Mh522-psychology And The Legal System Final Exam

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Mh522-psychology And The Legal System Final Exam - Quiz


final exam for psychology and the legal system course


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1.       What was the name of the case in which a federal court first ruled that psychologists were qualified to serve as expert witnesses in matters involving criminal responsibility?  

    • A.

      Jenkins v. U.S.

    • B.

      Harlow v. U.S.

    • C.

      Nixon v. Indiana

    • D.

      Jackson v. Indiana

    Correct Answer
    A. Jenkins v. U.S.
    Explanation
    Jenkins v. U.S. is the correct answer because it was the case in which a federal court first ruled that psychologists were qualified to serve as expert witnesses in matters involving criminal responsibility. This ruling established the precedent for psychologists to provide their expertise and opinions in court cases related to criminal responsibility.

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  • 2. 

    2. The term dual court system refers to:  

    • A.

      Criminal and civil courts

    • B.

      Trial courts and appellate court

    • C.

      Courts of limited jurisdiction and courts of general jurisdiction

    • D.

      State and federal courts

    Correct Answer
    D. State and federal courts
    Explanation
    The term dual court system refers to the existence of two separate court systems within a country or jurisdiction, with each system having its own set of courts. In the case of the United States, the dual court system refers to the state and federal court systems. The state courts handle cases that fall under state laws, while the federal courts handle cases that involve federal laws or constitutional issues. This division allows for the separation of powers and jurisdiction between the state and federal governments.

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  • 3. 

    3.  Which of the following is not part of the pre-trial stage in a criminal case?  

    • A.

      Preliminary hearing

    • B.

      Evidence suppression hearing

    • C.

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • D.

      B or c, depending on the crime

    Correct Answer
    C. Beyond a reasonable doubt
    Explanation
    Beyond a reasonable doubt is not part of the pre-trial stage in a criminal case. It is the standard of proof that the prosecution must meet during the trial to prove the defendant's guilt. The pre-trial stage includes processes such as the preliminary hearing, where a judge determines if there is enough evidence for the case to proceed, and the evidence suppression hearing, where the defense can challenge the admissibility of certain evidence.

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  • 4. 

    4. At the sentencing stage in a criminal case, forensic psychologists may offer evidence relating to: 

    • A.

      The individual’s competence to be sentenced

    • B.

      Mitigation

    • C.

      The individual's dangerousness

    • D.

      The individual's rehabilitative potential

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    At the sentencing stage in a criminal case, forensic psychologists may offer evidence relating to the individual's competence to be sentenced, mitigation, the individual's dangerousness, and the individual's rehabilitative potential. This means that forensic psychologists can provide information and evaluations regarding the defendant's mental state, any factors that may lessen their culpability or responsibility for the crime, the risk they pose to society, and their potential for rehabilitation. These factors are important in determining an appropriate sentence for the defendant.

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  • 5. 

    5.  What is the burden of proof required to convict someone of a crime?  

    • A.

      Preponderance of the evidence

    • B.

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • C.

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • D.

      B or c, depending on the crime

    Correct Answer
    C. Beyond a reasonable doubt
    Explanation
    The burden of proof required to convict someone of a crime is "beyond a reasonable doubt". This means that the evidence presented must be strong enough to leave no reasonable doubt in the minds of the jurors or judge that the defendant is guilty. It is the highest standard of proof in criminal cases and ensures that the accused is not wrongfully convicted. The prosecution must present evidence that is convincing and establishes the guilt of the defendant beyond any reasonable doubt.

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  • 6. 

    6. In federal courts, the Daubert standard for the admission of expert testimony has replaced the _____ standard.  

    • A.

      Jenkins

    • B.

      Kumho Tire

    • C.

      Joiner

    • D.

      Frye

    Correct Answer
    D. Frye
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Frye. The question is asking about the standard for the admission of expert testimony in federal courts. The Daubert standard is a more recent standard that replaced the Frye standard. Therefore, Frye is the correct answer as it is the standard that has been replaced.

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  • 7. 

    7. Under which condition is the content of a psychological report that has been prepared following a psychological evaluation most likely to be kept confidential?  

    • A.

      When the evaluation was ordered by the judge

    • B.

      When the evaluation was requested and paid for by the defense

    • C.

      When the evaluation was requested by the prosecutor but paid for by the court

    • D.

      When both the prosecutor and defense request the evaluation

    Correct Answer
    B. When the evaluation was requested and paid for by the defense
    Explanation
    When the evaluation is requested and paid for by the defense, it is most likely that the content of the psychological report will be kept confidential. This is because the defense has control over the report and has the authority to decide whether or not to share it with others. In contrast, if the evaluation was ordered by the judge or requested by the prosecutor, there may be a higher likelihood of the report being shared with other parties involved in the legal proceedings.

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  • 8. 

    8. Which of the following statements about ultimate opinion testimony is (are) correct?  

    • A.

      The Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct of the APA strongly discourage such testimony

    • B.

      Courts often want psychologists to provide an opinion on the ultimate issue

    • C.

      Research indicates that the opinions of experts are least influential in pre-trial criminal proceedings

    • D.

      There is lack of consensus among psychologists as to whether such testimony is appropriate

    • E.

      Only b and d are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. Only b and d are correct
    Explanation
    Ultimate opinion testimony refers to providing an opinion on the ultimate issue in a legal case. The Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct of the APA discourage psychologists from providing such testimony, making the first statement incorrect. However, courts often rely on psychologists to provide an opinion on the ultimate issue, making the second statement correct. Research suggests that expert opinions have the least influence in pre-trial criminal proceedings, making the third statement incorrect. There is also a lack of consensus among psychologists regarding the appropriateness of ultimate opinion testimony, making the fourth statement correct. Therefore, the correct answer is that only statements b and d are correct.

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  • 9. 

    9. At which stage of the criminal justice process is competence not an issue?  

    • A.

      Confessing to a crime

    • B.

      Being sentenced

    • C.

      Refusing the insanity defense

    • D.

      A and c only

    • E.

      Competence is an issue at every stage

    Correct Answer
    E. Competence is an issue at every stage
    Explanation
    Competence is an issue at every stage of the criminal justice process. This means that at each step, from confessing to a crime, being sentenced, and refusing the insanity defense, the individual's competence may be called into question. Competence refers to the ability of a person to understand the charges against them, assist in their defense, and comprehend the consequences of their actions. Therefore, it is crucial to assess competence during all stages to ensure a fair and just legal process.

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  • 10. 

    10. American trial procedure is a(n)_____________system of justice  

    • A.

      Inquisitorial

    • B.

      Disruptive

    • C.

      Adversarial

    • D.

      Impractical

    Correct Answer
    C. Adversarial
    Explanation
    The correct answer is adversarial. In an adversarial system of justice, two opposing parties present their arguments and evidence before a neutral judge or jury. The emphasis is on the parties themselves to advocate for their own interests and present their case effectively. This system allows for a fair and balanced examination of the evidence and arguments presented by both sides, ensuring that the truth is more likely to be revealed.

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  • 11. 

    11. The U.S. Supreme Court determined that Gerald Gault  

    • A.

      Was delinquent as determined by the lower courts

    • B.

      Had been denied due process in the juvenile court

    • C.

      Should be punished as an adult

    • D.

      Was guilty beyond a reasonable doubt

    Correct Answer
    B. Had been denied due process in the juvenile court
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "had been denied due process in the juvenile court." This means that the U.S. Supreme Court determined that Gerald Gault had not been given fair treatment or procedural safeguards in the juvenile court system. This suggests that there were violations of his constitutional rights during the proceedings.

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  • 12. 

      12. Under the Daubert standard, what are the three criteria that must be evaluated by the presiding judge?  

    • A.

      Reliability, validity, general acceptance in the scientific community

    • B.

      Validity, legal sufficiency, relevance

    • C.

      General acceptance, reliability, validity

    • D.

      Reliability, relevance, legal sufficiency

    Correct Answer
    D. Reliability, relevance, legal sufficiency
    Explanation
    Under the Daubert standard, the presiding judge must evaluate the reliability, relevance, and legal sufficiency of the evidence. The reliability criterion ensures that the evidence is based on sound scientific principles and methods. The relevance criterion ensures that the evidence is directly related to the case and will assist the trier of fact in reaching a decision. The legal sufficiency criterion ensures that the evidence meets the legal requirements for admissibility, such as being obtained legally and not being unduly prejudicial.

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  • 13. 

    13.  The most common of the forensic mental health assessments performed for the criminal courts involves the issue of:  

    • A.

      Adjudicative competency

    • B.

      Criminal responsibility

    • C.

      Sex offender evaluation at sentencing

    • D.

      Amenability for rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjudicative competency
    Explanation
    The most common forensic mental health assessment performed for the criminal courts is adjudicative competency. This assessment evaluates an individual's ability to understand and participate in legal proceedings, such as their understanding of the charges against them, their ability to assist in their defense, and their comprehension of the potential consequences. It helps determine if the individual is mentally capable of standing trial and making informed decisions throughout the legal process.

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  • 14. 

    14. The case in which the U.S. Supreme Court set the standard for determining competency to stand trial was

    • A.

      Dusky v. U.S.

    • B.

      Godinez v. Moran

    • C.

      Cooper v. Oklahoma

    • D.

      Jackson v. Indiana

    Correct Answer
    A. Dusky v. U.S.
    Explanation
    Dusky v. U.S. is the correct answer because it was the case in which the U.S. Supreme Court established the standard for determining competency to stand trial. In this case, the court ruled that a defendant must have a rational and factual understanding of the proceedings against them and be able to effectively assist in their defense. This standard is still used today in determining whether a defendant is competent to stand trial.

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  • 15. 

    15. If a state requires a defendant to prove his or her incompetence, what is the highest standard of proof that can be required?  

    • A.

      Preponderance of the evidence

    • B.

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • C.

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • D.

      Without all reasonable doubt

    Correct Answer
    A. Preponderance of the evidence
    Explanation
    If a state requires a defendant to prove his or her incompetence, the highest standard of proof that can be required is "preponderance of the evidence." This means that the defendant must show that it is more likely than not that they are incompetent. This standard is lower than "clear and convincing evidence" and "beyond a reasonable doubt," which are typically used in criminal cases. "Without all reasonable doubt" is not a recognized standard of proof.

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  • 16. 

    16. Approximately what proportion of defendants referred for competency evaluations is ultimately found incompetent?  

    • A.

      10%

    • B.

      15-20%

    • C.

      25-30%

    • D.

      40-50%

    Correct Answer
    B. 15-20%
    Explanation
    Approximately 15-20% of defendants referred for competency evaluations are ultimately found incompetent. This means that out of all the defendants who undergo evaluations to determine their competency, a significant proportion falls within this range and is deemed unfit to stand trial. It suggests that there is a notable number of individuals who are unable to understand the legal proceedings or assist in their defense, leading to a finding of incompetence.

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  • 17. 

    17. In Sell v. U.S., the Supreme Court ruled that defendants found Incompetent to Stand Trial (IST):

    • A.

      Cannot be forced to take psychoactive medication intended to restore them to competency

    • B.

      Can be forced to take medication only if they are charged with a felony

    • C.

      Are entitled to a careful review of the trial-related risks and side effects of the medication before medication is ordered

    • D.

      Have a right to go to trial in a non-medicated state

    Correct Answer
    C. Are entitled to a careful review of the trial-related risks and side effects of the medication before medication is ordered
    Explanation
    Defendants found Incompetent to Stand Trial (IST) in Sell v. U.S. have the right to a careful review of the trial-related risks and side effects of medication before it is ordered. This means that before being forced to take psychoactive medication intended to restore their competency, defendants must be informed of the potential risks and side effects associated with the medication. This ruling ensures that defendants are fully aware of the potential consequences of taking medication and allows them to make an informed decision about their treatment.

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  • 18. 

    18. Since the Hinckley case:  

    • A.

      Cases involving the insanity defense have become much more common

    • B.

      Both the federal government and many states have made it more difficult for defendants claiming insanity

    • C.

      Juries have been more sympathetic to defendants claiming insanity

    • D.

      About twelve states have abolished the insanity defense

    Correct Answer
    B. Both the federal government and many states have made it more difficult for defendants claiming insanity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that both the federal government and many states have made it more difficult for defendants claiming insanity. This can be inferred from the information given in the question, which states that since the Hinckley case, cases involving the insanity defense have become more common and about twelve states have abolished the insanity defense. Therefore, it can be concluded that in response to these trends, both the federal government and many states have made it more difficult for defendants claiming insanity.

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  • 19. 

    19. A mitigating factor is one which:  

    • A.

      Lessens the individual’s responsibility for an act

    • B.

      Renders an act even more heinous than previously thought

    • C.

      Suggests that an individual is dangerous to society

    • D.

      Absolves the individual of guilt

    Correct Answer
    A. Lessens the individual’s responsibility for an act
    Explanation
    A mitigating factor is something that reduces or lessens the degree of responsibility or culpability of an individual for an act. It implies that while the individual may still be held accountable for their actions, there are circumstances or factors that make their responsibility less severe or significant. This suggests that the individual's level of guilt or blame for the act is diminished due to certain mitigating circumstances.

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  • 20. 

    20. In Kansas v. Crane, the Supreme Court ruled that, in order to commit sex offenders under sexually violent predator (SVP) statutes, the state had to demonstrate:  

    • A.

      That the sex offender was seriously mentally ill

    • B.

      That the offender was unable to control his behavior

    • C.

      That the offender had some inability to control his behavior

    • D.

      That the offender showed no remorse for his crimes

    Correct Answer
    C. That the offender had some inability to control his behavior
    Explanation
    The Supreme Court ruled in Kansas v. Crane that in order to commit sex offenders under sexually violent predator (SVP) statutes, the state had to demonstrate that the offender had some inability to control his behavior. This means that the state had to prove that the offender had difficulty restraining or managing their actions related to sexual offenses. This ruling acknowledges that not all sex offenders may be completely unable to control their behavior, but they still possess some level of inability to do so.

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  • 21. 

    21. Civil courts include all but which of the following?  

    • A.

      Juvenile courts

    • B.

      Family courts

    • C.

      Probate courts

    • D.

      Municipal courts

    Correct Answer
    D. Municipal courts
    Explanation
    Civil courts handle non-criminal cases involving disputes between individuals or organizations. Juvenile courts deal with cases involving minors, family courts handle matters such as divorce and child custody, and probate courts handle matters related to wills and estates. Municipal courts, on the other hand, handle local ordinance violations and minor criminal offenses. Therefore, the correct answer is municipal courts because they are not considered as part of the civil court system.

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  • 22. 

    22. According to the doctrine of parens patriae, the state can intervene in the lives of children:  

    • A.

      Even over the objection of their parents

    • B.

      If they are perceived to be in danger

    • C.

      In the best interest of the children

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The doctrine of parens patriae allows the state to intervene in the lives of children in various circumstances. This includes situations where the parents object, if the children are perceived to be in danger, and when it is deemed to be in the best interest of the children. In all of these cases, the state has the authority to step in and take action to protect and care for the children.

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  • 23. 

    23.  In Kent v. U.S., the Supreme Court ruled that:  

    • A.

      Juveniles had a right to be represented by lawyers in delinquency hearings

    • B.

      The doctrine of parens patriae should be abolished

    • C.

      Judges had to hold hearings before transferring juveniles to criminal court

    • D.

      Juveniles charged with status offenses could not be institutionalized

    Correct Answer
    C. Judges had to hold hearings before transferring juveniles to criminal court
    Explanation
    In Kent v. U.S., the Supreme Court ruled that judges had to hold hearings before transferring juveniles to criminal court. This means that before a juvenile can be transferred to adult criminal court, a judge must conduct a hearing to determine if the transfer is appropriate. This ruling ensures that juveniles are given due process and their individual circumstances are taken into account before facing adult criminal consequences.

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  • 24. 

    24. Which of the following statements about custodial interrogation is correct?  

    • A.

      Juveniles often waive their right to have a lawyer present during custodial interrogation.

    • B.

      Juveniles have a Constitutional right to have their parents/guardians present, but not lawyers, during custodial interrogation.

    • C.

      Under the U.S. Constitution, police are not allowed to question juveniles without their parents or guardians present.

    • D.

      Under the U.S. Constitution, police are not allowed to question juveniles without a lawyer present.

    Correct Answer
    A. Juveniles often waive their right to have a lawyer present during custodial interrogation.
    Explanation
    Juveniles often waive their right to have a lawyer present during custodial interrogation. This means that juveniles, despite having the right to have a lawyer present, choose to give up this right and proceed with the interrogation without legal representation.

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  • 25. 

    25. Research by Grisso indicates that:  

    • A.

      Parents are the best protectors of their children’s legal rights

    • B.

      Many juveniles—particularly those 14 and younger—do not understand their constitutional rights

    • C.

      Juveniles today are aware of their rights and typically refuse to waive them

    • D.

      There are few age differences among juveniles in their ability to understand constitutional rights

    Correct Answer
    B. Many juveniles—particularly those 14 and younger—do not understand their constitutional rights
    Explanation
    Grisso's research suggests that a significant number of juveniles, especially those who are 14 years old or younger, lack an understanding of their constitutional rights. This implies that they may not fully comprehend their legal rights when involved in legal proceedings.

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  • 26. 

    26. In the MacArthur Juvenile Competence Study, which age group did not differ significantly from young adults in their competence-relevant abilities?  

    • A.

      11-13 year olds

    • B.

      14-15 year olds

    • C.

      16-17 year olds

    • D.

      No answer is correct. All groups differed from young adults.

    Correct Answer
    C. 16-17 year olds
    Explanation
    In the MacArthur Juvenile Competence Study, the 16-17 year olds did not differ significantly from young adults in their competence-relevant abilities. This means that the 16-17 year olds showed similar levels of competence as the young adults in the study.

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  • 27. 

    27. Which of the following “competencies” requires only minimal ability?  

    • A.

      Competency to consent to treatment

    • B.

      Competency to make a will

    • C.

      Competency to commit oneself to a mental institution

    • D.

      Competency to hasten one's death

    Correct Answer
    B. Competency to make a will
    Explanation
    The competency to make a will requires only minimal ability because it primarily involves understanding and expressing one's wishes regarding the distribution of their assets after death. While it is important to have a sound mind and legal capacity to make a will, the level of decision-making and understanding required for this competency is generally considered to be lower compared to the other options listed. Competency to consent to treatment, commit oneself to a mental institution, and hasten one's death involve more complex decision-making and understanding of the consequences involved.

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  • 28. 

    28. "Mens rea" refers to:  

    • A.

      A criminal state of mind

    • B.

      A voluntary act

    • C.

      Not knowing that a criminal act was wrong

    • D.

      Intentional behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. A criminal state of mind
    Explanation
    "Mens rea" refers to a criminal state of mind. This term is used in legal contexts to describe the mental state or intention of a person while committing a crime. It focuses on the mental element of a crime, such as the knowledge, intention, or recklessness of the offender. Understanding the offender's state of mind is crucial in determining their culpability and the appropriate punishment for their actions.

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  • 29. 

    29. "Actus rea" refers to:  

    • A.

      A criminal state of mind

    • B.

      Conduct

    • C.

      Not knowing that a criminal act was wrong

    • D.

      Unintentional behavior

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct
    Explanation
    The term "actus rea" refers to conduct. In criminal law, it refers to the physical act or behavior that constitutes a crime. It is one of the two elements that must be proven in order to establish criminal liability, the other being the "mens rea" or the mental state of the defendant. "Actus rea" focuses on the external actions of the individual, while "mens rea" relates to their state of mind. Therefore, conduct is the correct answer as it accurately represents the meaning of "actus rea" in the context of criminal law.

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  • 30. 

    30. Juveniles are allowed to be tried as adults for certain crimes by:  

    • A.

      All states

    • B.

      About 50 percent of states

    • C.

      About 25 percent of states

    • D.

      About 5 percent of states

    Correct Answer
    A. All states
    Explanation
    Juveniles being allowed to be tried as adults for certain crimes in all states means that regardless of the state, there are laws in place that permit the prosecution of juveniles as adults in specific cases. This suggests that there is a widespread acceptance of this practice across the United States, with no state exempting juveniles from being tried as adults for certain offenses.

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  • 31. 

    31. Status offenses are:  

    • A.

      Acts that can be committed by either adults or juveniles

    • B.

      Acts that can be committed by either adults or juveniles

    • C.

      Juvenile offenses that must be adjudicated in adult court

    • D.

      UCR index crimes

    Correct Answer
    B. Acts that can be committed by either adults or juveniles
    Explanation
    Status offenses are acts that can be committed by either adults or juveniles. This means that these offenses are not illegal if committed by adults, but they are considered offenses when committed by juveniles. Examples of status offenses include truancy, curfew violations, and underage drinking. The purpose of treating these offenses differently for juveniles is to provide them with guidance and support rather than punishment, recognizing their unique needs and potential for rehabilitation.

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  • 32. 

    32. __________ is the status offense that involves the greatest proportion of girls.  

    • A.

      Truancy

    • B.

      Ungovernability

    • C.

      Underage drinking

    • D.

      Running away

    Correct Answer
    D. Running away
    Explanation
    Running away is the status offense that involves the greatest proportion of girls. This means that out of all the status offenses, such as truancy, ungovernability, and underage drinking, running away is the one that girls are most likely to engage in. This could be due to various reasons such as family issues, abuse, or other personal circumstances that lead girls to run away from home.

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  • 33. 

    33. All of the following are UCR index crimes except:  

    • A.

      Murder and non-negligent manslaughter

    • B.

      Forcible rape

    • C.

      Stalking

    • D.

      Aggravated assault

    Correct Answer
    C. Stalking
    Explanation
    Stalking is not considered one of the UCR (Uniform Crime Reporting) index crimes. The UCR index crimes are a set of serious offenses that are commonly reported to law enforcement agencies. They include murder and non-negligent manslaughter, forcible rape, aggravated assault, and other crimes such as robbery, burglary, and motor vehicle theft. Stalking, while a serious offense, is not included in the UCR index crimes.

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  • 34. 

    34. According to Moffit (1990), children between the ages of 5 and 7 who demonstrate the characteristics of both ADHD and delinquent behavior have special difficulty with social relationships along with a:  

    • A.

      High probability of losing these behaviors in adolescence

    • B.

      Low risk for developing lengthy and serious criminal careers

    • C.

      High probability of demonstrating these problems into adolescence and beyond

    • D.

      High probability of serious adolescent criminal behavior that fades away around age eighteen

    Correct Answer
    C. High probability of demonstrating these problems into adolescence and beyond
    Explanation
    According to Moffit (1990), children between the ages of 5 and 7 who demonstrate the characteristics of both ADHD and delinquent behavior have a high probability of demonstrating these problems into adolescence and beyond. This means that these children are likely to continue experiencing difficulties with social relationships and displaying delinquent behavior as they grow older.

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  • 35. 

    35. A student who receives an anonymous note in his locker that reads “We would be better off without you around anymore” has received a(n) _______ threat.  

    • A.

      Direct

    • B.

      Indirect

    • C.

      Veiled

    • D.

      Conditional

    Correct Answer
    C. Veiled
    Explanation
    The correct answer is veiled. A veiled threat is a form of threat where the intention is not explicitly stated or clear. In this scenario, the student receives an anonymous note that implies they would be better off not being around anymore. The threat is not directly stated but is implied, making it a veiled threat.

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  • 36. 

    36. In comparison to antisocial personality disorder, the construct of psychopathy:  

    • A.

      Is not as precise an indicator of violence

    • B.

      May be a more precise indicator of violence

    • C.

      Applies only to criminals

    • D.

      Identifies the majority of male inmate populations

    Correct Answer
    B. May be a more precise indicator of violence
    Explanation
    The construct of psychopathy may be a more precise indicator of violence compared to antisocial personality disorder. This suggests that psychopathy may have stronger associations with violent behavior than antisocial personality disorder.

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  • 37. 

    37. The theory that memory is continually vulnerable to revision and change is called:  

    • A.

      Reconstructive process

    • B.

      Dynamic process theory

    • C.

      Cognitive construct theory

    • D.

      Cognitive process theory

    Correct Answer
    A. Reconstructive process
    Explanation
    The theory that memory is continually vulnerable to revision and change is called the reconstructive process. This theory suggests that memory is not a fixed and accurate reproduction of past events, but rather a dynamic process that is influenced by various factors such as personal beliefs, experiences, and external information. According to this theory, when retrieving memories, individuals reconstruct them based on available information, which can lead to distortions and inaccuracies.

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  • 38. 

    38. _________ is/are commonly defined as physical force exerted for the purpose of inflicting injury, pain, discomfort, or abuse on a person or persons or for the purpose of destroying property.  

    • A.

      Violence

    • B.

      Aggression

    • C.

      Both violence and aggression

    • D.

      Crime

    Correct Answer
    A. Violence
    Explanation
    Violence is commonly defined as physical force exerted for the purpose of inflicting injury, pain, discomfort, or abuse on a person or persons or for the purpose of destroying property. It can involve actions such as hitting, kicking, or using weapons to harm others or damage belongings.

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  • 39. 

    39. Which of the following correctly represents the four index crimes classified in the Uniform Crime Report (UCR) as violent crimes?  

    • A.

      Murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery and aggravated assault

    • B.

      Murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, negligent manslaughter, robbery, and forcible rape

    • C.

      Murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, burglary, and forcible rape

    Correct Answer
    A. Murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery and aggravated assault
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery and aggravated assault." This answer accurately represents the four index crimes classified in the Uniform Crime Report (UCR) as violent crimes. The four index crimes are murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery, and aggravated assault.

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  • 40. 

    40. Research reveals that violent people:  

    • A.

      Tend to perceive hostility in others when there is no hostility

    • B.

      Are less efficient in thinking of nonviolent ways to solve social conflicts and disagreements

    • C.

      Tend to be more accepting of violence and believe it is acceptable to behave that way

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Research has shown that violent individuals have a tendency to perceive hostility in others even when there is none. This perception can lead to a cycle of violence and aggression. Additionally, these individuals are less efficient in thinking of nonviolent ways to resolve social conflicts and disagreements. They may rely on violence as their primary means of problem-solving. Furthermore, violent people are more accepting of violence and believe it is acceptable to behave in a violent manner. Therefore, all of the given statements are supported by research and are true about violent individuals.

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  • 41. 

    41. One trait that appears to separate serial killers from the norm is their:  

    • A.

      Physical attractiveness

    • B.

      Exceptional interpersonal skill in presenting themselves

    • C.

      Personality attributes

    • D.

      Prior record of violent offending

    Correct Answer
    B. Exceptional interpersonal skill in presenting themselves
    Explanation
    Serial killers often possess exceptional interpersonal skills in presenting themselves, which allows them to manipulate and deceive others. These skills enable them to gain the trust and confidence of their victims, making it easier for them to approach and harm their targets without raising suspicion. This trait sets them apart from the norm, as most people do not possess such high levels of skill in presenting themselves to others.

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  • 42. 

    42. Which of the following workers are the most frequent victims of workplace violence?  

    • A.

      Police officers

    • B.

      Retail workers

    • C.

      Taxi drivers

    • D.

      Postal workers

    Correct Answer
    A. Police officers
    Explanation
    Police officers are the most frequent victims of workplace violence because they are often in direct contact with individuals who may be hostile or engaged in criminal activities. They regularly encounter dangerous situations and confront individuals who may be armed or aggressive. Additionally, police officers are responsible for maintaining law and order, which can sometimes lead to confrontations and violence. Their role in enforcing the law and dealing with potentially dangerous individuals puts them at a higher risk of workplace violence compared to other professions such as retail workers, taxi drivers, and postal workers.

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  • 43. 

    43. Of the following forensic psychologists providing expert testimony, which is most likely to influence the jury according to the available research on this topic?  

    • A.

      The psychologist with a clinical practice in the local community

    • B.

      The psychologist who has a national reputation as an expert witness

    • C.

      The psychologist armed with extensive statistical data, regardless of his or her reputation as an expert

    • D.

      The research psychologist who is highly respected in academe and has a limited clinical practice

    Correct Answer
    A. The psychologist with a clinical practice in the local community
    Explanation
    According to the available research on this topic, the psychologist with a clinical practice in the local community is most likely to influence the jury. This is because jurors tend to trust and value the opinions of professionals who are familiar with the local community and its specific issues. This psychologist would have firsthand knowledge and experience with the local context, which could make their testimony more relatable and credible to the jury. On the other hand, the other options (psychologist with a national reputation, psychologist armed with extensive statistical data, and research psychologist with limited clinical practice) may not have the same level of local expertise and familiarity, making their influence on the jury less significant.

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  • 44. 

    44. Today, the great majority of police psychologists are:  

    • A.

      Consultants

    • B.

      Former police officers

    • C.

      In-house psychologists

    • D.

      Federal employees

    Correct Answer
    A. Consultants
    Explanation
    The correct answer is consultants. Police psychologists today primarily work as consultants, providing their expertise and services to law enforcement agencies. They offer psychological evaluations, counseling, and training to help police officers and departments address issues such as stress management, crisis intervention, and improving communication and decision-making skills. As consultants, they are able to work independently and offer their services to multiple agencies, making their expertise more widely accessible and beneficial.

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  • 45. 

    45. In the United States, the first mental testing of police officers was conducted by:  

    • A.

      Thurstone

    • B.

      Reiser

    • C.

      Terman

    • D.

      Merrill

    Correct Answer
    C. Terman
    Explanation
    Terman was the psychologist who conducted the first mental testing of police officers in the United States.

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  • 46. 

    46. In general, intelligence and ability tests have been better predictors of:  

    • A.

      Police performance in the field

    • B.

      Police academy performance

    • C.

      Neither, since intelligence prediction in policing is poor

    • D.

      College performance but little else

    Correct Answer
    B. Police academy performance
    Explanation
    Intelligence and ability tests are generally more effective in predicting police academy performance rather than actual performance in the field. This is because these tests are designed to assess cognitive abilities and skills that are necessary for success in the structured and academic environment of the police academy. While intelligence may play a role in overall police performance, other factors such as experience, training, and situational awareness also come into play when officers are on duty in the field. Therefore, intelligence tests may not be as accurate in predicting field performance as they are in predicting performance in a controlled training setting like the police academy.

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  • 47. 

    47. In the research on women police officers by Worden (1993), she found that women police officers seem to be guided more by __________ motives than male officers.  

    • A.

      Control and dominance

    • B.

      Control and achievement

    • C.

      Altruistic and social

    • D.

      Socialization and economic

    Correct Answer
    C. Altruistic and social
    Explanation
    In the research on women police officers by Worden (1993), it was found that women police officers are more likely to be guided by altruistic and social motives compared to male officers. This means that women police officers are more driven by a desire to help others and contribute to the community, as well as to build positive social relationships. This finding suggests that women may have a different approach and perspective in their role as police officers, focusing more on empathy and community engagement.

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  • 48. 

    48.  The American with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits questions or questionnaires pertaining to past:  

    • A.

      Job performance

    • B.

      Medical history

    • C.

      Academic performance

    • D.

      Sexual activity

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical history
    Explanation
    The American with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits employers from asking questions or conducting questionnaires about an individual's past medical history. This is to prevent discrimination against individuals with disabilities and ensure equal employment opportunities. By prohibiting such inquiries, the ADA aims to protect the privacy and confidentiality of an individual's medical information, as well as prevent employers from making hiring decisions based on an individual's health status.

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  • 49. 

    49. After a shooting incident, many law enforcement agencies place the officer on administrative leave for a few days and require the officer to see a police psychologist or peer counselor within 24 to 72 hours after the incident. This procedure is called:  

    • A.

      Critical incident stress debriefing

    • B.

      Post-trauma intervention

    • C.

      Post-trauma debriefing

    • D.

      Post-shooting stress debriefing

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical incident stress debriefing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "critical incident stress debriefing". After a shooting incident, it is common for law enforcement agencies to place the officer on administrative leave for a few days and require them to see a police psychologist or peer counselor within 24 to 72 hours. This procedure is known as critical incident stress debriefing, which aims to provide support and help the officer process any stress or trauma they may have experienced as a result of the incident.

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  • 50. 

    50. The type of false confession that is most likely to occur after prolonged and intense interrogation experiences is:  

    • A.

      Coerced-externalized

    • B.

      Coerced-internalized

    • C.

      Voluntary

    • D.

      Coerced-compliant

    Correct Answer
    D. Coerced-compliant
    Explanation
    Coerced-compliant false confessions are most likely to occur after prolonged and intense interrogation experiences. In these situations, the individual may confess to a crime they did not commit in order to escape the pressure and discomfort of the interrogation process. They may believe that complying with the interrogator's demands will lead to a quicker resolution or that they will be able to prove their innocence later. This type of false confession is often temporary and the individual may recant their confession once they are out of the coercive environment.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 15, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Nilda_clark
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