Microbiology And Decontamination Quiz Questions!

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Microbiology And Decontamination Quiz Questions! - Quiz

It’s fair to say that the scariest organism as a person can come up against face-to-face is probably a shark or a bear, but sometimes you’ll find that the creatures you can’t see are often the most dangerous. In the following quiz on the study of microbiology, we’ll be taking a look at those such microorganisms and seeing if you know the facts about decontamination as well as you should.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    About how many people die each year in the United States from hospital-acquired infections (HAIs)?

    • A.

      90,000

    • B.

      250,000

    • C.

      5,000

    • D.

      25,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 90,000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90,000. This suggests that approximately 90,000 people die each year in the United States from hospital-acquired infections (HAIs). This indicates that HAIs are a significant cause of mortality in the country.

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  • 2. 

    Approximately what percent of patients receiving mechanical ventilation develop pneumonia as a complication?

    • A.

      15%

    • B.

      25%

    • C.

      1%

    • D.

      10%

    Correct Answer
    B. 25%
    Explanation
    Approximately 25% of patients receiving mechanical ventilation develop pneumonia as a complication. This suggests that a significant proportion of patients who undergo mechanical ventilation are at risk of developing pneumonia. Pneumonia is a common complication in patients on mechanical ventilation due to factors such as the use of invasive devices, compromised immune systems, and prolonged periods of immobility. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor and implement preventive measures to reduce the incidence of pneumonia in these patients.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is considered the primary source of infection in the health care setting?

    • A.

      Medical equipment

    • B.

      Humans

    • C.

      Carpet

    • D.

      Food and water

    Correct Answer
    B. Humans
    Explanation
    In the healthcare setting, humans are considered the primary source of infection. This is because humans can carry and transmit various infectious diseases through direct contact, respiratory droplets, or contaminated surfaces. Medical equipment, carpet, food, and water can also contribute to the spread of infections, but they are not considered the primary source.

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  • 4. 

    How do endotracheal tubes increase the risk of infection?

    • A.

      By reducing neutrophil effectiveness

    • B.

      Providing surfaces for biofilms to develop

    • C.

      impeding local host defenses

    • D.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Endotracheal tubes increase the risk of infection by both reducing neutrophil effectiveness and providing surfaces for biofilms to develop. Neutrophils are an important component of the immune system that help fight off infections, so when their effectiveness is reduced, it becomes easier for infections to occur. Additionally, the presence of endotracheal tubes creates a surface for biofilms, which are communities of bacteria, to develop. These biofilms can be difficult to remove and can further increase the risk of infection.

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  • 5. 

    All of the following factors increase the risk of surgical patients for developing postoperative pneumonia except:

    • A.

      History of smoking

    • B.

      Prolonged intubation

    • C.

      Obesity

    • D.

      All the above

    • E.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prolonged intubation
    Explanation
    Prolonged intubation is not a risk factor for surgical patients developing postoperative pneumonia. This means that patients who have been intubated for a longer period of time are not at an increased risk for developing pneumonia after surgery. The other factors listed - history of smoking and obesity - are known risk factors for postoperative pneumonia.

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  • 6. 

    What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?

    • A.

      Airborne transmission

    • B.

      Surgical transmission

    • C.

      Indirect contact

    • D.

      Droplet transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Indirect contact
    Explanation
    Indirect contact is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting. This occurs when a person comes into contact with contaminated surfaces or objects, such as medical equipment, bed linens, or clothing. The pathogens can then be transferred to the person's hands, and if they touch their face or other susceptible areas, they can become infected. This mode of transmission is particularly concerning in healthcare settings, as it can lead to the spread of infections among patients and healthcare workers if proper hand hygiene and disinfection practices are not followed.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is an example of indirect contact transmission involving fomites?

    • A.

      Drinking tap water

    • B.

      Inhaling tuberculosis pathogens in the emergency department

    • C.

      Use of a sterile needle on a pneumonia patient

    • D.

      Use of a dirty nebulizer on another patient

    Correct Answer
    D. Use of a dirty nebulizer on another patient
    Explanation
    Indirect contact transmission involves the transfer of pathogens through an intermediary object or surface, known as fomites. In this case, the use of a dirty nebulizer on another patient is an example of indirect contact transmission involving fomites. The dirty nebulizer acts as a fomite, carrying the pathogens from one patient to another, potentially spreading infection.

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  • 8. 

    If you are caring for a patient who is suspected of having SARS, at what distance from the patient is it recommended to wear an effective filtration mask?

    • A.

      12 feet

    • B.

      15 feet

    • C.

      10 feet

    • D.

      6 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 6 feet
    Explanation
    The recommended distance to wear an effective filtration mask when caring for a patient suspected of having SARS is 6 feet. This distance helps to minimize the risk of transmission of the virus through respiratory droplets. By maintaining this distance, healthcare workers can protect themselves and others from potential infection.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following diseases is transmitted primarily by airborne transmission?

    • A.

      Smallpox

    • B.

      All the above

    • C.

      Tuberculosis

    • D.

      Measles

    Correct Answer
    B. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all the above" because smallpox, tuberculosis, and measles can all be transmitted through airborne transmission. This means that the diseases can spread through droplets in the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne transmission is a common mode of transmission for these diseases and can lead to widespread outbreaks if proper precautions are not taken.

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  • 10. 

    What techniques are used by most hospitals to reduce host susceptibility to infection?

    • A.

      Surveillance

    • B.

      Immunization

    • C.

      Chemoprophylaxis

    • D.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Most hospitals use both surveillance and immunization techniques to reduce host susceptibility to infection. Surveillance involves monitoring and tracking infections within the hospital, allowing for early detection and prevention of outbreaks. Immunization involves administering vaccines to patients and healthcare workers to protect against specific infections. By combining these two techniques, hospitals can effectively reduce the risk of infection and protect the health of both patients and staff.

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  • 11. 

    What vaccination does OSHA require hospital employers to provide?

    • A.

      Hepatitis B

    • B.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • C.

      Tuberculosis

    • D.

      Smallpox

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis B
    Explanation
    OSHA, which stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration, requires hospital employers to provide hepatitis B vaccination. This is because healthcare workers are at a higher risk of exposure to the hepatitis B virus due to their contact with blood and other bodily fluids. Providing this vaccination helps protect healthcare workers from contracting and spreading the virus in the workplace. Streptococcus pneumoniae, tuberculosis, and smallpox are not specifically mentioned as vaccinations required by OSHA for hospital employers.

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  • 12. 

    Exposure to which of the following organisms calls for postexposure chemoprophylaxis?

    • A.

      B. anthracis

    • B.

      N. meningitides

    • C.

      B. pertussis

    • D.

      All the above

    • E.

    Correct Answer
    B. N. meningitides
    Explanation
    Exposure to Neisseria meningitidis calls for postexposure chemoprophylaxis. This is because N. meningitidis is the causative agent of meningococcal disease, which can be transmitted through respiratory droplets or direct contact with respiratory secretions. Postexposure chemoprophylaxis is recommended for individuals who have had close contact with someone infected with N. meningitidis in order to prevent the spread of the bacteria and the development of meningococcal disease.

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  • 13. 

    What is the first step in equipment processing for reuse on another patient?

    • A.

      Disinfecting the equipment

    • B.

      Sterilizing the equipment

    • C.

      Drying the equipment

    • D.

      Cleaning the equipment

    Correct Answer
    D. Cleaning the equipment
    Explanation
    The first step in equipment processing for reuse on another patient is cleaning the equipment. This is because cleaning removes dirt, debris, and organic material from the equipment, which is essential before disinfection or sterilization can take place. Disinfecting and sterilizing the equipment are subsequent steps in the process, but they cannot be effectively carried out without first cleaning the equipment. Drying the equipment is also important to prevent the growth of bacteria or fungi.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of soaps to clean equipment?

    • A.

      Soaps have good bactericidal activity.

    • B.

      Soaps can help remove organic material.

    • C.

      Soaps act by lowering the surface tension.

    • D.

      Soaps work poorly in hard water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Soaps have good bactericidal activity.
    Explanation
    Soaps have good bactericidal activity. This statement is not true regarding the use of soaps to clean equipment. Soaps are not effective in killing bacteria. They primarily work by lowering the surface tension and helping to remove organic material from surfaces. Bactericidal activity is typically associated with disinfectants or antibacterial agents, not soaps.

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  • 15. 

    What should be used to wipe down the surface of devices that cannot be immersed in water?

    • A.

      Strong detergent

    • B.

      Bleach

    • C.

      70% ethyl alcohol

    • D.

      Warm soapy water

    Correct Answer
    C. 70% ethyl alcohol
    Explanation
    70% ethyl alcohol should be used to wipe down the surface of devices that cannot be immersed in water. Ethyl alcohol is an effective disinfectant that can kill a wide range of bacteria and viruses. It evaporates quickly, leaving no residue on the surface. This makes it a suitable choice for cleaning electronic devices, as it will not damage the sensitive components. Strong detergent, bleach, and warm soapy water may be too harsh for these devices and can cause damage.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following organisms is NOT destroyed by a disinfection agent?

    • A.

      Gram-positive rods

    • B.

      Viruses

    • C.

      Bacterial spores

    • D.

      Gram-negative cocci

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacterial spores
    Explanation
    Bacterial spores are not destroyed by disinfection agents. Disinfection agents are designed to kill or inactivate microorganisms, but bacterial spores have a unique protective coating that allows them to survive harsh conditions, including disinfection. This protective coating, known as a spore coat, makes bacterial spores highly resistant to disinfection agents. Therefore, while disinfection agents may effectively kill other types of microorganisms such as gram-positive rods, gram-negative cocci, and viruses, they are not effective against bacterial spores.

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  • 17. 

    What solution should be used to disinfect the surfaces of the room of a patient who was infected with C. difficile?

    • A.

      1% sodium benzoate

    • B.

      5% iodine solution

    • C.

      70% ethyl alcohol

    • D.

      5.25% sodium hypochlorite

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite
    Explanation
    5.25% sodium hypochlorite should be used to disinfect the surfaces of the room of a patient who was infected with C. difficile. Sodium hypochlorite, commonly known as bleach, is a strong disinfectant that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, viruses, and spores. C. difficile is a highly contagious bacterium that can cause severe diarrhea and other gastrointestinal infections. Sodium hypochlorite has been proven to effectively kill C. difficile spores and prevent the spread of infection. The other options, such as 1% sodium benzoate, 5% iodine solution, and 70% ethyl alcohol, may not be as effective in killing C. difficile spores.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of alcohol disinfectants?

    • A.

      They can damage rubber tubing.

    • B.

      They are considered sporicidal.

    • C.

      Their activity drops when diluted below 50% concentration

    • D.

      Alcohols are good for surface cleaning of stethoscope bells and diaphragms.

    Correct Answer
    B. They are considered sporicidal.
    Explanation
    Alcohol disinfectants are not considered sporicidal. Sporicidal disinfectants are specifically designed to kill spores, which are highly resistant forms of bacteria. Alcohol disinfectants are effective against many types of bacteria, viruses, and fungi, but they are not effective against spores.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of phenolics as a disinfectant?

    • A.

      They are ineffective on surfaces shortly after application.

    • B.

      They cause tissue irritation.

    • C.

      They are fungicidal.

    • D.

      They are bactericidal.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are ineffective on surfaces shortly after application.
    Explanation
    Phenolics are known for their effectiveness as a disinfectant even after application. They have a long-lasting residual effect on surfaces, making them effective for prolonged periods. This statement contradicts the properties of phenolics as a disinfectant, as they are not ineffective shortly after application.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following characteristics is true for iodophors as disinfectants?

    • A.

      Less irritating to tissue

    • B.

      Water soluble

    • C.

      Nonstaining

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    Iodophors are disinfectants that possess several characteristics. Firstly, they are less irritating to tissue compared to other disinfectants, making them suitable for use on sensitive areas of the body. Secondly, iodophors are water-soluble, allowing them to easily dissolve and spread in water for effective disinfection. Lastly, iodophors are nonstaining, meaning they do not leave behind any visible residue or discoloration on surfaces. Therefore, all of the given characteristics - less irritating to tissue, water soluble, and nonstaining - are true for iodophors as disinfectants.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of glutaraldehyde?

    • A.

      It is not used for disinfection on surfaces due to cost.

    • B.

      It can cause significant tissue inflammation in workers who use it.

    • C.

      It is a true sterilizing agent when used properly.

    • D.

      It can retain activity up to 90 days once activated

    Correct Answer
    D. It can retain activity up to 90 days once activated
    Explanation
    Glutaraldehyde is a commonly used disinfectant and sterilizing agent in healthcare settings. However, the statement that it can retain activity up to 90 days once activated is not true. Glutaraldehyde solutions typically have a limited shelf life once activated and their effectiveness decreases over time. Therefore, it is important to follow the manufacturer's instructions and discard any unused solution after the recommended period to ensure proper disinfection and sterilization.

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  • 22. 

    What is the recommended dilution level of bleach according to the CDC for cleaning up blood spills?

    • A.

      1:10

    • B.

      1:20

    • C.

      1:1

    • D.

      1:5

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:10
    Explanation
    The recommended dilution level of bleach according to the CDC for cleaning up blood spills is 1:10. This means that for every 1 part of bleach, 10 parts of water should be used. This dilution level is effective in killing most bacteria and viruses that may be present in the blood spill, helping to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.

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  • 23. 

    What is the most common, efficient, and easiest sterilization method?

    • A.

      Steam sterilization

    • B.

      Use of hydrochlorofluorcarbon

    • C.

      Flash sterilization

    • D.

      ETO

    Correct Answer
    A. Steam sterilization
    Explanation
    Steam sterilization is the most common, efficient, and easiest sterilization method because it is effective in killing microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and spores. It is widely used in healthcare facilities and laboratories due to its reliability, low cost, and ease of use. Steam sterilization works by exposing the items to high temperature and pressure, which destroys the microorganisms. It is also versatile as it can be used for a wide range of materials and instruments without causing damage. Additionally, steam sterilization does not require the use of chemicals, making it a safer option for sterilization.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of ETO for sterilization?

    • A.

      Acute exposure is of little consequence.

    • B.

      It is useful for equipment that cannot be autoclaved.

    • C.

      Will penetrate prewrapping.

    • D.

      It is harmless to rubber and plastics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute exposure is of little consequence.
    Explanation
    Acute exposure to ETO is not of little consequence, meaning that it can have harmful effects on individuals who are exposed to it. This statement contradicts the other statements, which mention the usefulness of ETO for sterilizing equipment that cannot be autoclaved, its ability to penetrate prewrapping, and its harmlessness to rubber and plastics.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is the most common source of patient infections?

    • A.

      Internal circuits of a ventilator

    • B.

      Oxygen therapy devices

    • C.

      Large-volume nebulizers

    • D.

      Small-volume nebulizers

    Correct Answer
    C. Large-volume nebulizers
    Explanation
    Large-volume nebulizers are the most common source of patient infections.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following steps for disinfection of a bronchoscope is NOT true?

    • A.

      The device is stored lying flat to promote drying.

    • B.

      Drying techniques can include forced air.

    • C.

      The first step is cleaning the scope.

    • D.

      Disinfection is done by immersion in a liquid disinfectant

    Correct Answer
    A. The device is stored lying flat to promote drying.
    Explanation
    The device is not stored lying flat to promote drying. Instead, it should be stored in a vertical position to allow for proper drainage and drying.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following organisms has been associated with health care–associated infections in patients using a poorly disinfected bronchoscope?

    • A.

      M. tuberculosis

    • B.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • C.

      Klebsiella

    • D.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both M. tuberculosis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa have been associated with health care-associated infections in patients using a poorly disinfected bronchoscope. M. tuberculosis is a bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious respiratory infection. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a bacterium that can cause infections in the respiratory tract, urinary tract, and other parts of the body. Both organisms can survive on contaminated bronchoscopes and infect patients if proper disinfection protocols are not followed.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the use of disposable respiratory care equipment?

    • A.

      Reusing the equipment is often done

    • B.

      Many quality issues exist.

    • C.

      Recent research supports their use as a cost-effective measure

    • D.

      All of the above are true.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above are true.
    Explanation
    The statement "Reusing the equipment is often done" is true as disposable respiratory care equipment is sometimes reused despite being designed for single-use. The statement "Many quality issues exist" is also true as disposable equipment may have manufacturing defects or may not meet quality standards. Lastly, the statement "Recent research supports their use as a cost-effective measure" is true as studies have shown that using disposable respiratory care equipment can be cost-effective compared to other alternatives.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT a category under Expanded Precautions?

    • A.

      Standard precautions

    • B.

      Airborne Infection Isolation

    • C.

      Contact precautions

    • D.

      Droplet precautions

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard precautions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard precautions. Standard precautions refer to the basic level of infection control measures that should be applied to all patients in healthcare settings, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status. It includes practices such as hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette. On the other hand, Expanded Precautions are additional infection control measures that are specific to certain types of infections or modes of transmission. These include Airborne Infection Isolation, Contact precautions, and Droplet precautions.

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  • 30. 

    What is the minimum recommended time for handwashing in the health care environment?

    • A.

      30 seconds

    • B.

      60 seconds

    • C.

      5 seconds

    • D.

      15 seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 seconds
    Explanation
    In the health care environment, the minimum recommended time for handwashing is 15 seconds. This duration ensures that the hands are thoroughly cleaned and reduces the risk of spreading infections. Washing hands for less than 15 seconds may not effectively remove all the bacteria and viruses present on the hands, while washing for a longer duration may not provide any additional benefits. Therefore, 15 seconds is considered the minimum recommended time for handwashing in the health care setting.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of sterile gloves in the hospital setting?

    • A.

      The same pair can be used on numerous patients if noninvasive procedures are done.

    • B.

      They may have small invisible defects that cause contamination of the user’s hands.

    • C.

      They should not be used as a substitute for handwashing.

    • D.

      They should be worn for all invasive procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. The same pair can be used on numerous patients if noninvasive procedures are done.
    Explanation
    Sterile gloves should not be used on numerous patients, even if noninvasive procedures are being done. This is because there is still a risk of contamination and transmission of pathogens between patients. It is important to change gloves between patients to maintain a sterile environment and prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the five key recommended components of an infection control program in the hospital setting?

    • A.

      Investigation

    • B.

      Reporting

    • C.

      Surveillance

    • D.

      Development

    Correct Answer
    D. Development
    Explanation
    Development is not one of the key recommended components of an infection control program in the hospital setting. The other components, such as investigation, reporting, and surveillance, are essential for identifying, tracking, and controlling infections in a hospital. Development, on the other hand, does not directly contribute to the management and prevention of infections. It may refer to other aspects of hospital operations, but it is not specifically related to infection control.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 09, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Shane2190
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