# 5 Level Volume 3

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Practical testing for Trainees

• 1.

### (401) What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

• A.

Gasoline and kerosene.

• B.

Gasoline and diesel fuel.

• C.

Diesel fuel and kerosene.

• D.

Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline.

A. Gasoline and kerosene.
Explanation
JP-8 fuel is a type of jet fuel used by the military. It is a mixture of kerosene and gasoline. The combination of these two components provides the necessary properties for jet engines, including high energy content and low freezing point. Gasoline helps to improve the volatility and ignition characteristics of the fuel, while kerosene provides the necessary lubrication and stability. Therefore, the correct answer is gasoline and kerosene.

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• 2.

### (401) At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?

• A.

Two

• B.

Three

• C.

Four

• D.

Five

C. Four
Explanation
At room temperature, water will take four times longer to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline.

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• 3.

### (401) Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the

• A.

Lower viscosity of jet fuels.

• B.

Higher viscosity of jet fuels.

• C.

Lower viscosity of free water.

• D.

Higher viscosity of free water.

B. Higher viscosity of jet fuels.
Explanation
Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system's susceptibility to an icing condition. This is further aggravated by the higher viscosity of jet fuels. Higher viscosity means that the fuel is thicker and more resistant to flow. In cold temperatures, this can lead to the fuel becoming even thicker and potentially forming ice crystals, which can clog fuel lines and cause engine failure. Therefore, the higher viscosity of jet fuels makes the fuel system more prone to icing conditions at high altitudes.

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• 4.

### (402) The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

• A.

Flameout.

• B.

Turbine seizure.

• C.

Compressor shift.

• D.

Overtemperature.

A. Flameout.
Explanation
The main fuel control in a jet engine is responsible for regulating the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By doing so, it ensures that the engine receives the right amount of fuel for safe and efficient operation. In the context of the question, flameout refers to the sudden extinguishing of the engine's flame, which can occur due to various reasons such as fuel starvation or malfunction. The main fuel control helps to prevent flameout by carefully managing the fuel flow, reducing the possibility of the engine losing its flame and shutting down unexpectedly.

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• 5.

### (402) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

• A.

A green flag pops out of the filter.

• B.

Fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low.

• C.

A differential pressure indicator is actuated.

• D.

There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.

C. A differential pressure indicator is actuated.
Explanation
When a fuel filter is clogged, a differential pressure indicator is actuated. This means that there is a mechanism in the filter that detects the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet sides of the filter. When the pressure difference exceeds a certain threshold, the indicator is triggered, indicating that the filter is clogged and needs to be replaced. This is a visual indication that can be easily observed during a visual inspection without having to disassemble the filter.

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• 6.

### (403) On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?

• A.

Regulating engine RPM.

• B.

Regulating compressor discharge pressure.

• C.

Controlling turbine exhaust pressure.

• D.

Controlling turbine inlet temperature.

D. Controlling turbine inlet temperature.
Explanation
The correct answer is controlling turbine inlet temperature. In a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, the thrust production is controlled by regulating the temperature of the air entering the turbine. By controlling the turbine inlet temperature, the engine can effectively manage the energy output and optimize thrust production. This is achieved by adjusting the fuel flow rate and maintaining the desired temperature level for efficient engine operation.

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• 7.

### (403) During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of

• A.

RPM

• B.

Inlet temperature.

• C.

Burner pressure.

• D.

Inlet pressure.

C. Burner pressure.
Explanation
During jet engine deceleration, the fuel flow needs to be adjusted to ensure the engine operates smoothly. A hydromechanical fuel control system is responsible for regulating the fuel flow. In this case, it schedules the fuel flow based on the burner pressure. Burner pressure is a crucial factor as it directly affects the combustion process and the engine's performance. By adjusting the fuel flow according to the burner pressure, the hydromechanical fuel control system ensures that the engine decelerates safely and efficiently.

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• 8.

### (403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?

• A.

Pneumatic.

• B.

Fuel injection.

• C.

Hydromechanical.

• D.

Electrohydromechanical.

D. Electrohydromechanical.
Explanation
Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses components such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to control a jet engine. This type of fuel control system combines electrical and hydraulic mechanisms to regulate the flow of fuel and maintain optimal engine performance.

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• 9.

### (403) Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?

• A.

Unified.

• B.

Combined

• C.

Bimechanical.

• D.

Electrosecondary.

A. Unified.
Explanation
A unified fuel metering device refers to a jet engine component that combines two separate fuel controls into a single unit. This means that instead of having two separate controls for fuel metering, the unified device integrates both controls into one component. This simplifies the fuel metering system and improves efficiency by reducing the number of components required.

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• 10.

### (403) The F100 UFC senses certain variables from the engine through the use of

• A.

A closed loop design.

• B.

An open circuit design.

• C.

The feedback control unit.

• D.

A direct mechanical connection to all engine sensors.

A. A closed loop design.
Explanation
The F100 UFC senses certain variables from the engine through a closed loop design. In a closed loop design, the system continuously monitors and adjusts its output based on feedback from sensors. This allows for precise control and optimization of engine performance. An open circuit design would not provide the necessary feedback for accurate adjustments. The feedback control unit may be involved in the closed loop design, but it is not the design itself. A direct mechanical connection to all engine sensors would not allow for real-time adjustments based on feedback.

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• 11.

### (403) If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed, and you suspect the factory adjustment was altered, you should

• A.

• B.

Keep the component in service to meet the mission.

• C.

Forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing.

• D.

Continue to keep the component in service if it is documented as a red diagonal on Form 781A, Hydromechanical Fuel Control.

C. Forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing.
Explanation
If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed and there is suspicion that the factory adjustment was altered, the appropriate action would be to forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing. This ensures that the component is properly inspected, adjusted, and sealed by professionals who have the necessary expertise and equipment. It is important to maintain the integrity and safety of the fuel system, and sending the component to the authorized depot is the best course of action in this situation.

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• 12.

### (403) Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be

• A.

Replaced.

• B.

Die marked.

• C.

Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

• D.

Treated with a thread locking compound.

C. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
Explanation
During an engine trim procedure, calibration and/or adjustment screws may need to be set to ensure proper functioning. To prevent any unauthorized tampering or accidental adjustment, these screws must be safety sealed and/or lockwired. Safety sealing involves applying a seal or tag that indicates if the screw has been tampered with. Lockwiring involves securing the screw with a wire that prevents it from loosening or adjusting unintentionally. These measures ensure the accuracy and reliability of the engine trim procedure.

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• 13.

### (404) When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?

• A.

MEC

• B.

PMG.

• C.

TSFC.

• D.

DEEC.

D. DEEC.
Explanation
The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine when it is in the primary mode. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters such as fuel flow, exhaust gas temperature, and fan speed to ensure optimal performance and efficiency. It receives inputs from various sensors and uses its algorithms to make real-time adjustments to maintain engine operation within safe limits.

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• 14.

### (404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by

• A.

Oil

• B.

Fuel.

• C.

Ram air.

• D.

Hydraulic fluid.

B. Fuel.
Explanation
The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is cooled by fuel. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and controlling various engine parameters, and it generates a significant amount of heat during operation. Fuel is used as a coolant to dissipate this heat and prevent the DEEC from overheating. This ensures the proper functioning and reliability of the engine control system.

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• 15.

### (404) For actuation of the variable vane systems on an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC provides both the CIVV and

• A.

Rear compressor variable vane actuators with pneumatic (air) pressure.

• B.

Rear compressor variable vane actuators with fuel pressure.

• C.

Variable exhaust nozzle actuators with pneumatic pressure.

• D.

Variable exhaust nozzle actuators with fuel pressure.

B. Rear compressor variable vane actuators with fuel pressure.
Explanation
The correct answer is rear compressor variable vane actuators with fuel pressure. This means that the MFC (Main Fuel Control) provides fuel pressure to the rear compressor variable vane actuators. This fuel pressure is used to actuate the variable vane systems on the F100-PW-220 engine.

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• 16.

### (404) Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?

• A.

Fuel nozzle

• B.

P&D valve.

• C.

N2 sensor

• D.

Tt 2.5 sensor.

B. P&D valve.
Explanation
The P&D valve is the fuel system component that controls the pressurization of the core engine fuel system. The fuel nozzle is responsible for injecting fuel into the combustion chamber, the N2 sensor measures the rotational speed of the engine's high-pressure turbine, and the Tt 2.5 sensor measures the turbine inlet temperature. Therefore, the correct answer is the P&D valve.

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• 17.

### (404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?

• A.

7th

• B.

10th

• C.

13th.

• D.

14th.

C. 13th.
Explanation
In an F100-PW-220 engine, the stage of the compressor air that drives the augmenter fuel pump is the 13th stage.

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• 18.

### (404) On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?

• A.

Fuel pump.

• B.

Fuel pump controller.

• C.

Signature elimination probe.

• D.

DEEC.

D. DEEC.
Explanation
The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) is the component that controls the augmentor fuel control on the F100-PW-220 engine. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters, including fuel flow, to optimize performance and ensure safe operation. It receives inputs from sensors throughout the engine and uses this information to make real-time adjustments to the fuel control system. By controlling the augmentor fuel flow, the DEEC helps regulate the engine's thrust output and ensures efficient operation.

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• 19.

### (404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the

• A.

AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

• B.

MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

• C.

AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

• D.

Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.

B. MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
Explanation
The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This sequence indicates the order in which fuel flows through the core engine components on an F100-PW-220 engine. It starts with the MFC (Main Fuel Control) which regulates and controls the fuel flow. Then, the fuel passes through the fuel/oil cooler, which helps to cool the fuel and oil. Next, it goes through the P&D (Primary and Drain) valves, which are responsible for controlling the flow of fuel to the combustion chamber. Finally, the fuel reaches the fuel nozzles where it is injected into the combustion chamber for combustion.

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• 20.

### (405) When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

• A.

Gear.

• B.

Gerotor.

• C.

Rotogear.

• D.

Sliding vane.

C. Rotogear.
Explanation
The given options are Gear, Gerotor, Rotogear, and Sliding vane. The question asks for the type of oil pump that is not classified based on structure. Gear, Gerotor, and Sliding vane are all types of oil pumps classified based on their structure. However, Rotogear is not a recognized type of oil pump based on structure. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotogear.

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• 21.

### (405) Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

• A.

Gear.

• B.

Gerotor.

• C.

Rotogear.

• D.

Sliding vane.

B. Gerotor.
Explanation
A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor rotate together, creating chambers between them that trap and move the oil. This design allows for efficient and reliable oil pumping, making it a commonly used type of oil pump in various applications.

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• 22.

### ã€€(405) One micron is a metric linear measurement that is equal to

• A.

1/25 inch.

• B.

1/250 inch.

• C.

1/2,500 inch.

• D.

1/25,000 inch.

D. 1/25,000 inch.
• 23.

### ã€€(405) Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?

• A.

AC high-voltage.

• B.

DC high-voltage.

• C.

Continuity.

• D.

Polarity.

C. Continuity.
Explanation
Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that they are used to test whether there is a continuous electrical path between two points. In the case of chip detectors, this is important because they are used to detect the presence of metallic particles or debris in an aircraft's lubrication system. By checking for continuity, the chip detector can determine if there is a break in the electrical circuit, which could indicate the presence of a chip or debris that is interrupting the flow of current.

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• 24.

### ã€€(405) Which type of valve permits oil flow in only one direction?

• A.

Check.

• B.

Relief.

• C.

Bypass.

• D.

Pressurizing.

A. Check.
Explanation
A check valve is a type of valve that allows fluid (in this case, oil) to flow in only one direction. It prevents backflow, ensuring that the oil can only move in the desired direction. This is achieved through a mechanism that automatically closes the valve when the flow reverses, preventing any backward movement of the oil. Therefore, a check valve is the correct answer for a valve that permits oil flow in only one direction.

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• 25.

### ã€€(405) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

• A.

Air/oil.

• B.

Fuel.

• C.

Hydraulic.

• D.

Pneumatic

A. Air/oil.
Explanation
An air/oil oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. In an automobile radiator, air passes through the fins of the radiator and cools down the coolant flowing through it. Similarly, in an air/oil oil cooler, air is used to cool down the oil flowing through it. The air/oil cooler has fins that help in dissipating heat from the oil, making it an effective cooling method for oil systems.

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• 26.

### ã€€(405) The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to

• A.

Control the oil poppet valve.

• B.

Direct oil around the fuel filter.

• C.

Control oil exiting from the cooler.

• D.

Direct oil around or through the cooler.

D. Direct oil around or through the cooler.
Explanation
The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to direct oil around or through the cooler. This valve helps regulate the flow of oil to maintain the desired temperature by either bypassing the cooler or directing the oil through it. By controlling the flow, the valve ensures that the oil is either cooled or bypassed depending on the temperature requirements, thus helping to maintain optimal oil temperature for the engine.

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• 27.

### (405) What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?

• A.

Silicone.

• B.

Carbon.

• C.

Synthetic.

• D.

Labyrinth.

D. Labyrinth.
Explanation
A labyrinth oil seal is made of soft metal and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage. The design of a labyrinth seal consists of multiple interlocking grooves or channels that create a tortuous path for the oil to flow through. This design helps to minimize oil leakage and prevent contaminants from entering the system. Silicone, carbon, and synthetic oil seals do not have the same characteristics as a labyrinth seal and are not specifically designed to allow airflow while preventing oil seepage.

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• 28.

### (405) Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

• A.

Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.

• B.

Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

• C.

Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

• D.

Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.

A. Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.
Explanation
Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal, which makes them susceptible to damage. Due to their delicate construction, they can be easily damaged during handling or installation. Therefore, extreme care should be taken when working with labyrinth seals to avoid any potential damage.

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• 29.

### (405) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

• A.

Air pressure

• B.

Oil pressure

• C.

Spring pressure.

• D.

Hydraulic pressure.

C. Spring pressure.
Explanation
When an engine is not operating, the carbon oil seal needs to maintain a static preload to prevent leakage. This preload is provided by spring pressure, which ensures that the seal remains compressed and tightly sealed even when there is no oil or hydraulic pressure present. Air pressure and hydraulic pressure are not suitable for providing static preload in this scenario, while oil pressure is not applicable when the engine is not operating. Hence, spring pressure is the correct answer.

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• 30.

### (405) Carbon seals should be cleaned by soaking them in clean, warm

• A.

JPâ€“4 for 60 minutes

• B.

PDâ€“680 for 30 minutes.

• C.

Kerosene for 60 minutes.

• D.

Engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes.

D. Engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes.
Explanation
Carbon seals should be cleaned by soaking them in engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes. This is because carbon seals are used in engines to prevent leakage of fluids and gases. Over time, carbon deposits can build up on these seals, affecting their performance. Soaking them in engine lubricating oil helps to dissolve and remove these carbon deposits, restoring the seals' effectiveness. The use of engine lubricating oil is preferred over other options like JP-4 or kerosene as it is specifically designed to lubricate and protect engine components, making it more suitable for cleaning carbon seals.

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• 31.

### (406) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2, engine inlet oil temperature, and

• A.

Oil jet pressure.

• B.

Fan turbine speed.

• C.

Oil nozzle condition.

• D.

Number of oil jets used.

C. Oil nozzle condition.
Explanation
The correct answer is oil nozzle condition. The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure is affected by various factors such as N2, engine inlet oil temperature, and oil jet pressure. However, the condition of the oil nozzle has a direct impact on the oil pressure. If the oil nozzle is damaged or clogged, it can restrict the flow of oil, leading to a decrease in oil pressure. Therefore, maintaining the proper condition of the oil nozzle is crucial for ensuring optimal oil pressure in the engine.

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• 32.

### (406) What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?

• A.

Aeration.

• B.

Induction.

• C.

Convection.

• D.

Compression.

A. Aeration.
Explanation
Aeration is the term used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air. This can occur when there is excessive turbulence or agitation in the oil, causing air to become trapped in the oil. Aeration can lead to reduced lubrication effectiveness and potential damage to the engine or equipment. Induction refers to the process of drawing air or fuel mixture into the engine's combustion chamber. Convection is the transfer of heat through a fluid medium, and compression is the process of reducing the volume of a gas.

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• 33.

### (406) The number1, 4, and 5 bearing compartments are capped on the F100-PW–100 engine oil system. Which oil subsystem (or subsystems) do these compartments breathe through?

• A.

Scavenge only.

• B.

Breather only.

• C.

Scavenge and pressure.

• D.

Scavenge and breather.

A. Scavenge only.
Explanation
The number 1, 4, and 5 bearing compartments on the F100-PW-100 engine oil system are capped, meaning they are closed off from the outside environment. Therefore, these compartments do not have a breather, which allows air to flow in and out. Instead, they only breathe through the scavenge system, which removes excess oil and gases from the compartments.

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• 34.

### (406) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

• A.

Dry sump

• B.

Wet sump.

• C.

Cold tank.

• D.

Hot tank.

A. Dry sump
Explanation
A dry sump oil system stores the oil in a separate tank that is typically mounted to the side of the engine. This design allows for a larger oil capacity and better oil control compared to a wet sump system, where the oil is stored in a pan underneath the engine. The dry sump system is commonly used in high-performance and racing engines to prevent oil starvation during high-speed cornering or acceleration.

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• 35.

### (406) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?

• A.

Cold tank.

• B.

Wet tank.

• C.

Dry tank.

• D.

Hot tank.

D. Hot tank.
Explanation
In a hot tank oil system design, the oil cooler is placed in the pressure subsystem. This means that the oil cooler is located after the oil pump, where the oil is under pressure. The purpose of placing the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem is to ensure that the oil is cooled down before it is circulated back into the engine or other components. This helps in maintaining the optimal temperature of the oil and prevents overheating of the system.

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• 36.

### (406) Which type of oil tank design do most fighter aircraft engines incorporate to help with weight savings?

• A.

Wet tank

• B.

Dry tank.

• C.

Hot tank.

• D.

Cold tank.

C. Hot tank.
Explanation
Most fighter aircraft engines incorporate a hot tank design for weight savings. A hot tank design allows the engine to use the fuel as a heat sink, dissipating the heat generated by the engine. This eliminates the need for additional cooling systems, reducing the overall weight of the aircraft. By utilizing the fuel as a heat sink, the hot tank design improves the efficiency and performance of the engine while also saving on weight, which is crucial in fighter aircraft where every pound matters.

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• 37.

### (407) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the

• A.

Oil tank.

• B.

Gearbox.

• C.

Oil filter.

• D.

Oil pump.

B. Gearbox.
Explanation
The breather pressurizing valve on an F100 engine is internally mounted in the gearbox. This valve is responsible for regulating the pressure inside the gearbox by allowing excess air or oil vapor to escape. By being internally mounted in the gearbox, the valve can effectively control the pressure within the system and prevent any potential damage or malfunction.

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• 38.

### (407) If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the

• A.

Button is defective.

• B.

Scheduled oil change is due.

• C.

Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.

• D.

Design pressure differential has been exceeded.

D. Design pressure differential has been exceeded.
Explanation
If the red button on an F100-PWâ€“220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, it indicates that the design pressure differential has been exceeded. This means that the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the oil filter has exceeded the maximum limit set by the design specifications. This could be due to a blockage or restriction in the oil filter, causing a buildup of pressure. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent any potential damage to the engine.

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• 39.

### (407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use

• A.

Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

• B.

Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.

• C.

Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.

• D.

Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.

A. Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
Explanation
The correct answer is secondary fan airflow as a coolant. On an F100-PW-220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use the secondary fan airflow as a coolant. This means that the coolers are cooled by the air that is being pushed by the secondary fan, which helps to regulate the temperature of the oil in the engine.

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• 40.

### (407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?

• A.

Oil relief valve.

• B.

Filter poppet valve.

• C.

Oil pressure transmitter tap.

• D.

Filter assembly bypass valve.

D. Filter assembly bypass valve.
Explanation
The correct answer is the Filter assembly bypass valve. During cold weather starts, the oil filter can become clogged or restricted due to the thickening of the oil. The filter assembly bypass valve allows the oil to bypass the filter and continue flowing to the engine, ensuring that the engine receives the necessary lubrication even if the filter is not functioning properly.

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• 41.

### (407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, which bearing compartments drain into the gearbox by the tower shaft cavity?

• A.

1 and 2.

• B.

1 and 3.

• C.

2 and 3.

• D.

2 and 4.

C. 2 and 3.
Explanation
On an F100-PW-220 engine, bearing compartments 2 and 3 drain into the gearbox by the tower shaft cavity.

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• 42.

### (408) How does the AFTLA obtain oil samples for analysis?

• A.

Upon request from the depot.

• B.

Automatically from the depot.

• C.

Upon request from the manufacturer.

• D.

Automatically from the manufacturer.

D. Automatically from the manufacturer.
Explanation
The AFTLA obtains oil samples for analysis automatically from the manufacturer. This means that the manufacturer has a system in place to regularly collect and send oil samples to the AFTLA for analysis without the need for a specific request. This automated process ensures that the AFTLA receives oil samples consistently and can conduct analysis on them as needed.

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• 43.

### (408) The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is

• A.

Toxicity.

• B.

Viscosity.

• C.

Alkalinity.

• D.

Corrosiveness.

D. Corrosiveness.
Explanation
The correct answer is corrosiveness. Modern jet engine oil can be corrosive, meaning it has the potential to cause damage to the surfaces it comes into contact with. This is an important hazard that a journeyman must be aware of when working with jet engines, as it can lead to deterioration and failure of engine components if not properly handled and maintained.

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• 44.

### (408) Which action concerning open oil containers is correct?

• A.

Dispose of any portion not immediately used.

• B.

Store remaining portion immediately after use.

• C.

Dispose of any portion not used within 60 days.

• D.

Store remaining portion in clearly marked containers.

A. Dispose of any portion not immediately used.
Explanation
The correct action concerning open oil containers is to dispose of any portion not immediately used. This is important because leaving open oil containers can lead to contamination, evaporation, and degradation of the oil. It is best to dispose of any unused portion to prevent any potential hazards or loss of quality.

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• 45.

### (409) Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be

• A.

More oil sampling.

• B.

More engine removals.

• C.

Less unnecessary maintenance.

• D.

Less wear metal found in the oil.

C. Less unnecessary maintenance.
Explanation
The correct answer is "less unnecessary maintenance." Spectrometric oil analysis allows for the detection of wear metals in the oil, which can indicate potential engine issues. By identifying these issues early on, maintenance can be targeted and focused, reducing the need for unnecessary maintenance tasks. This can result in a higher in-commission rate for aircraft as maintenance is only performed when necessary, minimizing downtime and increasing operational efficiency.

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• 46.

### (409) For bases that do not have an OAP laboratory, who designates the facility to which oil samples are sent?

• A.

Base commander.

• B.

Unit commander.

• C.

Program manager.

• D.

Unit safety officer.

C. Program manager.
Explanation
The program manager is responsible for designating the facility to which oil samples are sent in bases that do not have an OAP laboratory. This is because the program manager oversees the overall management and coordination of the program, including the collection and analysis of oil samples. The base commander, unit commander, and unit safety officer do not have direct responsibility for this task.

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• 47.

### (409) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

• A.

Project monitor.

• B.

Logistics commander.

• C.

Propulsion flight chief.

• D.

Laboratory supervisor.

A. Project monitor.
Explanation
The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (Operational Availability Plan) operates properly. They oversee the implementation and execution of the plan, ensuring that all necessary resources and actions are in place to maintain the operational availability of the system. They monitor the progress and effectiveness of the plan, making any necessary adjustments or improvements to ensure its success. The project monitor plays a crucial role in ensuring that the OAP meets its objectives and contributes to the overall success of the project.

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• 48.

### (409) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

• A.

Wear metals.

• B.

Friction metals.

• C.

Precious metals.

• D.

Transformation metals.

A. Wear metals.
Explanation
Microscopic metallic particles in the oil system are called wear metals. These particles are generated as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in the machinery. They can be indicative of the condition of the equipment and can help in diagnosing potential issues or problems. By analyzing the concentration and types of wear metals present in the oil, maintenance personnel can determine the health and performance of the machinery.

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• 49.

### (409) Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system

• A.

Accelerates the rate of wear, decreasing the production of wear metal particles.

• B.

Accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.

• C.

Slows the rate of wear, decreasing the production of wear metal particles.

• D.

Slows the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.

B. Accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.
Explanation
Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles. When there is increased friction, the surfaces of the moving parts rub against each other more vigorously, causing more wear and tear. This increased wear leads to the production of more wear metal particles, which can contaminate the oil and lead to further damage in the system.

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• 50.

### (409) During an OAP sample collection, using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tube could result in

• A.

Insufficient oil collection.

• B.

Contaminated samples.

• C.

A minor stomach ache.

• D.

Paralysis or death.

D. Paralysis or death.
Explanation
Using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tube during an OAP sample collection could result in paralysis or death. This is because the oil may contain toxic substances or chemicals that can be harmful if ingested. Inhaling or swallowing these substances can lead to severe health complications, including paralysis or even death. It is important to follow proper safety procedures and use appropriate equipment to avoid such risks during sample collection.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

• Current Version
• Jun 24, 2024
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Jul 23, 2015
Quiz Created by
Andrew

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