Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 754

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1/100 Questions

Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?
- Kelly Field, TX.
- Tinker Field, OK.
- Camp Ripley, MN.
- Camp Lajeune, NC.

About This Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 1 is a specialized quiz assessing knowledge on the evolution and roles of military police and security forces within the Air Force from 1942 onwards. It focuses on key historical milestones, security protocols, and the significance of specialized insignias and training.

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2.

Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except
- Riots
- Air raids
- Light tanks
- Parachute attacks
Correct Answer

A. Light tanks

Explanation

APS battalions were specifically created to provide security and protection against various threats. They were trained to handle riots, air raids, and parachute attacks, as these are all forms of potential threats that could occur in a conflict or wartime situation. However, light tanks are not typically considered a direct threat to security and protection, as they are primarily used for offensive purposes in a military context. Therefore, APS battalions were not designed to protect against light tanks.

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3.

On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
- Air Police School
- Air Leaders School
- Corp Training Office
- Base Defense Academy
Correct Answer

A. Air Police School

Explanation

On 1 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This institution was responsible for training and educating air police personnel, equipping them with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties of maintaining security and order on the base. The establishment of the Air Police School at Tyndall AFB played a crucial role in ensuring the safety and protection of the base and its personnel.

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4.

In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?
- 1943
- 1945
- 1950
- 1957
Correct Answer

A. 1957

Explanation

In 1957, the Air Force approved the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield. This suggests that before 1957, there was no official security police shield in place.

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5.

The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash
- Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel.
- Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression.
- Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.
- is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War.
Correct Answer

A. Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.

Explanation

The correct answer explains that the Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. This means that wearing this beret distinguishes the SF personnel as a specialized and highly trained group responsible for the security and protection of the Air Force on a global scale.

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6.

In what year was the name of the career field changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police"?
- 1985
- 1971
- 1966
- 1950
Correct Answer

A. 1966

Explanation

In 1966, the name of the career field was changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police".

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7.

The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?
- The 1041st SPS (Test).
- The 4110th SPS (Test).
- The 1401st SPS.
- The 1140th SPS.
Correct Answer

A. The 1041st SPS (Test).

Explanation

The success of the 1041st SPS (Test) in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP).

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8.

The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on
- Weapons systems protective concept.
- Aircraft protection system concept.
- Air base defense protective system.
- Whole-base protective system.
Correct Answer

A. Whole-base protective system.

Explanation

The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the need for a revised doctrine that focused on protecting an entire military base rather than just individual weapons systems or aircraft. A whole-base protective system would encompass various measures to defend the entire base, including perimeter security, anti-aircraft defenses, and measures to counter ground attacks. This approach recognizes the importance of safeguarding the entire base as a cohesive unit, rather than relying solely on the protection of individual components.

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9.

In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?
- Police dog units and law enforcement specialties
- Law enforcement and security specialties
- Security and force protection elements
- Security teams and security elements.
Correct Answer

A. Law enforcement and security specialties

Explanation

In 1971, the Security Police was divided into two distinct functions: law enforcement and security specialties. This means that the Security Police department was split into two separate departments, one focusing on enforcing the law and the other specializing in security-related tasks. This division allowed for a more focused and efficient approach to maintaining both law and order and security within the organization.

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10.

Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?
- Operation NORIEGA.
- Operation URGENT FURY.
- Operation FREE PANAMA.
- Operation JUST CAUSE.
Correct Answer

A. Operation JUST CAUSE.

Explanation

Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This operation took place in Panama in 1989 and aimed to remove General Manuel Noriega from power. It involved intense urban combat and showcased the US military's ability to operate effectively in urban environments.

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11.

What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?
- Rising Sun Program.
- Noble Eagle Program.
- Flying Falcon Program.
- Phoenix Raven Program.
Correct Answer

A. Phoenix Raven Program.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Phoenix Raven Program. This program was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997. The Phoenix Raven Program was established to enhance the security of Air Mobility Command aircraft and personnel during high-risk missions in hostile or sensitive environments. The program trained select Security Forces personnel to provide close-in security for aircraft, crew, and passengers, ensuring their safety and the successful completion of their missions.

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12.

The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called
- Operation ENDURING FREEDOM.
- Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM.
- Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.
- Operation NOBLE EAGLE.
Correct Answer

A. Operation ENDURING FREEDOM.

Explanation

Operation ENDURING FREEDOM was the military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001. This operation was aimed at dismantling the Taliban regime in Afghanistan and disrupting terrorist networks. It involved a coalition of forces led by the United States and supported by several other countries. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" suggests the objective of ensuring lasting freedom and stability in Afghanistan by eliminating the threat posed by the Taliban and their allies. This operation was distinct from Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, which was launched in 2003 to overthrow Saddam Hussein's regime in Iraq. Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM and Operation NOBLE EAGLE are not relevant to the context of the question.

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13.

During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy
- Commander duty.
- Response duty
- Escort duty
- Driver duty.
Correct Answer

A. Escort duty

Explanation

During the Global War on Terrorism, the need for convoy security became crucial. As a result, the Security Forces (SF) took on the nontraditional task of convoy commander duty. This involved coordinating and leading the convoy, ensuring its safe passage, and protecting it from potential threats. Within this duty, one of the specific responsibilities was to provide escort duty, which involved accompanying and safeguarding the convoy throughout its journey. Therefore, the correct answer is escort duty.

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14.

What Security Forces (SF) unit conducted the career field’s first combat parachute assault?
- 343rd SFS.
- 786th SFS.
- 1041st SPS.
- 1140th SPS.
Correct Answer

A. 786th SFS.

Explanation

The correct answer is 786th SFS. This unit conducted the career field's first combat parachute assault.

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15.

The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to
- Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded.
- Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills.
- Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders.
- Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.
Correct Answer

A. Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success.

Explanation

The correct answer is "protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer accurately reflects the mission of all Security Forces. They are responsible for protecting and defending their respective organizations, as well as actively engaging in combat when necessary. Their ultimate goal is to ensure the success of Air Force, Joint, and Coalition missions.

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16.

Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?
- Falcon over crossed runways.
- Eagle over crossed runways.
- Falcon over crossed swords.
- Eagle over crossed swords.
Correct Answer

A. Falcon over crossed runways.

Explanation

The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately describes our Security Force because the falcon represents agility, speed, and keen eyesight, which are important qualities for security personnel. The crossed runways symbolize control and protection, indicating the Security Force's role in maintaining order and safety within the organization.

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17.

In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?
- S–1/Administration.
- S–2/Intelligence.
- S–3/Operations.
- S–4/Logistics
Correct Answer

A. S–3/Operations.

Explanation

In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, the S-3/Operations branch is typically the largest. This is because the S-3 branch is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all operational activities within the unit. This includes planning and executing missions, coordinating training exercises, and ensuring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the unit. As operations are a core function of the SF unit, it is expected that the S-3 branch would have the largest personnel and resources allocation compared to other branches such as S-1/Administration, S-2/Intelligence, and S-4/Logistics.

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18.

In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?
- S–1/Administration
- S–2/Intelligence.
- S–4/Operations.
- S–5/Plans and Programs.
Correct Answer

A. S–5/Plans and Programs.

Explanation

The S-5/Plans and Programs branch is responsible for maintaining the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). This branch focuses on developing and implementing plans and programs within the Security Forces unit. They are in charge of managing the SFMIS, which is a system used to gather and analyze data related to security forces operations. This information is crucial for making informed decisions and improving the overall effectiveness of the unit.

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19.

What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?
- Security Forces (SF) leader’s course.
- Supply manager’s course.
- SF craftsman resident course.
- Security superintendent non-resident course.
Correct Answer

A. SF craftsman resident course.

Explanation

The trainee must attend the SF craftsman resident course in order to be awarded the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071.

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20.

As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
- Code of Conduct only.
- SF General Orders only.
- Performance Fitness Examination.
- Code of Conduct and General Orders.
Correct Answer

A. Code of Conduct and General Orders.

Explanation

As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to the Code of Conduct and General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides principles and guidelines for SF members to follow in order to maintain their integrity, honor, and loyalty, even in the face of adversity. General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations that SF members must follow to ensure the smooth operation and effectiveness of their missions. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and General Orders, SF members can fulfill their duties and responsibilities effectively, ultimately leading to mission accomplishment.

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21.

Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?
- Fulfilling the mission.
- B. Personal appearance.
- C. Off-duty conduct.
- D. Attention to duty.
Correct Answer

A. Fulfilling the mission.

Explanation

Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to the conduct guideline of fulfilling the mission. This means that when interacting with offenders, the focus is on carrying out the objectives and goals of the organization, which includes treating them with respect and dignity. By fulfilling the mission, the organization ensures that offenders are treated fairly and their rights are upheld, promoting a professional and ethical approach to dealing with them.

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22.

You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator’s race?
- Seeking favors.
- B. Exercising authority.
- C. Assistance to others.
- D. Personal attitudes.
Correct Answer

A. D. Personal attitudes.

Explanation

If you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race, you have failed to follow the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. This means that your personal biases and prejudices have influenced your decision-making process, which is not acceptable in law enforcement. It is important to treat all individuals fairly and impartially, regardless of their race or any other characteristic.

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23.

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to
- AFI 31–301, Air Base Defense.
- B. AFI 31–205, The Air Force Corrections Program.
- C. AFI 31–206, Security Forces Investigation Program.
- D. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.
Correct Answer

A. D. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This is because AFI 31–117 specifically addresses the guidelines and regulations for arming and using force by Air Force Personnel. It provides the necessary instructions and procedures for apprehending suspects, ensuring that the conduct is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations.

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24.

At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?
- 1 to 2
- 3 to 5
- 6 to 8
- 9 to 10
Correct Answer

A. 3 to 5

Explanation

Significant heat acclimatization requires a minimum of 3 to 5 days. This period allows the body to adapt to the heat and become more efficient at regulating its temperature. Heat acclimatization is crucial in preventing heat injuries, as it allows the body to better tolerate and cope with high temperatures, reducing the risk of heat-related illnesses. A shorter period may not provide enough time for the body to fully adjust, while a longer period may not be necessary for acclimatization.

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25.

Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?
- A. Bioenvironmental Engineering Section.
- b. Base Hazardous Waste Section.
- C. Bioenvironmental Waste Section
- D. Bioenvironmental Health Section.
Correct Answer

A. A. Bioenvironmental Engineering Section.

Explanation

The Bioenvironmental Engineering Section is responsible for routinely testing firing ranges for amounts of lead. This section specializes in assessing and managing environmental risks and hazards, including the monitoring and control of pollutants such as lead. They have the expertise and equipment necessary to conduct regular testing and ensure that lead levels are within acceptable limits at firing ranges. The other options, Base Hazardous Waste Section, Bioenvironmental Waste Section, and Bioenvironmental Health Section, do not specifically mention the testing of firing ranges for lead, making them less likely to be responsible for this task.

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26.

What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?
- Sweat
- Blood
- Syringes
- Foreign fluids
Correct Answer

A. Blood

Explanation

Blood is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace because it can carry various bloodborne pathogens, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C, which can easily be transmitted through contact with infected blood. In a workplace setting, blood can be present due to accidents, injuries, or medical procedures. It is crucial to handle and dispose of blood properly, use personal protective equipment, and follow proper infection control protocols to prevent the spread of viruses and protect the health and safety of employees.

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27.

Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is
- Engineering controls.
- b. employee work practices.
- c. personal protective equipment usage.
- D. housekeeping guidelines.
Correct Answer

A. b. employee work practices.

Explanation

Employee work practices are the specific procedures that individuals must follow on the job to reduce their risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. This can include practices such as proper hand hygiene, using appropriate personal protective equipment, following safe needle disposal protocols, and adhering to infection control measures. These practices are essential in minimizing the risk of transmission and ensuring a safe working environment for employees.

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28.

When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?
- A. Search for weapons first.
- B. Always, begin your search at the front pocket.
- C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.
- D. Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer.
Correct Answer

A. C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching.

Explanation

To protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids when conducting individual searches, it is essential to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching. This step ensures that you are aware of any potential risks or hazards before proceeding with the search. By taking this precautionary measure, you can minimize the chances of coming into contact with blood or other body fluids, thereby protecting yourself from potential harm or infection.

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29.

Defender’s Edge training was developed by
- A. defenders for defenders.
- B. medical professionals for defenders.
- C. base services for all AF personnel.
- D. base operations for all AF personnel.
Correct Answer

A. A. defenders for defenders.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. defenders for defenders." This means that the Defender's Edge training was created by individuals who are defenders themselves, for the purpose of training and educating other defenders. This suggests that the training program was designed by people who have first-hand experience and knowledge in the field of defense, making it more relevant and effective for the target audience.

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30.

The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the
- A. digestive and intestinal systems.
- B. immune and psychological systems.
- C. psychological and emotional systems.
- D. sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
Correct Answer

A. D. sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

Explanation

The stress response system, also known as the fight-or-flight response, is a physiological response to stress. It is regulated by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The sympathetic system prepares the body for action by increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing stress hormones like adrenaline. On the other hand, the parasympathetic system helps the body relax and recover after the stressor has passed by slowing heart rate, constricting blood vessels, and promoting digestion. Therefore, option d, which includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, is the correct answer.

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31.

As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?
- A. Chaplains.
- B. Team members.
- C. Family members.
- D. Medical personnel.
Correct Answer

A. B. Team members.

Explanation

In dealing with stress, our closest allies to strengthen our resilience are our team members. Team members provide support, understanding, and encouragement during challenging times. They share similar experiences and can relate to the stressors faced by Security Forces (SF) members. By working together and supporting each other, team members can help build resilience and foster a sense of camaraderie within the SF community.

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32.

Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
- A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
- B. US Constitution.
- C. Federal statutes.
- D. International law.
Correct Answer

A. A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

Explanation

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is the correct answer because it is a legal document that contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It is a comprehensive set of rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel and covers a wide range of offenses and punishments. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and justice within the military and helps maintain the effectiveness and readiness of the armed forces.

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33.

What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?
- A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
- B. Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes.
- C. Rules of Engagement (ROE).
- D. Rules of war.
Correct Answer

A. A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC).

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva conventions are international treaties that establish rules and guidelines for the conduct of armed conflicts. These conventions aim to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and the wounded during times of war. They outline the rights and responsibilities of both combatants and non-combatants, and provide regulations for the use of weapons, treatment of prisoners, and the protection of cultural property. The Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is the term used to refer to the body of international law that encompasses these conventions and other related treaties and customary practices.

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34.

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice’s (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
- A. Article 77.
- B. Article 5.
- C. Article 2.
- D. Article 1.
Correct Answer

A. C. Article 2.

Explanation

Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article defines the individuals who fall under the jurisdiction of the military justice system, including members of the armed forces, both active duty and reserve, as well as individuals who have been retired or separated from the military but are still subject to certain provisions of the UCMJ. It also includes civilians accompanying the military, prisoners of war, and individuals who have committed offenses while serving in the military. Therefore, Article 2 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the subject of military jurisdiction.

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35.

If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person
- A. must be tried overseas.
- B. is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
- C. can be tried overseas or stateside.
- D. may choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority.
Correct Answer

A. C. can be tried overseas or stateside.

Explanation

When a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried either overseas or stateside. This is because military jurisdiction extends to offenses committed by military personnel while they are abroad. The decision on where to hold the trial depends on various factors such as the nature of the offense, the availability of resources, and the agreements between the involved countries. Therefore, the person may face a court-martial either in the country where the offense occurred or back in their home country.

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36.

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
- A. concurrent, current, proprietary.
- B. exclusive, bilateral, concurrent.
- C. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral.
- D. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal.
Correct Answer

A. D. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal. This answer accurately describes the types of jurisdiction found on US government installations. "Exclusive" jurisdiction means that the US government has sole authority over the installation. "Concurrent" jurisdiction means that both the US government and the state or local government have authority over the installation. "Proprietary" jurisdiction means that the US government has control and authority over the installation, similar to private property. "Reciprocal" jurisdiction means that the US government and the host nation government have agreed to share jurisdiction over the installation.

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37.

The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations
- A. when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.
- B. when partial jurisdiction exists.
- C. under proprietary jurisdiction.
- D. located in overseas areas.
Correct Answer

A. A. when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.

Explanation

The statement suggests that the federal government has the power to enforce laws on installations, but only when it has exclusive jurisdiction. This means that the federal government has complete control and authority over these areas, without any interference from state or local governments. This answer option accurately reflects the concept of exclusive jurisdiction.

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38.

Under concurrent jurisdiction
- A. state laws are not enforced.
- B. the state has property rights only.
- C. the federal government has no authority.
- D. both the state and federal government have authority.
Correct Answer

A. D. both the state and federal government have authority.

Explanation

Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government can enforce their laws and regulations within the same geographical area and on the same subject matter. It allows for a sharing of power and responsibilities between the state and federal governments, ensuring that both have the ability to address issues and enforce laws within their respective jurisdictions.

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39.

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
- A. proprietary government.
- B. military government.
- C. nationalist regime.
- D. military state.
Correct Answer

A. B. military government.

Explanation

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a military government. This type of government is established by the occupying military force in order to maintain control and governance over the occupied territory. It typically involves the imposition of military laws and regulations, as well as the appointment of military officials to oversee the administration of the territory. The purpose of a military government is to ensure stability and security in the occupied territory until a more permanent solution can be reached.

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40.

Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
- A. Air Force.
- B. Coast Guard.
- C. Army.
- D. Navy.
Correct Answer

A. C. Army.

Explanation

The US Army has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government. This is because the Army is the largest branch of the US military and is primarily responsible for land-based operations. During military government, the Army is responsible for maintaining order, providing security, and overseeing the administration of the occupied territory. The Air Force, Coast Guard, and Navy have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but they do not have the primary responsibility for operations and administration during military government.

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41.

What are the two types of martial law?
- A. Qualified and absolute.
- B. Absolute and unqualified.
- C. Qualified and concurrent.
- D. Exclusive and absolute.
Correct Answer

A. A. Qualified and absolute.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Qualified and absolute. Martial law refers to the imposition of military control over a civilian population. Qualified martial law is when certain civil liberties and legal procedures are still upheld, while absolute martial law involves the suspension of these rights and complete military control. This explanation provides a clear understanding of the two types of martial law without explicitly stating the correct answer.

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42.

Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
- A. Military law.
- B. Exclusive.
- c. Qualified.
- D. Absolute.
Correct Answer

A. D. Absolute.

Explanation

When military authority completely replaces civil authority, it is referred to as absolute martial law. This means that the military has full control and power over the governance and decision-making processes, without any involvement or influence from civilian institutions or authorities.

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43.

What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?
- A. Military.
- B. Martial.
- C. Executive.
- D. Concurrent.
Correct Answer

A. A. Military.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Military." The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is a law that establishes the standards of behavior for members of the Armed Forces. It is specifically designed to address the unique needs and circumstances of the military and governs the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ covers a wide range of offenses and provides a system of military justice that ensures discipline and accountability within the military.

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44.

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?
- Article 2 (2)
- B. Article 5.
- C. Article 92 (2).
- D. Article 134.
Correct Answer

A. C. Article 92 (2).

Explanation

Article 92 (2) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives Security Forces (SF) members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article specifically addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations and states that any person who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, as an SF member, it is important to understand and follow the guidelines outlined in Article 92 (2) to ensure the proper execution of duties and maintain discipline within the military.

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45.

Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?
- A. Federal government.
- B. State government.
- C. Civilian companies.
- D. Private citizens.
Correct Answer

A. D. Private citizens.

Explanation

Private citizens may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law. This means that individuals who are not affiliated with the federal or state government, or civilian companies, have the right to initiate a legal action for a civil wrong committed by a government employee or agency. Private citizens can seek compensation for damages caused by the negligence or wrongful actions of the government, such as personal injury, property damage, or violation of constitutional rights.

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46.

In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on
- A. circumstances and facts.
- B. witnesses and statements.
- C. hearsay and rumors.
- D. opinion and belief.
Correct Answer

A. D. opinion and belief.

Explanation

When determining whether an individual is a suspect, it is important to rely on objective evidence such as circumstances and facts, witness statements, and reliable information. Basing this decision on personal opinion and belief can introduce bias and may not be supported by concrete evidence. It is crucial to use reliable sources and factual information to make an informed decision about a suspect.

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47.

Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?
- A. The legal office.
- B. The Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) office.
- C. The base commander.
- D. A Security Forces investigator.
Correct Answer

A. A. The legal office.

Explanation

If you have doubts concerning rights advisement, you should consult the legal office. They are the experts in providing legal advice and guidance, and they can help clarify any questions or concerns you may have about your rights. The legal office is specifically trained to handle legal matters and can provide the most accurate and up-to-date information regarding rights advisement. Consulting the legal office ensures that you receive the correct and appropriate guidance in relation to your rights.

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48.

The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against
- A. self-inspection.
- B. self-infliction.
- C. self-incrimination.
- D. self-determination.
Correct Answer

A. C. self-incrimination.

Explanation

The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects individuals from being forced to incriminate themselves. This means that individuals have the right to remain silent and cannot be compelled to testify against themselves in a criminal case. This protection ensures that individuals are not coerced into providing evidence that could be used against them in court.

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49.

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
- A. psychological deterrent.
- B. mobile flight-line force multiplier.
- C. base defense detection capability.
- D. replacement for base sensor systems.
Correct Answer

A. A. psychological deterrent.

Explanation

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective psychological deterrent. These dogs are trained to be highly skilled and obedient, which can intimidate potential criminals or adversaries. The presence of a well-trained and disciplined dog can deter individuals from engaging in illegal activities or hostile actions. The psychological aspect of having a military working dog team can create a sense of fear and uncertainty, making it an effective tool in maintaining law and order.

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Nov 13, 2017

Quiz Created by
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Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 1

Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?

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