Medication Exam

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Medication Exam - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Colestid 1 G is ordered BID, a.c. This means to administer it:

    • A.

      With meals

    • B.

      Before meals

    • C.

      After meals

    • D.

      Without regard to meals

    Correct Answer
    B. Before meals
  • 2. 

    In what disease is the administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) contraindicated?

    • A.

      Active peptic ulcer

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      Deep vein thrombosis

    • D.

      Active Hepatitis C

    Correct Answer
    D. Active Hepatitis C
  • 3. 

    Symptoms of digitalis toxicity include:

    • A.

      Abdominal pain, constipation, anorexia

    • B.

      N/V, visual disturbances

    • C.

      Tachypnea, hematuria

    • D.

      Leg cramps, anorexia, drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    B. N/V, visual disturbances
  • 4. 

    The antihypertensive Tenormin (atenolol) 50 mg q.d. has been previously ordered for a patient. Today, the physician increased the order to 100 mg q.d. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse before administering this medication? 

    • A.

      Monitor the patient's PT/PTT

    • B.

      Monitor the I/O

    • C.

      Monitor the serum creatinine

    • D.

      Monitor the blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitor the blood pressure
  • 5. 

    During administration of Heparin via an IV drip, which of the following labs may be ordered as frequently as q6 hrs:

    • A.

      H/H

    • B.

      Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

    • C.

      Serum fibrinogen

    • D.

      Sedimentation rate

    Correct Answer
    B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not a medication error?

    • A.

      Failure to give a drug within the prescribed time frame

    • B.

      Failure to give a drug when you know it is contraindicated

    • C.

      Giving the wrong drug to a patient

    • D.

      Giving an unordered drug to a patient

    Correct Answer
    B. Failure to give a drug when you know it is contraindicated
  • 7. 

    Laboratory values have indicated an overdosage of Coumadin in a patient. What drug is the antidote?

    • A.

      Heparin

    • B.

      Protamine sulfate

    • C.

      Epogen

    • D.

      Vitamin K

    Correct Answer
    D. Vitamin K
  • 8. 

    If a patient had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin, which of the following drugs are contraindicated for this patient?

    • A.

      Erythromycin

    • B.

      Aminoglycosides

    • C.

      Tetracyclines

    • D.

      Cephalosporins

    Correct Answer
    D. Cephalosporins
  • 9. 

    The most dangerous side effect of morphine sulfate is its:

    • A.

      Ability to disorient patients

    • B.

      Ability to induce sleep

    • C.

      Effect on inducing seizure

    • D.

      Depressing effect on the respiratory center

    Correct Answer
    D. Depressing effect on the respiratory center
  • 10. 

    What drug is contraindicated for the patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

    • A.

      Phenergan

    • B.

      Tylenol

    • C.

      Aspirin

    • D.

      Demerol

    Correct Answer
    C. Aspirin
  • 11. 

    Two serious side effects of Gentamycin or Tobramycin are:

    • A.

      Yeast and fungal infections

    • B.

      Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

    • C.

      Alopecia and epistaxis

    • D.

      Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

    Correct Answer
    B. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
  • 12. 

    The chief danger in giving an IM injection in the wrong area of the buttock is:

    • A.

      Poor absorption

    • B.

      Formation of an abscess secondary to fecal contamination

    • C.

      Damage to the sciatic nerve or penetration of a large blood vessel

    • D.

      Damage to underlying bony tissue

    Correct Answer
    C. Damage to the sciatic nerve or penetration of a large blood vessel
  • 13. 

    When sodium warfarin (Coumadin) is given, the nurse should monitor the:

    • A.

      I & O

    • B.

      Prothrombin time (PT)

    • C.

      Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

    • D.

      Serum potassium

    Correct Answer
    B. Prothrombin time (PT)
  • 14. 

    Which of the following are the most important considerations when administering a drug via IV push?

    • A.

      Use a medium gauge needle or needleless cannula

    • B.

      Check for blood return in the IV line

    • C.

      Consider the diluent that is used to reconstitute the medication

    • D.

      Check the recommended rate for administering each bolus medication

    Correct Answer
    D. Check the recommended rate for administering each bolus medication
  • 15. 

    Which of the following are appropriate patient education instructions to the patient taking a medication sublingually?

    • A.

      Drink a full glass of water after swallowing it

    • B.

      Rinse your mouth with medication, but do not swallow it

    • C.

      Chew the medication thoroughly before swallowing it

    • D.

      Hold the medication under your tongue until it is dissolved

    Correct Answer
    D. Hold the medication under your tongue until it is dissolved
  • 16. 

    All of the statements below are appropriate patient education for a patient starting on an antihypertensive EXCEPT:

    • A.

      "Rise slowly when getting up from a horizontal position."

    • B.

      "You may become lightheaded or dizzy if you take very hot baths or showers."

    • C.

      "Limit your fluid intake to only 6 glasses per day."

    • D.

      "Don't stand on one spot for a long period of time."

    Correct Answer
    C. "Limit your fluid intake to only 6 glasses per day."
  • 17. 

    Which of the following are patient symptoms reflecting a potential drug allergy requiring immediate treatment?

    • A.

      Extreme muscular tremors

    • B.

      Edema of face and hands

    • C.

      Difficulty breathing and falling blood pressure

    • D.

      Diaphoretic and shaking

    Correct Answer
    C. Difficulty breathing and falling blood pressure
  • 18. 

    Many drugs are metabolized or eliminated via the liver or kidney. When a particular drug is nephrotoxic, what laboratory test should be monitored for the safety of the patient?

    • A.

      Na+, CL-, K+

    • B.

      WBC

    • C.

      Platelets

    • D.

      Serum creatinine

    Correct Answer
    D. Serum creatinine
  • 19. 

    The most appropriate size needle for administering an IM injection to a 200 lb male with a non-viscous solution is:

    • A.

      1", 20 gauge

    • B.

      ½", 25 gauge

    • C.

      1 ½", 18 gauge

    • D.

      1 ½", 22 or 23 gauge

    Correct Answer
    D. 1 ½", 22 or 23 gauge
  • 20. 

    The liver usually metabolizes most drugs into compounds that are more easily excreted via the kidneys. Advancing age decreases both liver blood flow and levels of microsomal enzymes which decreases metabolism, causing the drug to accumulate to potentially high levels in the body. What laboratory values are used to monitor for hepatic function?

    • A.

      Albumin

    • B.

      SGOT(AST) or SGPT(ALT)

    • C.

      Total bilirubin

    • D.

      Total protein

    Correct Answer
    B. SGOT(AST) or SGPT(ALT)
  • 21. 

    Betagan eyedrops are ordered for a patient. Which of these abbreviations indicate the eyedrops are to be instilled into both of the patient's eyes?

    • A.

      O.u.

    • B.

      O.d.

    • C.

      O.s.

    • D.

      O.b.

    Correct Answer
    A. O.u.
  • 22. 

    The nurse gives a patient's routine medicines and the patient states, "I had fewer capsules than this yesterday." Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

    • A.

      "I am certain this dose is the amount the doctor feels is best."

    • B.

      "This is the number of capsules the doctor ordered."

    • C.

      "Let me recheck the doctor's orders."

    • D.

      "Well, this is probably just a new order."

    Correct Answer
    C. "Let me recheck the doctor's orders."
  • 23. 

    Before administering the first dose of an IV antibiotic, the nurse should:

    • A.

      Check the results of the WBC

    • B.

      Tell the patient what side effects could occur

    • C.

      Check for a patient IV

    • D.

      Determine if a culture and sensitivity has been ordered in order to make sure it is collected prior to starting the IV antibiotic

    Correct Answer
    D. Determine if a culture and sensitivity has been ordered in order to make sure it is collected prior to starting the IV antibiotic
  • 24. 

    A patient is receiving Gentamycin 80 mg q 12 hrs. The patient is to receive the 4th dose today at 8 pm to infuse over 30 minutes. The physician has ordered peak and trough blood levels with the 4th dose. At which of these times should the peak blood level be drawn?

    • A.

      7:30 pm

    • B.

      7:55 pm

    • C.

      8:35 pm

    • D.

      9:00 pm

    Correct Answer
    D. 9:00 pm
  • 25. 

    A hypokalemic patient is receiving an infusion of NS containing 60 meq potassium chloride at 100 ml/hr. Which of the following is most appropriate for the patient?

    • A.

      Blood pressure readings q 1 hr

    • B.

      Deep tendon reflexes checked q 1 hr

    • C.

      Serum potassium levels q 1 hr

    • D.

      Continuous cardiac monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Continuous cardiac monitoring
  • 26. 

    Your patient is receiving IV therapy via a triple-lumen central line including Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) at 75 ml/hr, an IV of NS at 20 ml/hr, and two antibiotics, one ordered q8 hr and another q6 hr. Which of the following symptoms could suggest your patient has fluid overload?

    • A.

      Wheeze

    • B.

      Urine output < 30 ml/hr

    • C.

      Crackles in the lower lobes

    • D.

      S3 auscultated over the precordium

    Correct Answer
    C. Crackles in the lower lobes
  • 27. 

    Some oral medications may upset the stomach and should be given:

    • A.

      Before meals on an empty stomach

    • B.

      At least four hours after meals

    • C.

      After meals on a full stomach

    • D.

      At bedtime

    Correct Answer
    C. After meals on a full stomach
  • 28. 

    The physician orders 100 mg of Demerol PO every 4 hours PRN incision pain. Demerol 50 mg tablets are available. The nurse should administer:

    • A.

      2 tablets

    • B.

      3 tablets

    • C.

      4 tablets

    • D.

      ½ tablet

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 tablets
  • 29. 

    The physician orders 8 mg of Morphine Sulfate to be given by injection. The vial on hand is labeled 10 mg/1 ml. The nurse should administer:

    • A.

      0.8 ml

    • B.

      1.0 ml

    • C.

      0.5 ml

    • D.

      2.0 ml

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.8 ml
  • 30. 

    The physician orders Amicar Elixir 4 grams PO. The bottle is labeled 250 mg/1 ml. The nurse should administer:

    • A.

      16 ml

    • B.

      1.6 ml

    • C.

      0.16 ml

    • D.

      0.016 ml

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 ml
  • 31. 

    Which of the following drugs may never be given via an IV push?

    • A.

      Morphine

    • B.

      Demerol

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Potassium Chloride

    Correct Answer
    D. Potassium Chloride
  • 32. 

    The physician orders 1200 mg of an antibiotic QID IVPB via a Heplock. The vial contains a powdered antibiotic to which diluent is added. The resulting solution contains 1 gram of drug per 3 ml. When adding this solution to D5W IVPB, the nurse should use:

    • A.

      0.7 ml

    • B.

      1.2 ml

    • C.

      2.9 ml

    • D.

      3.6 ml

    Correct Answer
    D. 3.6 ml
  • 33. 

    A client who takes 4 tablets of buffered aspirin 4 times a day complains of dizziness and ringing in the ears. The nurse should recognize that the client is probably experiencing: 

    • A.

      Aspirin toxicity

    • B.

      A dermatitis reaction

    • C.

      Withdrawal symptoms

    • D.

      Acetaminophen overdose

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin toxicity
  • 34. 

    A client is to be discharged. When discussing pain management, the nurse should advise the client to take the prescribed PRN Tylenol with Codeine:

    • A.

      Just as a last resort

    • B.

      Before going to sleep

    • C.

      When the discomfort begins

    • D.

      As the pain becomes intense

    Correct Answer
    C. When the discomfort begins
  • 35. 

    The physician orders a low dose of narcotic to relieve the pain of a client with deep partial thickness burns. The nurse recognizes that the preferred mode of administration is: 

    • A.

      Oral

    • B.

      Rectal

    • C.

      Intravenous

    • D.

      Intramuscular

    Correct Answer
    C. Intravenous
  • 36. 

    A client with hypertensive heart disease who had an acute episode of congestive heart failure is to be discharged on a regimen of Propranolol HCL (Inderal) and Digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should be aware that the Inderal, when administered with Lanoxin, may:

    • A.

      Produce headaches

    • B.

      Produce a slow heart rate

    • C.

      Increase blood pressure

    • D.

      Stimulate nodal conduction

    Correct Answer
    B. Produce a slow heart rate
  • 37. 

    A client is to continue to take Digoxin (Lanoxin) following discharge from the hospital. The nurse would know the teaching concerning Digoxin is understood when the client states, “I should:

    • A.

      Increase my intake of Vitamin K."

    • B.

      Not eat food high in potassium."

    • C.

      Check my pulse rate and rhythm daily."

    • D.

      Adjust my dosage according to my activities."

    Correct Answer
    C. Check my pulse rate and rhythm daily."
  • 38. 

    The physician prescribes Cimetidine (Tagamet) and Maalox for a client with a peptic ulcer. The nurse should teach the client to take these drugs:

    • A.

      At the same time

    • B.

      At least 1 hour apart

    • C.

      One immediately before the other

    • D.

      Together with milk or orange juice

    Correct Answer
    B. At least 1 hour apart
  • 39. 

    A client is admitted to the hospital for abdominal surgery for cancer of the Pancreas. Before surgery, Demerol is ordered for pain. The nurse recognizes that Morphine would be contraindicated for this client because it:

    • A.

      Causes respiratory excitement

    • B.

      Stimulates kidney activity

    • C.

      Causes spasm of the pancreatic ducts

    • D.

      Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. Causes spasm of the pancreatic ducts
  • 40. 

    A client is admitted to the hospital for abdominal surgery for cancer of the Pancreas. Before surgery, Demerol is ordered for pain. The nurse recognizes that Morphine would be contraindicated for this client because it:

    • A.

      Causes respiratory excitement

    • B.

      Stimulates kidney activity

    • C.

      Causes spasm of the pancreatic ducts

    • D.

      Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. Causes spasm of the pancreatic ducts
  • 41. 

    Regulatory agencies specify that two patient identifiers are to be used before administering medications. Which method is best for identifying patients using two patient identifiers?

    • A.

      Take the medication administration record (MAR) to the room and compare it to the name and medical number record on the armband

    • B.

      Compare the medication administration record (MAR) with the patient's room number and name on the armband

    • C.

      Request that a family member identify the patient and then ask the patient to state his name

    • D.

      Ask the patient to state his full name and then to write his full name

    Correct Answer
    A. Take the medication administration record (MAR) to the room and compare it to the name and medical number record on the armband
  • 42. 

    The nurse is caring for a patient with leukemia who is receiving the drug Doxorubicin (Adriamycin). Which toxic effects of this drug should be reported to the physician immediately?

    • A.

      Rales and distended neck veins

    • B.

      Red discoloration of the urine and output of 75mL the previous hour

    • C.

      Nausea and vomiting

    • D.

      Elevated BUN and dry, flaky skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Rales and distended neck veins
  • 43. 

    The physician has ordered atropine sulfate 0.4 mg IM before surgery. The medication is supplied in 0.8 mg per milliliter. The nurse should administer how many milliliters of the medication? 

    • A.

      0.25 ml

    • B.

      0.5 ml

    • C.

      1.0 ml

    • D.

      1.25 ml

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.5 ml
  • 44. 

    The physician has ordered a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the patient with chronic pain. The patient asks the nurse if he can become overdosed with pain medication using this machine. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the PCA if she states: 

    • A.

      "The machine will administer only the amount that you need to control your pain without any action from you."

    • B.

      "The machine has a locking device that prevents overdosing to occur."

    • C.

      "The machine will administer one large dose every 4 hours to relieve your pain."

    • D.

      "The machine is set to deliver medication only if you need it."

    Correct Answer
    B. "The machine has a locking device that prevents overdosing to occur."
  • 45. 

    The patient is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

    • A.

      Cyanocobalamine

    • B.

      Protamine sulfate

    • C.

      Streptokinase

    • D.

      Sodium warfarin

    Correct Answer
    B. Protamine sulfate
  • 46. 

    The physician has ordered Percocet (Oxycodone) for a patient following abdominal surgery. The primary objective of nursing care for the patient receiving an opiate analgesic is:

    • A.

      Preventing addiction

    • B.

      Alleviating pain

    • C.

      Facilitating mobility

    • D.

      Preventing nausea

    Correct Answer
    B. Alleviating pain
  • 47. 

    The physician has prescribed aspirin 325 mg daily for a patient with transient ischemic attacks. The nurse explains that aspirin was prescribed to:

    • A.

      Prevent headaches

    • B.

      Boost coagulation

    • C.

      Prevent cerebral anoxia

    • D.

      Decrease platelet aggregation

    Correct Answer
    D. Decrease platelet aggregation

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 30, 2011
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 06, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tempsinc
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