from potential harm or infection.

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  • 9. 

    Defender’s Edge training was developed by

    • A. defenders for defenders.

    • B. medical professionals for defenders.

    • C. base services for all AF personnel.

    • D. base operations for all AF personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. defenders for defenders.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a. defenders for defenders." This means that the Defender's Edge training was created by individuals who are defenders themselves, for the purpose of training and educating other defenders. This suggests that the training program was designed by people who have first-hand experience and knowledge in the field of defense, making it more relevant and effective for the target audience.

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  • 10. 

    Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

    • A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • B. US Constitution.

    • C. Federal statutes.

    • D. International law.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
    Explanation
    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is the correct answer because it is a legal document that contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It is a comprehensive set of rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel and covers a wide range of offenses and punishments. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and justice within the military and helps maintain the effectiveness and readiness of the armed forces.

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  • 11. 

    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

    • A. concurrent, current, proprietary.

    • B. exclusive, bilateral, concurrent.

    • C. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral.

    • D. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal. This answer accurately describes the types of jurisdiction found on US government installations. "Exclusive" jurisdiction means that the US government has sole authority over the installation. "Concurrent" jurisdiction means that both the US government and the state or local government have authority over the installation. "Proprietary" jurisdiction means that the US government has control and authority over the installation, similar to private property. "Reciprocal" jurisdiction means that the US government and the host nation government have agreed to share jurisdiction over the installation.

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  • 12. 

    The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

    • A. when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.

    • B. when partial jurisdiction exists.

    • C. under proprietary jurisdiction.

    • D. located in overseas areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that the federal government has the power to enforce laws on installations, but only when it has exclusive jurisdiction. This means that the federal government has complete control and authority over these areas, without any interference from state or local governments. This answer option accurately reflects the concept of exclusive jurisdiction.

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  • 13. 

    The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against

    • A. self-inspection.

    • B. self-infliction.

    • C. self-incrimination.

    • D. self-determination.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. self-incrimination.
    Explanation
    The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects individuals from being forced to incriminate themselves. This means that individuals have the right to remain silent and cannot be compelled to testify against themselves in a criminal case. This protection ensures that individuals are not coerced into providing evidence that could be used against them in court.

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  • 14. 

    Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must

    • A. give a verbal warning stating you are about to release the dog.

    • B. loudly announce your intentions to order the dog to bite.

    • C. place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • D. have the dog bark three times.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. give a verbal warning stating you are about to release the dog.
    Explanation
    Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, it is important for the handler to give a verbal warning stating that they are about to release the dog. This verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to ensure the safety of anyone inside the building who may not be aware of the dog's presence. By announcing the release, it allows individuals to evacuate or take necessary precautions to avoid any potential harm or injury. This also helps to prevent any misunderstandings or unnecessary confrontations between the dog and individuals inside the building.

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  • 15. 

    If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should

    • A. allow another investigator to do the interview.

    • B. find out why the interviewee does not like him or her.

    • c. continue with the interview.

    • D. threaten the interviewee.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. allow another investigator to do the interview.
    Explanation
    If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, it would be best to allow another investigator to do the interview. This is because a personality conflict can create a biased or uncomfortable environment, which may hinder the interviewer's ability to gather accurate information from the interviewee. Allowing another investigator to take over the interview ensures a fair and unbiased process, increasing the chances of obtaining reliable information.

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  • 16. 

    As a Security Forces member, what is the primary rule in court testimony?

    • A. Ensure your opinion is heard and justice is served.

    • B. Make sure the accused goes to jail.

    • C. Make sure your testimony sounds real.

    • D. Tell the truth.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Tell the truth.
    Explanation
    The primary rule in court testimony for a Security Forces member is to tell the truth. This is important because providing false or misleading testimony can compromise the integrity of the judicial process and potentially lead to wrongful convictions or acquittals. By telling the truth, Security Forces members uphold their duty to seek justice and ensure a fair trial for all parties involved.

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  • 17. 

    The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces (SF) members is to

    • A. help them pass the time during duty hours.

    • B. have them practice their hand-to-hand combat training.

    • c. help them stay sharp and put their training into practice.

    • D. have them demonstrate their ability to keep the installation secure.

    Correct Answer
    A. c. help them stay sharp and put their training into practice.
    Explanation
    The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces (SF) members is to help them stay sharp and put their training into practice. This means that the exercises are designed to keep SF members prepared and ready for any security threats they may face. It allows them to maintain their skills and ensure that they are able to effectively respond to any situation that may arise.

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  • 18. 

    Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released

    • A. to their spouse.

    • B. on their own recognizance.

    • c. to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander.

    • D. to their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate.

    Correct Answer
    A. c. to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander.
    Explanation
    When Air Force personnel are subjects of an investigation, they must be released to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander. This is because these individuals are responsible for overseeing the personnel and handling any disciplinary actions or legal proceedings. Releasing them to their spouse or on their own recognizance may not be appropriate in such situations, as it could potentially interfere with the investigation or compromise the integrity of the process. Releasing them to their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate ensures that the proper chain of command and legal authorities are involved in the investigation.

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  • 19. 

    Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identifications except

    • A. state identification cards.

    • B. retiree identifications cards.

    • C. dependent identification cards.

    • D. Department of Defense-issued identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. state identification cards.
    Explanation
    DBIDS is a system used for biometric identification and it is capable of reading retiree identification cards, dependent identification cards, and Department of Defense-issued identification. However, it is not capable of reading state identification cards.

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  • 20. 

    What information should leadership brief all personnel on before conducting any exercise?

    • A. Location of the exercise.

    • B. Type of scenarios being evaluated.

    • C. How long the exercise will take.

    • D. Weapon, vehicle, and ground safety.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Weapon, vehicle, and ground safety.
    Explanation
    Leadership should brief all personnel on weapon, vehicle, and ground safety before conducting any exercise. This is important to ensure the safety of all individuals involved in the exercise. By providing information on these safety measures, leadership can help prevent accidents, injuries, or damage to equipment during the exercise. This includes guidelines on handling weapons, operating vehicles, and being aware of potential hazards on the ground. Briefing personnel on these safety protocols helps to create a safe and controlled environment for the exercise to take place.

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  • 21. 

    Conducting building checks is an excellent form of

    • A. exercise.

    • B. in processing.

    • C. intelligence gathering.

    • D. proactive crime prevention.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. proactive crime prevention.
    Explanation
    Conducting building checks involves regularly inspecting buildings to identify any potential security vulnerabilities or suspicious activities. By doing so, it helps prevent crimes from occurring in the first place, hence the term "proactive crime prevention." This practice allows authorities to take necessary precautions and implement security measures to deter criminals and protect the safety of individuals and properties.

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  • 22. 

    During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy

    • Commander duty.

    • Response duty

    • Escort duty

    • Driver duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Escort duty
    Explanation
    During the Global War on Terrorism, the need for convoy security became crucial. As a result, the Security Forces (SF) took on the nontraditional task of convoy commander duty. This involved coordinating and leading the convoy, ensuring its safe passage, and protecting it from potential threats. Within this duty, one of the specific responsibilities was to provide escort duty, which involved accompanying and safeguarding the convoy throughout its journey. Therefore, the correct answer is escort duty.

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  • 23. 

    As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

    • Code of Conduct only.

    • SF General Orders only.

    • Performance Fitness Examination.

    • Code of Conduct and General Orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Code of Conduct and General Orders.
    Explanation
    As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to the Code of Conduct and General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides principles and guidelines for SF members to follow in order to maintain their integrity, honor, and loyalty, even in the face of adversity. General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations that SF members must follow to ensure the smooth operation and effectiveness of their missions. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and General Orders, SF members can fulfill their duties and responsibilities effectively, ultimately leading to mission accomplishment.

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  • 24. 

    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator’s race?

    • Seeking favors.

    • B. Exercising authority.

    • C. Assistance to others.

    • D. Personal attitudes.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Personal attitudes.
    Explanation
    If you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race, you have failed to follow the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. This means that your personal biases and prejudices have influenced your decision-making process, which is not acceptable in law enforcement. It is important to treat all individuals fairly and impartially, regardless of their race or any other characteristic.

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  • 25. 

    Under concurrent jurisdiction

    • A. state laws are not enforced.

    • B. the state has property rights only.

    • C. the federal government has no authority.

    • D. both the state and federal government have authority.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. both the state and federal government have authority.
    Explanation
    Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government can enforce their laws and regulations within the same geographical area and on the same subject matter. It allows for a sharing of power and responsibilities between the state and federal governments, ensuring that both have the ability to address issues and enforce laws within their respective jurisdictions.

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  • 26. 

    Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

    • A. Air Force.

    • B. Coast Guard.

    • C. Army.

    • D. Navy.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Army.
    Explanation
    The US Army has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government. This is because the Army is the largest branch of the US military and is primarily responsible for land-based operations. During military government, the Army is responsible for maintaining order, providing security, and overseeing the administration of the occupied territory. The Air Force, Coast Guard, and Navy have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but they do not have the primary responsibility for operations and administration during military government.

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  • 27. 

    If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?

    • A. Have a second investigator present.

    • B. Reschedule when a same sex SF is available.

    • C. Continue the interview alone.

    • D. Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Have a second investigator present.
    Explanation
    If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, it is important to have a second investigator present. This is necessary to ensure that the interview is conducted in a fair and unbiased manner. Having a second investigator present can help to provide a different perspective, prevent any potential misconduct or mistreatment, and ensure that the interviewee feels comfortable and supported throughout the process.

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  • 28. 

    Security Forces Management Information System’s (SFMIS) users report information only to those with

    • A. a security clearance.

    • B. a valid need to know.

    • C. appropriate credentials.

    • D. a vested interest in the case.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a valid need to know.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. a valid need to know. This means that SFMIS users are only allowed to report information to individuals who have a legitimate reason to access that information. This ensures that sensitive and confidential data is only shared with authorized personnel, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of information. This requirement helps maintain the security and integrity of the SFMIS system.

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  • 29. 

    You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I training?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Phase II training must be completed within 60 calendar days of completing Phase I training. This indicates that there is a specific timeframe for completing Phase II training after completing Phase I. It is important to adhere to this timeline to ensure that the training is completed in a timely manner.

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  • 30. 

    Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?

    • A. Urgent.

    • B. Critical.

    • C. Necessary.

    • D. Mandatory.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Critical.
    Explanation
    The position that requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE) is the "critical" position. This means that individuals in this position must demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the verbal/written aspects of their job in order to meet the minimum passing requirement.

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  • 31. 

    What should Security Forces (SF) members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?

    • A. Squadron leadership.

    • b. Geography of the base.

    • C. Local law enforcement.

    • D. Installation operating hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. b. Geography of the base.
    Explanation
    Security Forces (SF) members should be familiar with the geography of the base prior to being assigned as controllers. This is important because they need to have a clear understanding of the layout of the base in order to effectively carry out their duties. Knowing the geography of the base allows SF members to navigate the area efficiently, respond quickly to incidents, and effectively patrol and secure the premises. It also helps them to familiarize themselves with key locations, such as access points, buildings, and potential security vulnerabilities, which is crucial for maintaining a safe and secure environment.

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  • 32. 

    What is the purpose of call signs?

    • A. To return entire transmission back to sender.

    • B. For use as an order, a request, or as information.

    • C. To separate the text from other portions of the message.

    • D. To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected.
    Explanation
    Call signs are used to simplify and clarify communications by providing a unique identifier for individuals or groups. They also serve to make communications more protected by allowing for secure and encrypted communication. Call signs are commonly used in military, aviation, and radio communications to ensure effective and efficient communication between parties.

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  • 33. 

    Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?

    • A. MAJCOM/DET.

    • B. AFSFC/DET.

    • C. AFDFC/A7R.

    • D. USAFA/A7S.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. MAJCOM/DET.
    Explanation
    MAJCOM/DET determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms.

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  • 34. 

    Which is not a required piece of equipment for Security Forces (SF) personnel?

    • A. Flashlight.

    • B. Commercial radio.

    • C. Handcuffs with key.

    • D. Cold/foul weather gear.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Commercial radio.
    Explanation
    Security Forces (SF) personnel are responsible for maintaining security and enforcing regulations in various settings. They require specific equipment to carry out their duties effectively. A flashlight is necessary for illuminating dark areas during patrols or searches. Handcuffs with a key are essential for restraining individuals when necessary. Cold/foul weather gear is crucial to protect SF personnel from extreme weather conditions. However, a commercial radio is not a required piece of equipment for SF personnel as they typically use military-grade communication devices for effective communication within their unit.

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  • 35. 

     Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?

    • Kelly Field, TX.

    • Tinker Field, OK.

    • Camp Ripley, MN.

    •  Camp Lajeune, NC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Camp Ripley, MN.
    Explanation
    Camp Ripley, MN was established as the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp in 1942.

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  • 36. 

    In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?  

    • Police dog units and law enforcement specialties

    • Law enforcement and security specialties

    • Security and force protection elements

    • Security teams and security elements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Law enforcement and security specialties
    Explanation
    In 1971, the Security Police was divided into two distinct functions: law enforcement and security specialties. This means that the Security Police department was split into two separate departments, one focusing on enforcing the law and the other specializing in security-related tasks. This division allowed for a more focused and efficient approach to maintaining both law and order and security within the organization.

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  • 37. 

    What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?

    • Rising Sun Program.

    • Noble Eagle Program.

    • Flying Falcon Program.

    • Phoenix Raven Program.

    Correct Answer
    A. Phoenix Raven Program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Phoenix Raven Program. This program was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997. The Phoenix Raven Program was established to enhance the security of Air Mobility Command aircraft and personnel during high-risk missions in hostile or sensitive environments. The program trained select Security Forces personnel to provide close-in security for aircraft, crew, and passengers, ensuring their safety and the successful completion of their missions.

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  • 38. 

    The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called

    • Operation ENDURING FREEDOM.

    • Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM.

    • Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.

    • Operation NOBLE EAGLE.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation ENDURING FREEDOM.
    Explanation
    Operation ENDURING FREEDOM was the military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001. This operation was aimed at dismantling the Taliban regime in Afghanistan and disrupting terrorist networks. It involved a coalition of forces led by the United States and supported by several other countries. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" suggests the objective of ensuring lasting freedom and stability in Afghanistan by eliminating the threat posed by the Taliban and their allies. This operation was distinct from Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, which was launched in 2003 to overthrow Saddam Hussein's regime in Iraq. Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM and Operation NOBLE EAGLE are not relevant to the context of the question.

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  • 39. 

    Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?

    • Falcon over crossed runways.

    • Eagle over crossed runways.

    • Falcon over crossed swords.

    • Eagle over crossed swords.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falcon over crossed runways.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately describes our Security Force because the falcon represents agility, speed, and keen eyesight, which are important qualities for security personnel. The crossed runways symbolize control and protection, indicating the Security Force's role in maintaining order and safety within the organization.

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  • 40. 

    At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?

    • 1 to 2

    • 3 to 5

    • 6 to 8

    • 9 to 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 to 5
    Explanation
    Significant heat acclimatization requires a minimum of 3 to 5 days. This period allows the body to adapt to the heat and become more efficient at regulating its temperature. Heat acclimatization is crucial in preventing heat injuries, as it allows the body to better tolerate and cope with high temperatures, reducing the risk of heat-related illnesses. A shorter period may not provide enough time for the body to fully adjust, while a longer period may not be necessary for acclimatization.

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  • 41. 

    As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?

    • A. Chaplains.

    • B. Team members.

    • C. Family members.

    • D. Medical personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Team members.
    Explanation
    In dealing with stress, our closest allies to strengthen our resilience are our team members. Team members provide support, understanding, and encouragement during challenging times. They share similar experiences and can relate to the stressors faced by Security Forces (SF) members. By working together and supporting each other, team members can help build resilience and foster a sense of camaraderie within the SF community.

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  • 42. 

    What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?

    • A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC).

    • B. Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes.

    • C. Rules of Engagement (ROE).

    • D. Rules of war.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva conventions are international treaties that establish rules and guidelines for the conduct of armed conflicts. These conventions aim to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and the wounded during times of war. They outline the rights and responsibilities of both combatants and non-combatants, and provide regulations for the use of weapons, treatment of prisoners, and the protection of cultural property. The Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is the term used to refer to the body of international law that encompasses these conventions and other related treaties and customary practices.

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  • 43. 

    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person

    • A. must be tried overseas.

    • B. is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • C. can be tried overseas or stateside.

    • D. may choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. can be tried overseas or stateside.
    Explanation
    When a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried either overseas or stateside. This is because military jurisdiction extends to offenses committed by military personnel while they are abroad. The decision on where to hold the trial depends on various factors such as the nature of the offense, the availability of resources, and the agreements between the involved countries. Therefore, the person may face a court-martial either in the country where the offense occurred or back in their home country.

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  • 44. 

    What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)? 

    • A. Military.

    • B. Martial.

    • C. Executive.

    • D. Concurrent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Military.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a. Military." The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is a law that establishes the standards of behavior for members of the Armed Forces. It is specifically designed to address the unique needs and circumstances of the military and governs the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ covers a wide range of offenses and provides a system of military justice that ensures discipline and accountability within the military.

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  • 45. 

    Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

    • A. The legal office.

    • B. The Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) office.

    • C. The base commander.

    • D. A Security Forces investigator.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The legal office.
    Explanation
    If you have doubts concerning rights advisement, you should consult the legal office. They are the experts in providing legal advice and guidance, and they can help clarify any questions or concerns you may have about your rights. The legal office is specifically trained to handle legal matters and can provide the most accurate and up-to-date information regarding rights advisement. Consulting the legal office ensures that you receive the correct and appropriate guidance in relation to your rights.

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  • 46. 

    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

    • A. psychological deterrent.

    • B. mobile flight-line force multiplier.

    • C. base defense detection capability.

    • D. replacement for base sensor systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. psychological deterrent.
    Explanation
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective psychological deterrent. These dogs are trained to be highly skilled and obedient, which can intimidate potential criminals or adversaries. The presence of a well-trained and disciplined dog can deter individuals from engaging in illegal activities or hostile actions. The psychological aspect of having a military working dog team can create a sense of fear and uncertainty, making it an effective tool in maintaining law and order.

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  • 47. 

    Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?

    • A. Direct approach.

    • b. Indirect approach.

    • C. Alternating approach.

    • D. Good cop - Bad cop approach.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Direct approach.
    Explanation
    The direct approach is primarily used to interrogate because it involves asking straightforward and specific questions to gather information or elicit a response from the person being interviewed. This approach is often used in investigative settings or when time is limited, as it allows for a focused and efficient exchange of information. The direct approach does not involve any manipulation or deception, making it a reliable and transparent method of gathering information.

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  • 48. 

    As a Security Force (SF) member, prior to testifying in court, you should

    • A. review the entire case file.

    • B. contact your lawyer for information.

    • C. wait for the trail to begin before preparing.

    • D. take some leave to clear your mind and get prepared.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. review the entire case file.
    Explanation
    As a Security Force (SF) member, it is important to review the entire case file prior to testifying in court. This is necessary in order to have a clear understanding of the facts and evidence related to the case. Reviewing the case file allows the SF member to refresh their memory and ensure that they are prepared to provide accurate and reliable testimony. It also helps in anticipating any potential questions or challenges that may arise during cross-examination. By reviewing the entire case file, the SF member can ensure that they are well-prepared and able to provide a thorough and credible testimony in court.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is not a purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet)?

    • A. Consolidate programs.

    • B. Maximize efficiency.

    • C. Increase computer usage.

    • D. Reduce resource allocation.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Increase computer usage.
    Explanation
    The purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet) is to consolidate programs, maximize efficiency, and reduce resource allocation. Increasing computer usage is not a purpose of SMARTNet. SMARTNet focuses on managing and tracking resources, not on increasing computer usage.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 13, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Rapsonnel
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