Microbiology And Decontamination Quiz Questions!

32 Questions | By Shane2190 | Last updated: Mar 21, 2022 | Total Attempts: 716

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Microbiology And Decontamination Quiz Questions! - Quiz

It’s fair to say that the scariest organism as a person can come up against face-to-face is probably a shark or a bear, but sometimes you’ll find that the creatures you can’t see are often the most dangerous. In the following quiz on the study of microbiology, we’ll be taking a look at those such microorganisms and seeing if you know the facts about decontamination as well as you should.

Questions and Answers

1.

About how many people die each year in the United States from hospital-acquired infections (HAIs)?
- A.
  
  90,000
- B.
  
  250,000
- C.
  
  5,000
- D.
  
  25,000
2.

Approximately what percent of patients receiving mechanical ventilation develop pneumonia as a complication?
- A.
  
  15%
- B.
  
  25%
- C.
  
  1%
- D.
  
  10%
3.

Which of the following is considered the primary source of infection in the health care setting?
- A.
  
  Medical equipment
- B.
  
  Humans
- C.
  
  Carpet
- D.
  
  Food and water
4.

How do endotracheal tubes increase the risk of infection?
- A.
  
  By reducing neutrophil effectiveness
- B.
  
  Providing surfaces for biofilms to develop
- C.
  
  impeding local host defenses
- D.
  
  Both A and B
5.

All of the following factors increase the risk of surgical patients for developing postoperative pneumonia except:
- A.
  
  History of smoking
- B.
  
  Prolonged intubation
- C.
  
  Obesity
- D.
  
  All the above
- E.
6.

What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
- A.
  
  Airborne transmission
- B.
  
  Surgical transmission
- C.
  
  Indirect contact
- D.
  
  Droplet transmission
7.

Which of the following is an example of indirect contact transmission involving fomites?
- A.
  
  Drinking tap water
- B.
  
  Inhaling tuberculosis pathogens in the emergency department
- C.
  
  Use of a sterile needle on a pneumonia patient
- D.
  
  Use of a dirty nebulizer on another patient
8.

If you are caring for a patient who is suspected of having SARS, at what distance from the patient is it recommended to wear an effective filtration mask?
- A.
  
  12 feet
- B.
  
  15 feet
- C.
  
  10 feet
- D.
  
  6 feet
9.

Which of the following diseases is transmitted primarily by airborne transmission?
- A.
  
  Smallpox
- B.
  
  All the above
- C.
  
  Tuberculosis
- D.
  
  Measles
10.

What techniques are used by most hospitals to reduce host susceptibility to infection?
- A.
  
  Surveillance
- B.
  
  Immunization
- C.
  
  Chemoprophylaxis
- D.
  
  Both A and B
11.

What vaccination does OSHA require hospital employers to provide?
- A.
  
  Hepatitis B
- B.
  
  Streptococcus pneumoniae
- C.
  
  Tuberculosis
- D.
  
  Smallpox
12.

Exposure to which of the following organisms calls for postexposure chemoprophylaxis?
- A.
  
  B. anthracis
- B.
  
  N. meningitides
- C.
  
  B. pertussis
- D.
  
  All the above
- E.
13.

What is the first step in equipment processing for reuse on another patient?
- A.
  
  Disinfecting the equipment
- B.
  
  Sterilizing the equipment
- C.
  
  Drying the equipment
- D.
  
  Cleaning the equipment
14.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of soaps to clean equipment?
- A.
  
  Soaps have good bactericidal activity.
- B.
  
  Soaps can help remove organic material.
- C.
  
  Soaps act by lowering the surface tension.
- D.
  
  Soaps work poorly in hard water.
15.

What should be used to wipe down the surface of devices that cannot be immersed in water?
- A.
  
  Strong detergent
- B.
  
  Bleach
- C.
  
  70% ethyl alcohol
- D.
  
  Warm soapy water
16.

Which of the following organisms is NOT destroyed by a disinfection agent?
- A.
  
  Gram-positive rods
- B.
  
  Viruses
- C.
  
  Bacterial spores
- D.
  
  Gram-negative cocci
17.

What solution should be used to disinfect the surfaces of the room of a patient who was infected with C. difficile?
- A.
  
  1% sodium benzoate
- B.
  
  5% iodine solution
- C.
  
  70% ethyl alcohol
- D.
  
  5.25% sodium hypochlorite
18.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of alcohol disinfectants?
- A.
  
  They can damage rubber tubing.
- B.
  
  They are considered sporicidal.
- C.
  
  Their activity drops when diluted below 50% concentration
- D.
  
  Alcohols are good for surface cleaning of stethoscope bells and diaphragms.
19.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of phenolics as a disinfectant?
- A.
  
  They are ineffective on surfaces shortly after application.
- B.
  
  They cause tissue irritation.
- C.
  
  They are fungicidal.
- D.
  
  They are bactericidal.
20.

Which of the following characteristics is true for iodophors as disinfectants?
- A.
  
  Less irritating to tissue
- B.
  
  Water soluble
- C.
  
  Nonstaining
- D.
  
  All the above
21.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of glutaraldehyde?
- A.
  
  It is not used for disinfection on surfaces due to cost.
- B.
  
  It can cause significant tissue inflammation in workers who use it.
- C.
  
  It is a true sterilizing agent when used properly.
- D.
  
  It can retain activity up to 90 days once activated
22.

What is the recommended dilution level of bleach according to the CDC for cleaning up blood spills?
- A.
  
  1:10
- B.
  
  1:20
- C.
  
  1:1
- D.
  
  1:5
23.

What is the most common, efficient, and easiest sterilization method?
- A.
  
  Steam sterilization
- B.
  
  Use of hydrochlorofluorcarbon
- C.
  
  Flash sterilization
- D.
  
  ETO
24.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of ETO for sterilization?
- A.
  
  Acute exposure is of little consequence.
- B.
  
  It is useful for equipment that cannot be autoclaved.
- C.
  
  Will penetrate prewrapping.
- D.
  
  It is harmless to rubber and plastics.
25.

Which of the following is the most common source of patient infections?
- A.
  
  Internal circuits of a ventilator
- B.
  
  Oxygen therapy devices
- C.
  
  Large-volume nebulizers
- D.
  
  Small-volume nebulizers