Mcq_mini3_(4)[1] Airway Resistance, Assessing Pulmonary Function

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  • 1/21 Questions

    The airway resistance of a healthy person has to be determined. Close to which lung volume do you expect to measure his highest resistance to expiratory airflow?

    • RV
    • FRC
    • 60 % of VC
    • TLC
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'MCQ_MINI3_(4)[1] Airway Resistance, Assessing Pulmonary Function' explores key aspects of respiratory physiology such as airway resistance, lung volumes, and the impact of diseases like asthma on breathing parameters. It is designed to test knowledge crucial for medical students and professionals.

Mcq_mini3_(4)[1] Airway Resistance, Assessing Pulmonary Function - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Force of respiratory muscles is dependent on lung volume. At which lung volume have the expiratory muscles their greatest force

    • Minimal lung volume (resting volume of the lung)

    • RV

    • FRC

    • 60% ofVC

    • TLC

    Correct Answer
    A. TLC
    Explanation
    The expiratory muscles have their greatest force at total lung capacity (TLC). This is because TLC represents the maximum amount of air that can be contained in the lungs, and when the lungs are at their fullest, the expiratory muscles have to work harder to push out the air during exhalation. At minimal lung volume (resting volume of the lung), RV, and FRC, the expiratory muscles do not have to exert as much force since there is less air to be exhaled. At 60% of vital capacity (VC), the expiratory muscles are not at their maximum force as there is still more air that can be exhaled.

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  • 3. 

    A healthy person connected to a spirometer has been asked to take a maximum breath in, hold it and then exhale as hard and fast as he can (forced vital capacity manoeuvre). The expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) have been measured . What is the normal value of FEV1/FVC in % .

    • 100

    • 80

    • 60

    • 40

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    The normal value of FEV1/FVC is 80%. This means that 80% of the forced vital capacity is exhaled in the first second of the forced exhalation. This ratio is used to assess lung function and can help diagnose respiratory conditions such as obstructive lung diseases. A value of 80% indicates normal lung function, as the majority of the air is exhaled within the first second.

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  • 4. 

    A person can modify his breathing voluntarily. Which of the following phases of inspiration or expiration is passive and does not require respiratory muscles force?

    • Normal inspiration

    • Normal expiration

    • Forced inspiration

    • Slow inspiration of a small volume

    • Forced expiration to values below FRC

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal expiration
    Explanation
    Normal expiration is a passive phase of respiration that does not require respiratory muscle force. During normal expiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, causing the lungs to recoil and air to be expelled from the lungs. This process does not require any conscious effort or voluntary control from the person.

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  • 5. 

    A person connected to a spirometer has been asked to take a maximum breath in, hold it and then exhale as hard and fast as he can (forced vital capacity manoeuvre). The expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) have been measured. The value of FEV1/FVC is significantly below 80' % by

    • A healthy person

    • Lung obstructive disease

    • Lung restrictive disease

    • Lung fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Lung obstructive disease
    Explanation
    The value of FEV1/FVC being significantly below 80% indicates a lung obstructive disease. In a healthy person, the FEV1/FVC ratio is typically above 80%. In lung obstructive diseases, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is a decrease in airflow due to narrowing or blockage of the airways. This leads to a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio as the person is unable to exhale as much air in the first second compared to their total lung capacity.

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  • 6. 

    A patient suffers from an acute asthma attack. The patient has no history of COPD. What change in the following respiratory parameters is associated with his asthma attack?

    • FRC is increased

    • RV is increased

    • Vital capacity is decreased

    • TLC is decreased

    • FEV1 is decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. FEV1 is decreased
    Explanation
    During an acute asthma attack, there is a narrowing of the airways due to inflammation and bronchoconstriction. This leads to a decrease in the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in one second, which is measured by FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in one second). Therefore, the correct answer is FEV1 is decreased.

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  • 7. 

    The measurements were taken on a 23 year old female with a recent history of dyspnea and cyanosis on exertion. Resp iratory Ventilation Predicted Measured Measure after bronchodilator Vital Capacity 3.3 L 2.3 L 2.4 L Residual Volume 0.8 L 0.6 L 0.6 L Total Lung Capacity 4.1 L 2.9 L 3.0 L FEV-l 2.6 l 1.9 l 2.0 L FEV-l / FVC > 80% 83 % 83 % This patient has:

    • A restrictive disease

    • An obstructive disease

    • A combined obstructive/restrictive disease.

    Correct Answer
    A. A restrictive disease
    Explanation
    Based on the given measurements, the patient's vital capacity, total lung capacity, and FEV-l are all significantly lower than the predicted values. This indicates a decrease in lung volume, suggesting a restrictive disease. A restrictive disease is characterized by a reduced ability of the lungs to expand and fill with air, leading to decreased lung volumes and capacities. This can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary fibrosis, chest wall deformities, or muscle weakness.

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  • 8. 

    A patient is suffering from a chronic obstructive lung disease (emphysema). Which combination of changes in the following parameters support the diagnose of his disease? Total lung capacity (TLC)               Residual volume (RV)                 RV / TLC

    • Increase increase increase

    • Increase Normal increase

    • Decrease decrease Normal

    • Normal decrease decrease

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase increase increase
    Explanation
    In a patient with chronic obstructive lung disease (emphysema), there is an increase in total lung capacity (TLC) due to air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. There is also an increase in residual volume (RV) because the patient is unable to fully exhale all the air from their lungs. The ratio of RV to TLC is also increased as a result of these changes. Therefore, an increase in TLC, RV, and RV/TLC ratio supports the diagnosis of emphysema.

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  • 9. 

    A patient suffers from an acute asthma attack. The patient has no history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What change in following respiratory parameters is associated with his asthma attack?

    • FRC is increased

    • RV is increased

    • Vital capacity is decreased

    • TLC is decreased

    • FEV1 is decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. FEV1 is decreased
    Explanation
    During an acute asthma attack, the airways become inflamed and narrowed, leading to difficulty in breathing. This narrowing of the airways causes a decrease in the Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1), which measures the amount of air forcefully exhaled in the first second of a forced breath. Therefore, a decreased FEV1 is associated with an asthma attack.

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  • 10. 

    The physiological dead space is:

    • Sometimes measured using the arterial PO2

    • Generally smaller than the anatomic dead space

    • Often increased in lung disease

    • Determined primarily by the geometry of the branching airways

    Correct Answer
    A. Often increased in lung disease
    Explanation
    The physiological dead space refers to the portion of the respiratory system where there is no gas exchange occurring. It is often increased in lung disease due to the impaired function of the lungs. In lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma, there may be areas of the lungs that are not effectively ventilated, leading to an increase in physiological dead space. This can result in a decreased ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory difficulties. The increase in physiological dead space is not directly measured using arterial PO2, but rather it is a characteristic feature observed in lung disease.

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  • 11. 

    A gas mixture of several dry gases has a total pressure of 200 mm Hg and a total gas amount of 10 Mol. What is the partial pressure of one gas that has an amount 3 Mol

    • 20mmHg

    • 30mmHg

    • 40mmHg

    • 50mmHg

    • 60mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 60mmHg
    Explanation
    The partial pressure of a gas in a mixture is directly proportional to its mole fraction. In this case, the gas with 3 mol has a mole fraction of 3/10. Since the total pressure is 200 mm Hg, the partial pressure of the gas with 3 mol can be calculated as (3/10) * 200 mm Hg = 60 mm Hg. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 mm Hg.

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  • 12. 

    Some of diseases cause injury of alveolar surface (gas exchange region). Which type of the lung cells repairs this membrane?

    • Alveolar epithel cell type I

    • Alveolar epithel cell type II

    • Alveolar macrophage

    • Brush cell

    • Clara cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Alveolar epithel cell type II
    Explanation
    Alveolar epithelial cells type II are responsible for repairing the membrane of the alveolar surface. These cells are specialized in producing and secreting surfactant, a substance that helps to reduce surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their collapse. Additionally, alveolar epithelial cells type II have the ability to differentiate into type I cells, which are essential for gas exchange. Therefore, when the alveolar surface is injured, alveolar epithelial cells type II play a crucial role in repairing and maintaining the integrity of the membrane.

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  • 13. 

    A 2 hour old term newborn male has coughing, choking, and cyanosis prior to feeding . A nasogastric tube is placed and meets resistance at 10cm. Prenatal history is siqniftcant for polyhydramnios. Which of the following is most likely to be found In this Infant?

    • Vertebral defects

    • Anal atresia

    • Congenital heart defects

    • Tracheoesophageal fistula

    • Esophageal atresia

    Correct Answer
    A. Esophageal atresia
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the newborn male has symptoms of coughing, choking, and cyanosis prior to feeding, which are indicative of a problem with the esophagus. The fact that a nasogastric tube meets resistance at 10cm suggests a blockage in the esophagus. Additionally, the prenatal history of polyhydramnios is associated with esophageal atresia, which is a condition where the esophagus does not properly develop and is disconnected. Therefore, the most likely finding in this infant is esophageal atresia.

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  • 14. 

    In which stage of lung maturation is the blood-air barrier established?

    • Embryonic period

    • Pseudoglandular period

    • Canalicular period

    • Terminal sac period

    • Alveolar period

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminal sac period
    Explanation
    During the terminal sac period, the blood-air barrier is established in the lungs. This is the stage of lung development when the terminal sacs, which are the functional units of the lungs, begin to form. The terminal sacs are lined with specialized cells called type I and type II pneumocytes. Type I pneumocytes are responsible for the gas exchange between the lungs and the bloodstream, while type II pneumocytes produce surfactant, a substance that helps to reduce surface tension in the lungs and prevent them from collapsing. The establishment of the blood-air barrier during this period allows for efficient oxygenation of the blood and removal of carbon dioxide.

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  • 15. 

    Whrch of the following series of stages are In the correct developmentaI sequence?

    • Alveolar period, terminal saccular period, canalicular period, pseudoglandular period

    • Pseudoglandular period, terminal saccular period, canalicular perIodI aIveolar penod

    • Terminal saccular period, pseudaglandular period, alveolar periou, canalicular period

    • Pseudoglandular period, canalicular period, terminal saccular period, alveolar period

    • Canncurer period, alveolar period, terminal saccular period, pseudoglandular period

    Correct Answer
    A. Pseudoglandular period, canalicular period, terminal saccular period, alveolar period
    Explanation
    The correct developmental sequence for the stages mentioned is pseudoglandular period, canalicular period, terminal saccular period, alveolar period. This sequence represents the chronological order in which these stages occur during lung development. The pseudoglandular period is the earliest stage, followed by the canalicular period, terminal saccular period, and finally the alveolar period.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the followinq statements concerning the developing respiratory system is correct'

    • The blood-air barner develops durring the alveolar period

    • A premature infant born at the end of the pseudoglandular period will survive if gIven intensive care

    • The lungs of a newborn baby contain the same number of alveoli as an adult

    • Pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the respiratory system IS derived from splanchnic mesoderm

    • Respiratory bronchioles develop during the canalicular period

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory bronchioles develop during the canalicular period
    Explanation
    During the development of the respiratory system, the respiratory bronchioles actually develop during the canalicular period. This is the correct statement because the canalicular period is the stage of lung development where the terminal bronchioles are formed, and the respiratory bronchioles are the branches that arise from the terminal bronchioles. Therefore, it is accurate to say that respiratory bronchioles develop during the canalicular period.

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  • 17. 

    At which of the following locations does fetal blood contain the highest level of oxygen?

    • Left umbilical artery

    • Proximal region of descending aorta

    • Ductus venosus

    • Right atrium

    • Inferior vena cava

    Correct Answer
    A. Ductus venosus
    Explanation
    The ductus venosus is a shunt that allows oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to bypass the liver and flow directly into the inferior vena cava. This means that the blood in the ductus venosus has not yet been mixed with deoxygenated blood from other parts of the body. Therefore, the ductus venosus contains the highest level of oxygen among the given locations.

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  • 18. 

    What IS the function of the ductus venosus?

    • To participate In the formation of the inferior vena cava

    • To allow blood to bypass the hepatic sinusoids

    • To connect the right umbilical vein to the superior vena cava

    • To assist in blood flow to the hepatic sinusoids

    • To form a conduit through the diaphragm

    Correct Answer
    A. To allow blood to bypass the hepatic sinusoids
    Explanation
    The function of the ductus venosus is to allow blood to bypass the hepatic sinusoids. This is important because the hepatic sinusoids are small blood vessels in the liver that can become congested with blood during fetal development. By bypassing the hepatic sinusoids, the ductus venosus ensures that oxygenated blood from the placenta can reach the rest of the fetal body without being filtered by the liver. This allows for efficient oxygenation of the fetal tissues and organs.

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  • 19. 

    A young mother brings her recently born Infant into your office and complains that the infant gags and chokes after swallowing milk. A physical examination indicates excessive mucus around the mouth and nose, abdominal distention, pneumonitis, and radiographs Indicate air in the Infant's stomach. Which IS the most likely cause?

    • Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

    • Tracheoesophageal fistula

    • Congenital lobar emphysema

    • Respiratory distress syndrome

    • Pulmonary hypoplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
    Explanation
    Tracheoesophageal fistula is the most likely cause in this case because the infant is experiencing symptoms such as gagging and choking after swallowing milk, which suggests an abnormal connection between the trachea and esophagus. The excessive mucus around the mouth and nose, abdominal distention, pneumonitis, and air in the infant's stomach seen on radiographs further support this diagnosis. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, congenital lobar emphysema, respiratory distress syndrome, and pulmonary hypoplasia are not typically associated with these symptoms.

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  • 20. 

    A premature Female Infant IS born about 24 weeks after fertilization and develops rapid, labored breathing shortly after birth. She is Immediately transferred to lntensive care where she IS diagnosed with hyaline membrane disease (HMD). Which of the following is most liKely deficient In the infant?

    • Alveolar ducts

    • Lung surfactant

    • Terminal saccules

    • Type 1 alveolar cells

    • Type 2 alveolar cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Lung surfactant
    Explanation
    The premature female infant is diagnosed with hyaline membrane disease (HMD), which is commonly seen in premature infants. HMD is caused by a deficiency of lung surfactant, a substance that helps to reduce surface tension in the alveoli and prevents them from collapsing. In premature infants, the production of lung surfactant is not yet fully developed, leading to difficulty in breathing and the formation of hyaline membranes in the alveoli. Therefore, the most likely deficiency in the infant is lung surfactant.

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  • 21. 

    A newborn infant suffers from a posterolateral defect on the left side of the body. His abdominal contents have herniated through the defect Into the thoracic cavity, and as a result, the Infant suffers from pulmonary hypoplesia. His breathing dlfficulty IS life threatening because the herniation has inhibited lung development and inflation. This congenital defect is due to a malformation of which of the following?

    • Mesentery of the esophagus

    • Muscular Ingrowth of the body wall

    • Pleuropericardial membrane

    • Pleuroperitoneal membrane

    • Septum transversum

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleuroperitoneal membrane
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the pleuroperitoneal membrane. In a normal development, the pleuroperitoneal membrane separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. However, in this infant, there is a defect in the left side of the body, allowing the abdominal contents to herniate into the thoracic cavity. This herniation inhibits lung development and inflation, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia and life-threatening breathing difficulties.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 11, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly

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