Legal Aspects Of Computer Science

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Legal Aspects Of Computer Science - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works was adopt:

    • A.

      1886

    • B.

      1897

    • C.

      2006

    • D.

      1955

    • E.

      1933

    Correct Answer
    A. 1886
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1886 because the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works was indeed adopted in that year. The Berne Convention is an international agreement that establishes copyright protection for creative works such as literature, music, and art. It sets out the basic rights of authors and creators and provides a framework for international cooperation in copyright enforcement. The convention has been revised and updated several times since its adoption in 1886, but the original agreement was indeed made in that year.

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  • 2. 

    Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the Purposes of Patent Procedure  was adopt:

    • A.

      1897

    • B.

      1910

    • C.

      1977

    • D.

      1985

    • E.

      2001

    Correct Answer
    C. 1977
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1977. The Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the Purposes of Patent Procedure was adopted in 1977. This treaty provides a way for patent applicants to satisfy the requirement of depositing biological material in a recognized depositary institution. It allows for the international recognition of such deposits, ensuring that the deposited microorganisms are available to the public for further research and development.

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  • 3. 

    Convention  for  the  Protection of  Producers  of  Phonograms  was  adopt:

    • A.

      2003

    • B.

      1997

    • C.

      1971

    • D.

      1960

    • E.

      1980

    Correct Answer
    C. 1971
    Explanation
    The Convention for the Protection of Producers of Phonograms was adopted in 1971. This convention aimed to protect the rights of producers of phonograms, which are sound recordings. It established international standards for copyright protection and provided legal remedies for infringement. By setting these standards, the convention helped to ensure that producers of phonograms were able to control the use and distribution of their recordings, and receive fair compensation for their work.

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  • 4. 

    European Patent Convention was adopt:

    • A.

      1973

    • B.

      1985

    • C.

      1999

    • D.

      1895

    • E.

      2001

    Correct Answer
    A. 1973
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1973. The European Patent Convention was adopted in 1973. This convention established a unified patent system for European countries, allowing inventors to obtain patent protection in multiple countries through a single application. The convention aimed to harmonize patent laws and procedures across Europe, making it easier for inventors and businesses to protect their inventions in the region.

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  • 5. 

    Hague Agreement Concerning the International Deposit of Industrial Designs was adopt:

    • A.

      2010

    • B.

      2000

    • C.

      1958

    • D.

      1925

    • E.

      1901

    Correct Answer
    D. 1925
    Explanation
    The Hague Agreement Concerning the International Deposit of Industrial Designs was adopted in 1925. This agreement provides a mechanism for creators to protect their industrial designs in multiple countries by filing a single application. It establishes an international system for the registration and protection of industrial designs, allowing applicants to obtain design protection in multiple member countries through a single application and registration process. The agreement aims to simplify and streamline the process of obtaining design protection internationally, promoting the development and protection of industrial designs across borders.

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  • 6. 

    International Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property was adopt: 

    • A.

      1891

    • B.

      1936

    • C.

      1956

    • D.

      2007

    • E.

      1967

    Correct Answer
    E. 1967
    Explanation
    The International Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property was adopted in 1967. This convention aims to provide protection for industrial property rights such as patents, trademarks, and industrial designs. It establishes a framework for international cooperation and harmonization of intellectual property laws. The convention sets out minimum standards and procedures for the protection of industrial property, promoting innovation and creativity worldwide.

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  • 7. 

    Lisbon Agreement for the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their International Registration  was adopt:

    • A.

      2003

    • B.

      1958

    • C.

      1963

    • D.

      1922

    • E.

      1990

    Correct Answer
    B. 1958
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1958. The Lisbon Agreement for the Protection of Appellations of Origin and their International Registration was adopted in 1958. This agreement aims to protect the geographical names used to identify products that have a specific origin and possess qualities or reputation attributable to that origin. It provides a framework for the international registration and protection of appellations of origin, helping to prevent misleading use of such names and ensuring fair competition in the market.

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  • 8. 

    Locarno Agreement Establishing an International Classification for Industrial Designs  was adopt:

    • A.

      1897

    • B.

      1934

    • C.

      1949

    • D.

      1968

    • E.

      2008

    Correct Answer
    D. 1968
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1968. This is when the Locarno Agreement was adopted, which established an international classification for industrial designs.

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  • 9. 

    Madrid Agreement Concerning the International Registration of Marks was adopt:

    • A.

      1891

    • B.

      1895

    • C.

      1905

    • D.

      1975

    • E.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1891
    Explanation
    The Madrid Agreement Concerning the International Registration of Marks was adopted in 1891. This agreement established a system for the international registration of trademarks, allowing trademark owners to protect their rights in multiple countries through a single application. The agreement aimed to simplify and streamline the process of trademark registration, making it more efficient and cost-effective for businesses operating internationally. By adopting this agreement in 1891, countries recognized the importance of harmonizing trademark laws and facilitating international trade.

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  • 10. 

    1.      Nairobi Treaty on the Protection of the Olympic Symbol  was adopt:

    • A.

      1956

    • B.

      1981

    • C.

      1991

    • D.

      1998

    • E.

      2004

    Correct Answer
    B. 1981
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1981. The Nairobi Treaty on the Protection of the Olympic Symbol was adopted in 1981.

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  • 11. 

    Nice Agreement Concerning the International Classification of Goods and Services for the Purposes of the Registration of Marks was adopt: 

    • A.

      1899

    • B.

      1911

    • C.

      1932

    • D.

      1948

    • E.

      1957

    Correct Answer
    E. 1957
    Explanation
    The Nice Agreement Concerning the International Classification of Goods and Services for the Purposes of the Registration of Marks was adopted in 1957. This agreement established a standardized classification system for goods and services in trademark registrations. It aimed to simplify and streamline the process of registering trademarks internationally by providing a common language and framework for classifying products and services. By adopting this agreement, countries agreed to use the same classification system, making it easier for businesses to protect their trademarks globally.

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  • 12. 

    Paris  Convention  for  the  Protection of  Industrial  Property  was adopt:

    • A.

      2005

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1967

    • D.

      1883

    • E.

      1889

    Correct Answer
    D. 1883
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1883. The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property was adopted in 1883. This international treaty aims to protect industrial property, such as patents, trademarks, and industrial designs, by establishing a framework for cooperation and mutual recognition among member countries. It has been instrumental in harmonizing and strengthening intellectual property rights globally.

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  • 13. 

    Patent Cooperation Treaty  was  adopt:

    • A.

      1970

    • B.

      1975

    • C.

      1988

    • D.

      1996

    • E.

      2000

    Correct Answer
    A. 1970
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1970. The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) was adopted in 1970. The PCT is an international treaty that provides a unified procedure for filing patent applications in multiple countries. It simplifies the process for applicants by allowing them to file a single international application that is recognized in multiple countries. This helps to streamline the patent application process and reduce costs for applicants.

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  • 14. 

    Strasbourg  Agreement  Concerning  the  International  Patent  Classification was  adopt:

    • A.

      1895

    • B.

      1897

    • C.

      1935

    • D.

      1971

    • E.

      1999

    Correct Answer
    D. 1971
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1971 because the Strasbourg Agreement Concerning the International Patent Classification was adopted in that year. This agreement established a standardized system for classifying patents internationally, which helps in organizing and searching for patents across different countries.

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  • 15. 

    Trademark Registration Treaty was  adopt:

    • A.

      1889

    • B.

      1901

    • C.

      1951

    • D.

      1967

    • E.

      1973

    Correct Answer
    E. 1973
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1973. This is the year when the Trademark Registration Treaty was adopted.

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  • 16. 

    Vienna Agreement Establishing an International Classification of the Figurative Elements of Mark  was  adopt:

    • A.

      1973

    • B.

      1975

    • C.

      1988

    • D.

      1994

    • E.

      2002

    Correct Answer
    A. 1973
    Explanation
    The Vienna Agreement Establishing an International Classification of the Figurative Elements of Mark was adopted in 1973.

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  • 17. 

    Washington Treaty on Intellectual Property in Respect of Integrated Circuits  was  adopt:

    • A.

      1911

    • B.

      1954

    • C.

      1989

    • D.

      1993

    • E.

      2001

    Correct Answer
    C. 1989
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1989. The Washington Treaty on Intellectual Property in Respect of Integrated Circuits was adopted in 1989. This treaty was established to provide protection for intellectual property rights in relation to integrated circuits, which are essential components of electronic devices. It aimed to promote innovation, fair competition, and economic development by ensuring that the rights of creators and owners of integrated circuits are protected internationally.

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  • 18. 

    The subjects of private enterprise may include:

    • A.

      Participants of large business, medium business and small businesses

    • B.

      Individuals

    • C.

      State Institutions

    • D.

      Persons with a legal education

    • E.

      Mazhilis

    Correct Answer
    A. Participants of large business, medium business and small businesses
    Explanation
    Private enterprise refers to economic activities that are owned and operated by individuals or groups rather than by the government. The subjects of private enterprise can include participants from different types of businesses, such as large, medium, and small businesses. This means that individuals or groups involved in any size of business can engage in private enterprise activities. The other options listed, such as individuals, state institutions, persons with a legal education, and Mazhilis, do not necessarily represent the subjects of private enterprise as they may have different roles or functions in the economy.

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  • 19. 

    When the legal capacity of legal entity is started?

    • A.

      When you specify a name.

    • B.

      For a meeting of the founders

    • C.

      Since the tax

    • D.

      Since the reorganization

    • E.

      Since its formation and is terminated at the completion of its liquidation.

    Correct Answer
    E. Since its formation and is terminated at the completion of its liquidation.
    Explanation
    The legal capacity of a legal entity starts at its formation and is terminated at the completion of its liquidation. This means that from the moment the entity is established, it has the ability to enter into contracts, own property, and exercise legal rights and obligations. The legal capacity continues until the entity goes through the process of liquidation, where its assets are distributed and its existence is formally ended.

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  • 20. 

    When shall legal capacity of legal entity in the area of licensed activity start?

    • A.

      Since receiving a license

    • B.

      After receiving such a license and it is terminated at the time of its withdrawal, expiry or invalidation of the order established by legislative acts.

    • C.

      When signing a contract

    • D.

      Upon receipt of a notary certified constituent documents

    • E.

      In the production of settlement with the state

    Correct Answer
    B. After receiving such a license and it is terminated at the time of its withdrawal, expiry or invalidation of the order established by legislative acts.
    Explanation
    The legal capacity of a legal entity in the area of licensed activity starts after receiving the license and it continues until the license is terminated. This means that the legal entity is authorized to engage in the licensed activity and has the legal rights and obligations associated with it. However, the legal capacity ends if the license is withdrawn, expires, or is invalidated according to the laws and regulations in place.

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  • 21. 

    Separate subdivision of legal entity located outside of its location, which carries out all or part of its functions, including functions of representation, is called:

    • A.

      Branch

    • B.

      Union

    • C.

      Co-op

    • D.

      Representation

    • E.

      Association

    Correct Answer
    A. Branch
    Explanation
    A separate subdivision of a legal entity located outside of its location, which carries out all or part of its functions, including functions of representation, is called a branch. A branch is essentially an extension of the main entity, operating in a different location but still under the control and authority of the parent organization. It allows the parent entity to expand its operations and reach into new markets or territories without having to establish a completely separate legal entity.

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  • 22. 

    Mandatory payment levied by the state from individuals and legal entities:

    • A.

      Penalty

    • B.

      Tax

    • C.

      Certificate

    • D.

      Credit

    • E.

      Money

    Correct Answer
    B. Tax
    Explanation
    An explanation for the correct answer, "Tax," is that it is a mandatory payment imposed by the state on individuals and legal entities. Taxes are collected by the government to fund public services and infrastructure. They are typically based on income, property, or consumption and are used to support various government programs and initiatives. Taxes are a key source of revenue for the state and are required to be paid by individuals and businesses as a civic duty.

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  • 23. 

    Taxes received in the budget of:

    • A.

      State

    • B.

      Individuals

    • C.

      Entities

    • D.

      Economic Association

    • E.

      State enterprise

    Correct Answer
    A. State
    Explanation
    The taxes received in the budget of the state refer to the revenue generated from individuals, entities, economic associations, and state enterprises. These taxes are collected by the state government and contribute to the overall budget of the state.

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  • 24. 

    Public relations, which are regulated by civil law:

    • A.

      Civil-legal relations

    • B.

      State legal.

    • C.

      Learner legal.

    • D.

      Tax-law.

    • E.

      Administrative and legal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil-legal relations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Civil-legal relations. This is because public relations, which involve the interactions between an organization and the public, are regulated by civil law. Civil law governs the legal relationships between individuals and organizations, including matters such as contracts, torts, and property rights. Therefore, public relations activities must comply with the legal framework established by civil law.

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  • 25. 

    An agreement made between two or more persons to establish, modify or terminate civil rights and obligations:

    • A.

      Deal

    • B.

      Contract

    • C.

      Commitment.

    • D.

      Guarantee

    • E.

      Subrogation

    Correct Answer
    B. Contract
    Explanation
    A contract is a legally binding agreement made between two or more parties to establish, modify, or terminate civil rights and obligations. It outlines the terms and conditions that each party must adhere to and provides a framework for resolving any disputes that may arise. Contracts are essential in business and personal relationships as they ensure that all parties involved are aware of their rights and responsibilities, and provide a legal recourse in case of any breach.

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  • 26. 

    The main function of taxes:

    • A.

      Total

    • B.

      Fiscal

    • C.

      Special

    • D.

      Law-making

    • E.

      Enabling

    Correct Answer
    B. Fiscal
    Explanation
    The main function of taxes is fiscal. Fiscal refers to the financial aspect of government operations, particularly related to revenue collection and expenditure. Taxes are a key source of revenue for governments, which they use to fund public services, infrastructure development, social welfare programs, and other government expenditures. Therefore, fiscal function accurately describes the primary purpose of taxes in generating funds for government operations.

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  • 27. 

    Agreement shall enter into force and becomes binding for the parties upon its: 

    • A.

      Conclusion

    • B.

      Developments

    • C.

      Discussion

    • D.

      Registration

    • E.

      Publication

    Correct Answer
    A. Conclusion
    Explanation
    The agreement will become effective and legally binding for the parties involved upon reaching a conclusion. This means that after all the necessary discussions, developments, and registrations have taken place, the agreement will be finalized and considered enforceable.

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  • 28. 

    The authorities of the owner consist of the following rights:

    • A.

      Only to own

    • B.

      Only the right to use

    • C.

      Only the right to dispose of

    • D.

      The right to possess, the right to use, the right to dispose

    • E.

      Only own and use

    Correct Answer
    D. The right to possess, the right to use, the right to dispose
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The right to possess, the right to use, the right to dispose." This answer is correct because it includes all the rights mentioned in the question - the right to possess, the right to use, and the right to dispose. The other options mentioned in the question only include one or two of these rights, making them incorrect.

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  • 29. 

    From what moment an activity of insolvent enterprise is discontinued?

    • A.

      Since the signing of the bankruptcy

    • B.

      From the moment of its exclusion from the state register of legal entities

    • C.

      Since the death of director general of the legal entity

    • D.

      Since the reorganization of legal entities

    • E.

      Since the establishment of another legal entity

    Correct Answer
    B. From the moment of its exclusion from the state register of legal entities
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "from the moment of its exclusion from the state register of legal entities." This means that an insolvent enterprise's activity is discontinued once it is removed from the state register of legal entities. This likely happens when the enterprise is declared bankrupt or is dissolved for other reasons.

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  • 30. 

    Please give a definition of “general partnership”?

    • A.

      The Partnership, the members of which in case of insufficiency of the general partnership shall be jointly and severally liable for its obligations with all their property

    • B.

      Is recognized entity issues shares to raise funds for its activities

    • C.

      This is a sole proprietorship

    • D.

      There is no right answer

    • E.

      Based on the right of business

    Correct Answer
    A. The Partnership, the members of which in case of insufficiency of the general partnership shall be jointly and severally liable for its obligations with all their property
    Explanation
    A general partnership is a type of business entity where two or more individuals come together to carry out a business for profit. In a general partnership, the members have joint and several liability, meaning that they are collectively and individually responsible for the partnership's debts and obligations. This means that if the partnership is unable to fulfill its obligations, the members may have to use their personal assets to satisfy the debts. Therefore, the correct answer describes the characteristic of joint and several liability in a general partnership.

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  • 31. 

    What should be the minimum number of members of production co-operative?

    • A.

      Not more than 50 members of the cooperative

    • B.

      At least three members of the cooperative

    • C.

      At least four members of the cooperative

    • D.

      At least five members of the cooperative

    • E.

      At least two members

    Correct Answer
    E. At least two members
    Explanation
    The minimum number of members required for a production cooperative is at least two. This is because a cooperative is a business organization that is owned and operated by its members. In order to function, a cooperative needs at least two members to come together and contribute their resources and efforts towards a common goal. With two members, they can share the responsibilities and decision-making processes necessary for running the cooperative. Therefore, having at least two members is essential for the establishment and operation of a production cooperative.

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  • 32. 

    Specify foundation documents of joint stock company?

    • A.

      Card Director and statistics

    • B.

      Certificate of taxpayer

    • C.

      CEO

    • D.

      Foundation agreement and charter

    • E.

      Passport and TRN President

    Correct Answer
    D. Foundation agreement and charter
    Explanation
    The foundation agreement and charter are the foundation documents of a joint stock company. These documents outline the company's purpose, structure, and governance. The foundation agreement specifies the terms and conditions agreed upon by the shareholders, while the charter outlines the company's bylaws and regulations. These documents are essential for establishing a joint stock company and provide a legal framework for its operation.

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  • 33. 

    Private Enterprise:

    • A.

      State Enterprise

    • B.

      Is carried out by one individual on the basis of property belonging to him on the ownership right (either on the basis of law, allowing the use and disposal of property)

    • C.

      A document provided by the tax authority

    • D.

      Property condition

    • E.

      There is no right answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Is carried out by one individual on the basis of property belonging to him on the ownership right (either on the basis of law, allowing the use and disposal of property)
    Explanation
    Private enterprise refers to economic activities that are conducted by an individual who owns the property on which the enterprise is based. This ownership can be either through legal rights or through laws that allow the individual to use and dispose of the property. In private enterprise, the individual takes full responsibility for the success or failure of the enterprise, and they have the freedom to make decisions and pursue their own interests. This is in contrast to state enterprise, where the government owns and controls the means of production.

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  • 34. 

     License is:

    • A.

      Permit to net income

    • B.

      Permit issued by the appropriate authorized state agencies to conduct certain types of economic activities, including foreign trade (export and import license); type of the state control

    • C.

      Document of identity

    • D.

      Registration number of the taxpayer

    • E.

      Memorandum

    Correct Answer
    B. Permit issued by the appropriate authorized state agencies to conduct certain types of economic activities, including foreign trade (export and import license); type of the state control
  • 35. 

    Which authority approves the Charter of the production cooperative?

    • A.

      Director-General

    • B.

      Officers

    • C.

      The general meeting of shareholders

    • D.

      State authority

    • E.

      Ministry of Justice of the Republic of Kazakhstan

    Correct Answer
    C. The general meeting of shareholders
    Explanation
    The general meeting of shareholders approves the Charter of the production cooperative. This is because the Charter is a legal document that outlines the rules and regulations of the cooperative, and it is important for the shareholders to have a say in its approval. The general meeting of shareholders represents the collective ownership of the cooperative and has the authority to make decisions on behalf of the cooperative.

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  • 36. 

    Please name the types of transactions? 

    • A.

      At the discretion of the parties

    • B.

      Unilateral, bilateral or multilateral (contracts)

    • C.

      Neither of which do not

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    • E.

      They are divided into left and right

    Correct Answer
    B. Unilateral, bilateral or multilateral (contracts)
    Explanation
    The types of transactions are unilateral, bilateral, or multilateral (contracts). Unilateral transactions involve only one party, where one party makes a promise or performs an action without expecting anything in return. Bilateral transactions involve two parties, where both parties make promises or perform actions in exchange for something of value. Multilateral transactions involve three or more parties, where multiple parties make promises or perform actions with each other. These types of transactions are commonly seen in contractual agreements.

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  • 37. 

    Forms of transactions?

    • A.

      Mounted oath of the parties

    • B.

      Oral or written form (simple or notarial)

    • C.

      Handshake parties

    • D.

      Mentally

    • E.

      There is no right answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Oral or written form (simple or notarial)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is oral or written form (simple or notarial). This is because transactions can be conducted either verbally or in writing. Verbal agreements are legally binding, but they can be difficult to prove in case of a dispute. On the other hand, written agreements provide a clear record of the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved. A notarial form refers to a document that has been certified by a notary public, adding an extra layer of authenticity and legal validity. Therefore, oral or written forms, whether simple or notarial, are commonly used in transactions.

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  • 38. 

    Whether the simple partnership is a legal entity?

    • A.

      Is a legal entity

    • B.

      By the decision of the shareholders

    • C.

      By the decision of the voting employees

    • D.

      Part

    • E.

      It is not a legal entity

    Correct Answer
    E. It is not a legal entity
    Explanation
    A simple partnership is not considered a legal entity because it does not have a separate legal existence from its owners. In a simple partnership, the partners are personally liable for the debts and obligations of the partnership. The partnership itself does not have the ability to sue or be sued, own property, or enter into contracts on its own behalf. Instead, the partners individually carry out these actions. Therefore, the correct answer is that a simple partnership is not a legal entity.

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  • 39. 

    In what form the collateral agreement should be made?

    • A.

      Only verbally

    • B.

      Must be in written form

    • C.

      In any form

    • D.

      Oath parties

    • E.

      Handshake of the parties

    Correct Answer
    B. Must be in written form
    Explanation
    The collateral agreement must be in written form because written agreements provide a clear record of the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved. It helps to avoid any misunderstandings or disputes that may arise in the future. Written agreements also hold more legal weight and can be used as evidence in case of any legal proceedings. Therefore, it is essential for a collateral agreement to be documented in writing.

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  • 40. 

    The definition of “advertisement”:

    • A.

      Ad on the goods

    • B.

      Redistributable and posted in any form and by any means information that is used for an indefinite number of persons and designed to generate and maintain interest in a person or entity, products, trademarks, works, services and facilitate their implementation

    • C.

      Place of registration of legal entities and individuals

    • D.

      Political agitation

    • E.

      Agitational work in the election of the deputies

    Correct Answer
    B. Redistributable and posted in any form and by any means information that is used for an indefinite number of persons and designed to generate and maintain interest in a person or entity, products, trademarks, works, services and facilitate their implementation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the definition of "advertisement" because it accurately describes the concept of advertisement as the distribution of information in various forms to generate and maintain interest in a person or entity, products, trademarks, works, services, and facilitate their implementation. It encompasses the key elements of advertisement, such as reaching a wide audience, creating interest, and promoting various offerings.

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  • 41. 

    It is not permitted to advertise:

    • A.

      Pampers

    • B.

      Chocolate candies

    • C.

      Drinking Water

    • D.

      Appliances

    • E.

      Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    E. Alcohol
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Alcohol," is correct because advertising alcohol is often restricted or prohibited due to its potential negative effects on individuals and society. Alcohol consumption can lead to various health issues, addiction, impaired judgment, and increased risk of accidents. Governments and regulatory bodies often impose strict regulations on alcohol advertising to protect public health and safety.

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  • 42. 

    Improper advertising is:

    • A.

      Propaganda of war

    • B.

      Unfair, unreliable, unethical, false advertising, in which violations of the requirements for its content, time, place and method of distribution, placement, established by the legislation of RK

    • C.

      Information about the disappearance of citizens

    • D.

      The way to reduce turnover in other countries

    • E.

      Political propaganda

    Correct Answer
    B. Unfair, unreliable, unethical, false advertising, in which violations of the requirements for its content, time, place and method of distribution, placement, established by the legislation of RK
    Explanation
    Improper advertising refers to advertising that is unfair, unreliable, unethical, and false. It includes violations of the requirements set by the legislation of RK (presumably referring to the legislation of Kazakhstan) regarding the content, time, place, and method of distribution and placement of advertisements. This type of advertising is considered improper because it does not adhere to legal and ethical standards and can mislead or deceive consumers.

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  • 43. 

    The advertiser is:

    • A.

      Incapacitated individual

    • B.

      Natural or legal person who is a source of advertising information for the production, distribution and advertising

    • C.

      Mentally ill person

    • D.

      State Duma

    • E.

      Government of the Republic of Kazakhstan

    Correct Answer
    B. Natural or legal person who is a source of advertising information for the production, distribution and advertising
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a natural or legal person who is a source of advertising information for the production, distribution, and advertising. This means that the advertiser is someone or a company that provides information about a product or service and promotes it through various channels such as television, radio, print media, or online platforms. They play a crucial role in creating awareness and generating demand for the advertised product or service.

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  • 44. 

    In what legal form a legal entity - commercial organization may be formed?

    • A.

      It can be formed only in the form of state-owned enterprise, a business partnership, joint-production cooperative

    • B.

      Only in the form of Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).

    • C.

      In the form of the court bodies

    • D.

      In the form of the legal system

    • E.

      In the form of the legislative body

    Correct Answer
    A. It can be formed only in the form of state-owned enterprise, a business partnership, joint-production cooperative
    Explanation
    A legal entity - commercial organization may be formed in the form of a state-owned enterprise, a business partnership, or a joint-production cooperative. This means that these are the only acceptable legal forms for a commercial organization to be established. Other options such as Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), court bodies, the legal system, or the legislative body are not valid forms for the formation of a commercial organization.

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  • 45. 

    Please specify the main features of the legal entity?

    • A.

      Organization that has ownership right, economic control or management, separate property.

    • B.

      Organization that has ownership right, economic control or management, separate property.

    • C.

      Organization, which may acquire on its own name property and personal rights and responsibilities.

    • D.

      Organization, which has only a seal with its name.

    • E.

      Organization, which has the ownership right, economic control or management rights over separate property and is liable for its obligations with such property, may on its own name acquire and exercise property and personal rights and obligations, sue and be sued, has its own balance or an estimate, has a seal on its name. E The organization which has only name.

    Correct Answer
    E. Organization, which has the ownership right, economic control or management rights over separate property and is liable for its obligations with such property, may on its own name acquire and exercise property and personal rights and obligations, sue and be sued, has its own balance or an estimate, has a seal on its name. E The organization which has only name.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the organization that has ownership right, economic control or management rights over separate property and is liable for its obligations with such property, may on its own name acquire and exercise property and personal rights and obligations, sue and be sued, has its own balance or an estimate, has a seal on its name. This answer accurately describes the main features of a legal entity, including its ownership rights, control over property, ability to acquire and exercise rights and obligations, and its liability for obligations. It also mentions the organization's ability to sue and be sued, have its own balance or estimate, and have a seal with its name.

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  • 46. 

    In which case a legal entity should be re-registered?

    • A.

      In connection with the liquidation.

    • B.

      In connection with the reorganization and liquidation.

    • C.

      Reduction of the authorized capital, changing of its name and changing the composition of participants in economic partnerships.

    • D.

      In connection with the reorganization.

    • E.

      Due to the increased share capital.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduction of the authorized capital, changing of its name and changing the composition of participants in economic partnerships.
    Explanation
    A legal entity should be re-registered in the case of a reduction of the authorized capital, changing of its name, and changing the composition of participants in economic partnerships. This suggests that any significant changes to the structure and ownership of the entity require re-registration to ensure that the legal documentation and records accurately reflect the new circumstances.

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  • 47. 

    Who has the right to freedom of entrepreneurial activity?

    • A.

      Bank.

    • B.

      Every citizen has the right to freedom of entrepreneurial activity.

    • C.

      State employee.

    • D.

      All of the mentioned

    • E.

      Parliament

    Correct Answer
    B. Every citizen has the right to freedom of entrepreneurial activity.
    Explanation
    Every citizen has the right to freedom of entrepreneurial activity because entrepreneurship promotes economic growth, innovation, and job creation. It allows individuals to pursue their business ideas, take risks, and contribute to the overall development of the economy. This freedom ensures that individuals have the opportunity to start and operate their own businesses without unnecessary restrictions or barriers. It is a fundamental right that empowers citizens to participate in economic activities and contribute to the prosperity of their communities and the nation as a whole.

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  • 48. 

    The definition "individual enterprise" means?

    • A.

      Activity directed to generating of income.

    • B.

      Activity of individuals and entities.

    • C.

      This is an activity of public enterprises for increasing of income.

    • D.

      Work carried out on behalf of private enterprises, for their risk and their financial responsibility

    • E.

      A voluntary action of individuals, directed to generating of income based on property of individuals and carried out on behalf of individuals for their risk and their financial responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    E. A voluntary action of individuals, directed to generating of income based on property of individuals and carried out on behalf of individuals for their risk and their financial responsibility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that "individual enterprise" refers to a voluntary action of individuals, directed towards generating income based on their own property and carried out on their own behalf, with the associated risks and financial responsibility. This definition highlights the individual nature of the enterprise, emphasizing that it is undertaken by individuals for their own benefit and at their own risk. The answer also emphasizes the voluntary aspect of the action, indicating that it is not mandated or controlled by any external entity.

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  • 49. 

    The definition of "private entrepreneurs"?

    • A.

      The State Enterprise.

    • B.

      Natural person.

    • C.

      State institution.

    • D.

      Physical and non-governmental legal entities engaged in entrepreneurial activity.

    • E.

      Government of the Republic of Kazakhstan.

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical and non-governmental legal entities engaged in entrepreneurial activity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Physical and non-governmental legal entities engaged in entrepreneurial activity." This answer accurately describes private entrepreneurs as individuals or organizations that are not affiliated with the government and are involved in business activities. It excludes options such as state institutions or the government itself, which are not considered private entrepreneurs.

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  • 50. 

    What is the subject of a large entrepreneurship?

    • A.

      Persons engaged in big business

    • B.

      Legal entities engaged in private enterprise with an annual average number of employees over 250 people, or a total value of assets for year more than 325 000 monthly calculation index set forth by law on national budget for the financial year

    • C.

      The person having under his leadership 1000.

    • D.

      Legal entities engaged in private enterprise with an annual average number of employees over 50 people or a total value of assets for the year more than 300,000-fold MCI established by law on the national budget for the financial year.

    • E.

      Businesses.

    Correct Answer
    B. Legal entities engaged in private enterprise with an annual average number of employees over 250 people, or a total value of assets for year more than 325 000 monthly calculation index set forth by law on national budget for the financial year
    Explanation
    The subject of a large entrepreneurship is legal entities engaged in private enterprise with an annual average number of employees over 250 people, or a total value of assets for the year more than 325,000 monthly calculation index set forth by law on the national budget for the financial year. This means that the focus is on businesses that have a significant number of employees or a high value of assets, indicating a large scale of operation.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Madi.14.04b
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