Medical Office Management For NCCT

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  • 1/60 Questions

    A violation of a persons right not to have his or her name, photograph, or pricate affairs exposed or made public without giving consent is ______.

    • False imprisonment
    • Malpractice
    • Invasion of privacy
    • Statute
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Medical Office Management Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This Medical Office Management quiz for NCCT assesses knowledge on ethics, negligence, legal terms, and care standards. It is designed to prepare candidates for professional conduct and legal responsibilities in a medical office setting.


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  • 2. 

    A legal statement of how an individuals property is to be distributed after death is __________.

    • Contract

    • Tort

    • Will

    • Judgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Will
    Explanation
    A will is a legal statement that outlines how an individual's property is to be distributed after their death. It is a document that expresses the person's wishes and instructions regarding the division of their assets, such as money, property, and possessions, among their chosen beneficiaries. A will allows individuals to have control over the distribution of their property and ensures that their wishes are carried out after they pass away.

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  • 3. 

    What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substances?

    • Lawyers

    • Narcotic

    • Business

    • Occupational

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcotic
    Explanation
    A physician must have a narcotic license in order to dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances. This license is necessary to ensure that the physician is qualified and authorized to handle these substances safely and responsibly. It helps to regulate the distribution and use of narcotics, preventing misuse and abuse while ensuring that patients receive appropriate and necessary treatment.

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  • 4. 

    The ability to see things from another person's point of view is _________.

    • Consent

    • Respondeat superior

    • Empathy

    • Ethics

    Correct Answer
    A. Empathy
    Explanation
    Empathy refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings of others. It involves putting oneself in someone else's shoes and seeing things from their perspective. This skill allows individuals to connect with others on a deeper level, showing understanding and compassion. It is an important quality in building relationships, resolving conflicts, and promoting understanding and cooperation among people.

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  • 5. 

    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?

    • Gunshot wounds

    • Anorexia

    • Drug addiction

    • Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wounds
    Explanation
    A physician is required to obtain written permission from a patient before disclosing any confidential information, except in the case of gunshot wounds. This exception is likely due to the fact that gunshot wounds can be life-threatening and may require immediate medical attention. In such cases, the physician may need to share the patient's information with law enforcement or other healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care in order to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 6. 

    ___________ is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information.

    • OSHA

    • CLIA

    • CMS

    • HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    A. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA, which stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal regulation that mandates health care professionals to safeguard the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. This act ensures that individuals' medical records and personal health information are protected from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. It establishes standards for the security and privacy of health data, as well as outlines the rights of patients to control their health information. Compliance with HIPAA is crucial in maintaining patient trust and confidentiality within the healthcare industry.

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  • 7. 

    Right and wirong conduct is known as ________.

    • Empathy

    • Criminal law

    • Ethics

    • Licensure

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethics
    Explanation
    Ethics refers to principles and values that guide individuals in distinguishing right from wrong conduct. It encompasses moral judgment, integrity, and responsibility in decision-making. While empathy involves understanding and sharing others' emotions, criminal law pertains to legal regulations and punishments for unlawful behavior, and licensure refers to the granting of official permission to engage in a particular profession. Therefore, ethics is the most appropriate term for describing right and wrong conduct.

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  • 8. 

    Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is ________.

    • Consent

    • Litigation

    • Breach

    • Duty of care

    Correct Answer
    A. Consent
    Explanation
    When a person grants permission voluntarily and in their right mind, it is referred to as consent. Consent is the act of giving approval or agreement to something, often in response to a request or proposal. It implies that the person has willingly and consciously agreed to the action or situation at hand. In legal and ethical contexts, consent is crucial for ensuring that actions are carried out with the individual's full understanding and agreement.

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  • 9. 

    The final decision of a court in an action or suit is _________.

    • Consent

    • Contracct

    • Judgment

    • Licensure

    Correct Answer
    A. Judgment
    Explanation
    The final decision of a court in an action or suit is called a judgment. This is the ruling or decision made by the judge or jury after considering all the evidence and arguments presented in the case. It determines the rights and obligations of the parties involved and concludes the legal proceedings. Consent, contracct, and licensure are unrelated terms and do not accurately describe the final decision of a court.

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  • 10. 

    A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called a(n) _______.

    • Emancipated minor

    • Plaintiff

    • Defendant

    • Tort

    Correct Answer
    A. Emancipated minor
    Explanation
    An emancipated minor refers to a person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent. This means that despite being a minor, they have been granted legal independence and are considered capable of making their own decisions and taking care of themselves without parental guidance or control.

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  • 11. 

    In the health care field the acronym HIPAA stands for ___________.

    • Health Information Adjustment Association

    • History Inquiry of Professional Assertive Assistance

    • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

    • Health Inquiry for Permission of Accountability Association

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act." HIPAA is a federal law in the United States that was enacted in 1996. It aims to protect patients' privacy and ensure the security of their health information. The law establishes standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information. It also provides individuals with certain rights regarding their health information and sets penalties for non-compliance.

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  • 12. 

    An act that violates criminal law is called ______.

    • Defamation

    • Crime

    • Libel

    • Slander

    Correct Answer
    A. Crime
    Explanation
    An act that violates criminal law is called a crime. Criminal law refers to the body of laws that defines conduct prohibited by the government because it threatens and harms public safety and welfare. Crimes are typically punishable by fines, imprisonment, or other forms of punishment determined by the legal system. Defamation, libel, and slander are not the correct answers as they refer to different types of offenses related to false statements that harm someone's reputation.

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  • 13. 

    The breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called ________.

    • Statute

    • Breach

    • Consent

    • Incompetent

    Correct Answer
    A. Breach
    Explanation
    A breach refers to the act of breaking a law, promise, or duty. It implies a violation or failure to fulfill an obligation or commitment.

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  • 14. 

    A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is __________.

    • Licensure

    • Civil law

    • Tort

    • Felony

    Correct Answer
    A. Felony
    Explanation
    A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is a felony. Felonies are serious offenses that typically involve violence or significant harm to others, such as murder, robbery, or sexual assault. These crimes are considered more severe than misdemeanors and carry harsher penalties, including imprisonment for more than one year or even the death penalty in some cases.

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  • 15. 

    An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is _______.

    • Contract

    • Litigation

    • Statute

    • Felony

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract
    Explanation
    A contract is an agreement between two or more parties that outlines the terms and conditions for the doing or not doing of a specific action. It is a legally binding document that establishes the rights and obligations of each party involved. Contracts can cover a wide range of agreements, such as business transactions, employment agreements, or rental agreements. Unlike litigation, which refers to the process of resolving legal disputes in court, a contract is a proactive agreement that is entered into voluntarily by the parties involved. Statute and felony are unrelated to the concept of a contract.

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  • 16. 

    Latin for "he who acts through another acts for himself" is called __________.

    • Res gestae

    • Qui facit per alium facit per se

    • Locum tenems

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Qui facit per alium facit per se
    Explanation
    The Latin phrase "qui facit per alium facit per se" translates to "he who acts through another acts for himself." This phrase emphasizes the principle that when someone delegates or acts through another person, they are still responsible for the consequences of those actions. It highlights the idea that the person who delegates the task cannot escape accountability by simply assigning it to someone else. This principle is often applied in legal and ethical contexts to ensure that individuals cannot avoid liability by delegating their responsibilities to others.

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  • 17. 

    The brance of study of moral ussues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called ________.

    • Bioethics

    • Litigation

    • Philosophy

    • Priviliged communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioethics
    Explanation
    Bioethics is the branch of study that focuses on the moral issues, questions, and problems that arise in the field of medicine and biomedical research. It involves ethical considerations related to medical practices, research, and the impact of technology on healthcare. Bioethics aims to provide guidance and ethical frameworks for healthcare professionals, researchers, and policymakers to make informed decisions that prioritize patient welfare, autonomy, justice, and beneficence.

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  • 18. 

    An unlawfule threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is __________.

    • Litigation

    • Assault

    • Crime

    • Libel

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault
    Explanation
    Assault is the correct answer because it refers to an unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another person. It involves the intentional act of causing apprehension or fear of imminent harmful or offensive contact, even if there is no actual physical contact. Assault can be both a criminal offense and a civil wrong, depending on the jurisdiction. Litigation, crime, and libel are not directly related to the concept of unlawfully threatening or attempting bodily injury to another person.

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  • 19. 

    A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and ti give testimony is a(n) ________,

    • Habeas corpus

    • Tort of appearance

    • Subpoena

    • Tort et a travers

    Correct Answer
    A. Subpoena
    Explanation
    A subpoena is a writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and give testimony. It is a legal document issued by a court or an authorized party, requiring the presence of a witness to provide evidence. The purpose of a subpoena is to ensure that witnesses attend the proceedings and provide truthful testimony, thereby assisting in the pursuit of justice.

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  • 20. 

    Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person _______.

    • Empathy

    • Negligence

    • Defamation

    • Ethics

    Correct Answer
    A. Defamation
    Explanation
    Defamation refers to the act of damaging someone's name and reputation by making false statements to a third person. It involves spreading false information about someone that harms their reputation. This can be done through various means such as slander (spoken defamation) or libel (written defamation). Defamation is a legal term that encompasses the act of intentionally spreading false information about someone with the intention of causing harm to their reputation.

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  • 21. 

    Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as _______.

    • Breach of duty

    • Abandonment

    • Competence

    • Incompetence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incompetence
    Explanation
    Incompetence refers to the lack of physical or mental fitness. It indicates a person's inability to perform tasks or duties effectively due to a lack of skills, knowledge, or capability. This term is commonly used to describe someone who is not qualified or capable of fulfilling their responsibilities.

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  • 22. 

    A latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is _________.

    • Res gestae

    • Non compos mentis

    • Res judicata

    • Tecum

    Correct Answer
    A. Non compos mentis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "non compos mentis." This Latin term is used to describe a person who is not of sound mind or mentally incompetent. It is often used in legal contexts to refer to someone who lacks the mental capacity to make rational decisions or understand the consequences of their actions.

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  • 23. 

    Consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called __________.

    • Contributory negligence

    • Fraud

    • Assumption of risk

    • Proximate cause

    Correct Answer
    A. Assumption of risk
    Explanation
    Assumption of risk refers to the consent given by a patient to undergo a treatment, fully aware of all the potential risks and unpreventable outcomes associated with it. This implies that the patient understands and accepts the possible negative consequences that may arise from the treatment, and still chooses to proceed with it. It is a legal concept that protects healthcare providers from liability if the patient later experiences any of the known risks or complications that were explained to them beforehand.

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  • 24. 

    Which one of the following might involve a decision based upon bioethics?

    • Reporting physical, emotional or mental abuse

    • Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research involves a decision based upon bioethics because it raises ethical questions about the source and use of fetal tissue. Bioethics considers the moral implications of using human tissue for research purposes, particularly when it involves the use of fetal tissue. This decision requires careful consideration of the ethical principles surrounding the use of human tissue, the potential benefits of the research, and the rights and autonomy of the individuals involved.

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  • 25. 

    Negligence by a professional person is called _______.

    • Invasion of privacy

    • Slander

    • Malpractice

    • Tort

    Correct Answer
    A. Malpractice
    Explanation
    Negligence by a professional person is commonly referred to as malpractice. This term is specifically used when a professional, such as a doctor or lawyer, fails to perform their duties with the level of care and skill expected in their field, resulting in harm or injury to a client or patient. Malpractice can lead to legal consequences and potential lawsuits against the professional.

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  • 26. 

    Holding or detaining a person against his will is _______.

    • False imprisonment

    • Crime

    • Incompetent

    • Duty of care

    Correct Answer
    A. False imprisonment
    Explanation
    False imprisonment refers to the act of unlawfully restraining or confining someone against their will. It involves intentionally restricting a person's freedom of movement without lawful justification. This can occur through physical force, threats, or coercion. False imprisonment is considered a civil wrong and can also be a criminal offense, as it violates an individual's fundamental rights and personal liberty.

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  • 27. 

    A rule of conduct made by a gov't body is _________.

    • Tort

    • Law

    • Will

    • Contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Law
    Explanation
    A rule of conduct made by a government body is referred to as a law. Laws are established by the government to regulate and govern the behavior of individuals and organizations within a society. They are enforceable and failure to comply with them may result in legal consequences.

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  • 28. 

    Responsibilty of an employer for the acts of an employee is ______.

    • Libel

    • Malpractice

    • Respondeat superior

    • Civil law

    Correct Answer
    A. Respondeat superior
    Explanation
    Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds an employer responsible for the actions of their employees, as long as those actions were performed within the scope of their employment. This means that if an employee commits a wrongful act or causes harm to someone while carrying out their job duties, the employer can be held liable for the employee's actions. It is a principle of vicarious liability, ensuring that victims have a means to seek compensation from the employer who ultimately benefits from the employee's work.

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  • 29. 

    To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention or resumption at a later date, or ask for a continuance is called a ________.

    • Suspension

    • Judgment

    • Civil law

    • Deposition

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspension
    Explanation
    To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention of resumption at a later date, or ask for a continuance is called a suspension. This means that the legal proceedings are temporarily halted or put on hold, allowing for a pause in the case. It could be due to various reasons such as the need for more evidence, the unavailability of a key party or witness, or a request from one of the parties involved. This temporary suspension allows for the case to be resumed at a later date when the necessary conditions are met.

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  • 30. 

    Under  the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organziations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _________ review.

    • Procedure

    • Admissions

    • Cost

    • Quality

    Correct Answer
    A. Admissions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "admissions". Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of admitting a patient to the hospital. This process is known as admissions review.

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  • 31. 

    A person being sued is called the _______.

    • Plaintiff

    • Tort

    • Defendant

    • Criminal law

    Correct Answer
    A. Defendant
    Explanation
    In a legal context, when a person is being sued, they are referred to as the defendant. The defendant is the party who is accused or being held responsible for a wrongdoing or a legal claim made against them. They are required to defend themselves and respond to the allegations brought forth by the plaintiff, who is the party initiating the lawsuit. The defendant's role is to present their case and provide evidence to counter the claims made by the plaintiff.

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  • 32. 

    Conduct, courtesu, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as _______.

    • Ethics

    • Moral therapy

    • Precocity

    • Medical etiquette

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical etiquette
    Explanation
    Medical etiquette refers to the conduct, courtesy, and manners that are commonly practiced by medical professionals in a medical office. It encompasses the appropriate behavior and communication skills that are expected in the healthcare setting, such as maintaining patient confidentiality, showing respect and empathy towards patients, and adhering to professional standards. It is essential for creating a positive and respectful environment for both patients and healthcare providers.

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  • 33. 

    The time established for filing law suits is _______.

    • Civil law

    • Statute of limitations

    • Contract

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Statute of limitations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "statute of limitations." In civil law, the statute of limitations refers to the time period within which a lawsuit can be filed. It sets a deadline for initiating legal action, and once this time limit has expired, the right to sue is generally lost. The statute of limitations varies depending on the jurisdiction and the type of claim involved. Therefore, it is an essential concept in understanding the time frame for filing lawsuits in civil law cases.

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  • 34. 

    A fraudulent signature is called _______.

    • Endorsement

    • Forgery

    • Fraud

    • Forbearance

    Correct Answer
    A. Forgery
    Explanation
    Forgery refers to the act of creating or imitating a fraudulent signature. It involves the unauthorized replication or alteration of a signature with the intention to deceive or defraud. In legal terms, forgery is a serious offense and is considered a form of fraud. Endorsement, fraud, and forbearance are not specifically related to the act of creating a fraudulent signature.

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  • 35. 

    __________ are defined as what are right and wrong.

    • Rules

    • Ethics

    • Laws

    • Guidelines

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethics
    Explanation
    Ethics are defined as what are right and wrong. Ethics refer to a set of moral principles or values that govern the behavior and actions of individuals or groups. They provide a framework for distinguishing between right and wrong, and guide individuals in making ethical decisions. Unlike laws, which are enforced by a governing body, ethics are more subjective and are based on personal beliefs, cultural norms, and societal expectations. Rules and guidelines can also provide guidance on what is right and wrong, but ethics encompass a broader and more abstract concept of morality.

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  • 36. 

    The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is __________.

    • Contract

    • Reasonable care

    • Negligence

    • Abandonment

    Correct Answer
    A. Abandonment
    Explanation
    Abandonment refers to the withdrawal of a physician from a patient's care without providing reasonable notice to the patient. This act of abandonment is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for the patient's well-being. It is important for physicians to ensure proper communication and transition of care to another healthcare provider to avoid abandonment and ensure the patient's continued treatment.

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  • 37. 

    Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is _______.

    • Duty of care

    • Respondeat superior

    • Judgment

    • Privileged communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Privileged communication
    Explanation
    Privileged communication refers to the confidential information shared by a patient with medical personnel, which cannot be disclosed without the patient's consent. This concept is essential in maintaining trust and privacy between patients and healthcare providers. It ensures that patients feel comfortable sharing sensitive information, knowing that it will be kept confidential. Privileged communication is a legal and ethical duty that healthcare professionals must uphold to protect patient confidentiality and maintain the integrity of the doctor-patient relationship.

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  • 38. 

    An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient's complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a ________committee.

    • Medical ethics

    • Medical grievance

    • Civil law

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical grievance
    Explanation
    A medical grievance committee is a group that is formed to address and examine complaints made by patients regarding medical care or excessive fees. This committee is impartial, meaning it does not favor any particular party involved. Its main purpose is to listen to and investigate these grievances, ensuring that patients' concerns are heard and addressed appropriately. The term "medical grievance" accurately describes the function and purpose of such a committee.

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  • 39. 

    A statement given concerning some scientific, technical or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called ________.

    • Litigation

    • Expert testimony

    • Medical arbitration

    • Burden of proof

    Correct Answer
    A. Expert testimony
    Explanation
    Expert testimony refers to a statement given by an expert, such as a physician, regarding a scientific, technical, or professional matter. This testimony is often provided in legal proceedings to provide specialized knowledge and help the court or jury make informed decisions. It is considered a crucial form of evidence and is relied upon to establish facts and support arguments in a case.

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  • 40. 

    Latin for "things decided" - that is, a matter already decided by judicial authority is called _______.

    • Res judicata

    • Respondeat superior

    • Locum tenems

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Res judicata
    Explanation
    Res judicata is the correct answer because it is a Latin term that translates to "things decided." It refers to a legal principle where a matter has been previously decided by a court and cannot be re-litigated. This doctrine ensures finality and prevents the same issue from being repeatedly brought to court.

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  • 41. 

    One who institutes a lawsuit is __________.

    • Defendant

    • Plaintiff

    • Litigation

    • Respondeat superior

    Correct Answer
    A. Plaintiff
    Explanation
    A plaintiff is the person who initiates or institutes a lawsuit by bringing a legal action against someone else. They are the party who files a complaint and seeks a legal remedy or compensation for a perceived wrong or harm caused by the defendant. The defendant, on the other hand, is the person being sued and is required to respond to the plaintiff's allegations in court.

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  • 42. 

    It is __________ to deny treatment to an HIV infected patients.

    • Illegal

    • Moral

    • Unethical

    • Ethical

    Correct Answer
    A. Unethical
    Explanation
    It is considered unethical to deny treatment to an HIV-infected patient because every individual has the right to access healthcare regardless of their health condition. Denying treatment based on someone's HIV status goes against the principles of fairness, justice, and respect for human dignity. It also contradicts medical ethics, which prioritize the well-being and equal treatment of all patients.

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  • 43. 

    The health worker protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers. This is called ________.

    • Respondeat superior

    • Reasonable care

    • Duty of care

    • Statute

    Correct Answer
    A. Reasonable care
    Explanation
    The term "reasonable care" refers to the legal standard that determines whether a health worker's actions were reasonable when compared to the actions of other workers in similar situations. It is a measure of whether the health worker took appropriate precautions and exercised the level of care that a reasonable person in the same profession would have taken. If it is determined that the health worker acted reasonably, they are protected by law.

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  • 44. 

    A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called _________.

    • Assault

    • Battery

    • Slander

    • Contributory negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Battery
    Explanation
    Battery is the correct answer because it refers to a deliberate physical attack upon a person. It involves intentionally causing harmful or offensive contact with another person without their consent. Assault, on the other hand, refers to the threat or attempt to cause physical harm. Slander is the act of making false spoken statements that damage a person's reputation. Contributory negligence is a legal term that refers to a situation where the plaintiff's own negligence contributes to their injury.

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  • 45. 

    A patient's failure to act prudently and resonable, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called ________.

    • Breach of duty

    • Assumption of risk

    • Contributory negligence

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Contributory negligence
    Explanation
    Contributory negligence refers to a situation where a patient fails to act prudently and reasonably, or does something that a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances. This means that the patient's own negligence contributes to their injury or harm. In legal terms, contributory negligence can be used as a defense by the defendant to reduce or eliminate their liability for the patient's damages.

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  • 46. 

    Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as _________.

    • Professional review

    • Hospital review

    • Peer review

    • Promethium review

    Correct Answer
    A. Peer review
    Explanation
    Medical research is subject to a rigorous evaluation process known as peer review. This involves experts in the same field reviewing the research before it is published in medical journals. The purpose of peer review is to ensure the quality, accuracy, and validity of the research findings. It helps to maintain the standards and credibility of the medical community by allowing experts to assess the methodology, results, and conclusions of the research before it is disseminated to the wider audience.

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  • 47. 

    A wrong committed against another person or the persons property is a ______.

    • Defamation

    • Libel

    • Tort

    • Plaintiff

    Correct Answer
    A. Tort
    Explanation
    A wrong committed against another person or their property is known as a tort. A tort is a civil wrong that causes harm or injury to someone, either intentionally or negligently. It includes actions such as negligence, assault, battery, defamation, and trespassing. Unlike criminal offenses, torts are resolved through civil lawsuits where the injured party, known as the plaintiff, seeks compensation for the harm caused by the wrongdoer.

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  • 48. 

    That which in natural and continous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces an event, and without which the injury would not have occurred is called ______.

    • Negligence

    • Proximate cause

    • Assumption of risk

    • Assault

    Correct Answer
    A. Proximate cause
    Explanation
    Proximate cause refers to the direct cause that produces an event without any interruption or new independent cause. It is the primary factor that leads to an injury or event, and without it, the injury would not have occurred. Proximate cause is essential in determining legal liability and establishing a connection between the defendant's actions and the resulting harm.

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  • 49. 

    Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person's property is _________.

    • Malpractice

    • Negligence

    • Slander

    • Defamation

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence refers to the failure of a person to exercise reasonable care or caution, resulting in harm or damage to another person or their property. It involves the omission of an action that a reasonable person would have taken in similar circumstances. Negligence is different from malpractice, which specifically refers to the failure of a professional to meet the standards of their profession, and from slander and defamation, which involve making false statements that harm someone's reputation.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Lilangel9311
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