5 Level Volume 3
Settings
Practical testing for Trainees
- 1.(401) What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?
- A.
Gasoline and kerosene.
- B.
Gasoline and diesel fuel.
- C.
Diesel fuel and kerosene.
- D.
Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline.
- 2.(401) At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
- 3.(401) Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the
- A.
Lower viscosity of jet fuels.
- B.
Higher viscosity of jet fuels.
- C.
Lower viscosity of free water.
- D.
Higher viscosity of free water.
- 4.(402) The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
- A.
Flameout.
- B.
Turbine seizure.
- C.
Compressor shift.
- D.
Overtemperature.
- 5.(402) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?
- A.
A green flag pops out of the filter.
- B.
Fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low.
- C.
A differential pressure indicator is actuated.
- D.
There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.
- 6.(403) On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?
- A.
Regulating engine RPM.
- B.
Regulating compressor discharge pressure.
- C.
Controlling turbine exhaust pressure.
- D.
Controlling turbine inlet temperature.
- 7.(403) During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of
- A.
RPM
- B.
Inlet temperature.
- C.
Burner pressure.
- D.
Inlet pressure.
- 8.(403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
- A.
Pneumatic.
- B.
Fuel injection.
- C.
Hydromechanical.
- D.
Electrohydromechanical.
- 9.(403) Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?
- A.
Unified.
- B.
Combined
- C.
Bimechanical.
- D.
Electrosecondary.
- 10.(403) The F100 UFC senses certain variables from the engine through the use of
- A.
A closed loop design.
- B.
An open circuit design.
- C.
The feedback control unit.
- D.
A direct mechanical connection to all engine sensors.
- 11.(403) If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed, and you suspect the factory adjustment was altered, you should
- A.
Adjust and reseal the component.
- B.
Keep the component in service to meet the mission.
- C.
Forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing.
- D.
Continue to keep the component in service if it is documented as a red diagonal on Form 781A, Hydromechanical Fuel Control.
- 12.(403) Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be
- A.
Replaced.
- B.
Die marked.
- C.
Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
- D.
Treated with a thread locking compound.
- 13.(404) When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?
- A.
MEC
- B.
PMG.
- C.
TSFC.
- D.
DEEC.
- 14.(404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by
- A.
Oil
- B.
Fuel.
- C.
Ram air.
- D.
Hydraulic fluid.
- 15.(404) For actuation of the variable vane systems on an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC provides both the CIVV and
- A.
Rear compressor variable vane actuators with pneumatic (air) pressure.
- B.
Rear compressor variable vane actuators with fuel pressure.
- C.
Variable exhaust nozzle actuators with pneumatic pressure.
- D.
Variable exhaust nozzle actuators with fuel pressure.
- 16.(404) Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
- A.
Fuel nozzle
- B.
P&D valve.
- C.
N2 sensor
- D.
Tt 2.5 sensor.
- 17.(404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?
- A.
7th
- B.
10th
- C.
13th.
- D.
14th.
- 18.(404) On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?
- A.
Fuel pump.
- B.
Fuel pump controller.
- C.
Signature elimination probe.
- D.
DEEC.
- 19.(404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
- A.
AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- B.
MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- C.
AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- D.
Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.
- 20.(405) When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
- 21.(405) Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
- 22.(405) One micron is a metric linear measurement that is equal to
- A.
1/25 inch.
- B.
1/250 inch.
- C.
1/2,500 inch.
- D.
1/25,000 inch.
- 23.(405) Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?
- A.
AC high-voltage.
- B.
DC high-voltage.
- C.
Continuity.
- D.
Polarity.
- 24.(405) Which type of valve permits oil flow in only one direction?
- A.
Check.
- B.
Relief.
- C.
Bypass.
- D.
Pressurizing.
- 25.(405) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?
- A.
Air/oil.
- B.
Fuel.
- C.
Hydraulic.
- D.
Pneumatic
- 26.(405) The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to
- A.
Control the oil poppet valve.
- B.
Direct oil around the fuel filter.
- C.
Control oil exiting from the cooler.
- D.
Direct oil around or through the cooler.
- 27.(405) What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?
- A.
Silicone.
- B.
Carbon.
- C.
Synthetic.
- D.
Labyrinth.
- 28.(405) Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
- A.
Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.
- B.
Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.
- C.
Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.
- D.
Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.
- 29.(405) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
- A.
Air pressure
- B.
Oil pressure
- C.
Spring pressure.
- D.
Hydraulic pressure.
- 30.(405) Carbon seals should be cleaned by soaking them in clean, warm
- A.
JP–4 for 60 minutes
- B.
PD–680 for 30 minutes.
- C.
Kerosene for 60 minutes.
- D.
Engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes.
- 31.(406) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2, engine inlet oil temperature, and
- A.
Oil jet pressure.
- B.
Fan turbine speed.
- C.
Oil nozzle condition.
- D.
Number of oil jets used.
- 32.(406) What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?
- A.
Aeration.
- B.
Induction.
- C.
Convection.
- D.
Compression.
- 33.(406) The number1, 4, and 5 bearing compartments are capped on the F100-PW–100 engine oil system. Which oil subsystem (or subsystems) do these compartments breathe through?
- A.
Scavenge only.
- B.
Breather only.
- C.
Scavenge and pressure.
- D.
Scavenge and breather.
- 34.(406) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
- A.
Dry sump
- B.
Wet sump.
- C.
Cold tank.
- D.
Hot tank.
- 35.(406) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
- A.
Cold tank.
- B.
Wet tank.
- C.
Dry tank.
- D.
Hot tank.
- 36.(406) Which type of oil tank design do most fighter aircraft engines incorporate to help with weight savings?
- A.
Wet tank
- B.
Dry tank.
- C.
Hot tank.
- D.
Cold tank.
- 37.(407) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
- A.
Oil tank.
- B.
Gearbox.
- C.
Oil filter.
- D.
Oil pump.
- 38.(407) If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the
- A.
Button is defective.
- B.
Scheduled oil change is due.
- C.
Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.
- D.
Design pressure differential has been exceeded.
- 39.(407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
- A.
Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
- B.
Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.
- C.
Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.
- D.
Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.
- 40.(407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
- A.
Oil relief valve.
- B.
Filter poppet valve.
- C.
Oil pressure transmitter tap.
- D.
Filter assembly bypass valve.
- 41.(407) On an F100-PW–220 engine, which bearing compartments drain into the gearbox by the tower shaft cavity?
- A.
1 and 2.
- B.
1 and 3.
- C.
2 and 3.
- D.
2 and 4.
- 42.(408) How does the AFTLA obtain oil samples for analysis?
- A.
Upon request from the depot.
- B.
Automatically from the depot.
- C.
Upon request from the manufacturer.
- D.
Automatically from the manufacturer.
- 43.(408) The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is
- A.
Toxicity.
- B.
Viscosity.
- C.
Alkalinity.
- D.
Corrosiveness.
- 44.(408) Which action concerning open oil containers is correct?
- A.
Dispose of any portion not immediately used.
- B.
Store remaining portion immediately after use.
- C.
Dispose of any portion not used within 60 days.
- D.
Store remaining portion in clearly marked containers.
- 45.(409) Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be
- A.
More oil sampling.
- B.
More engine removals.
- C.
Less unnecessary maintenance.
- D.
Less wear metal found in the oil.
- 46.(409) For bases that do not have an OAP laboratory, who designates the facility to which oil samples are sent?
- A.
Base commander.
- B.
Unit commander.
- C.
Program manager.
- D.
Unit safety officer.
- 47.(409) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Logistics commander.
- C.
Propulsion flight chief.
- D.
Laboratory supervisor.
- 48.(409) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
- A.
Wear metals.
- B.
Friction metals.
- C.
Precious metals.
- D.
Transformation metals.
- 49.(409) Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system
- A.
Accelerates the rate of wear, decreasing the production of wear metal particles.
- B.
Accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.
- C.
Slows the rate of wear, decreasing the production of wear metal particles.
- D.
Slows the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.
- 50.(409) During an OAP sample collection, using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tube could result in
- A.
Insufficient oil collection.
- B.
Contaminated samples.
- C.
A minor stomach ache.
- D.
Paralysis or death.
- 51.(409) Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a container in order to
- A.
Check for large particles.
- B.
Check the drain operation.
- C.
Drain off uncirculated oil.
- D.
Drain off water and sludge.
- 52.(409) Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than
- A.
5 percent
- B.
10 percent.
- C.
15 percent.
- D.
20 percent.
- 53.(409) The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that the SEM/EDX
- A.
Samples must be sent off-site for analysis.
- B.
Particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.
- C.
Samples can only be obtained in an intermediate maintenance shop.
- D.
Provides results only concerning equipment and components condition.
- 54.(410) What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through magnetic field?
- A.
Static.
- B.
Electronics.
- C.
Mutual induction.
- D.
Electromagnetic induction.
- 55.(410) The difference between DC and AC is that DC
- A.
Has a constant polarity; AC changes direction at regular intervals.
- B.
Fluctuates from negative to positive values; AC stays at a constant positive value.
- C.
Differs from AC only in the way current is used; otherwise there is no real difference.
- D.
Is produced directly from a generator; AC is produced by an alternator after the generator.
- 56.(410) On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?
- A.
Brushes.
- B.
Commutator.
- C.
Rotating loop.
- D.
Permanent magnet.
- 57.(410) Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?
- A.
Brushes.
- B.
Slip rings.
- C.
Commutator
- D.
Permanent magnet.
- 58.(411) One function of the CSD governor system is to
- A.
Sense the engine drive RPM required to control the CSD.
- B.
Disconnect the generator from the engine in event of a failure.
- C.
Equalize the load between generators operating in parallel.
- D.
Maintain a constant 400-volt output.
- 59.(411) Which component ensures the CSD output speed is always at the desired RPM to adjust and maintain the desired 400 Hz?
- A.
Wobbler control.
- B.
Pump and motor unit.
- C.
Variable pump wobbler.
- D.
Frequency and load controller.
- 60.(411) What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?
- A.
Engine fittings.
- B.
Engine adapter.
- C.
Aircraft fittings.
- D.
Aircraft adapter.
- 61.(412) How are the thermocouples connected in an averaging type of EGT circuit?
- A.
Series.
- B.
Lateral.
- C.
Parallel.
- D.
Series-parallel.
- 62.(412) The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to
- A.
Adjust the thermocouples.
- B.
Calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station
- C.
Compensate for minor voltage buildups in the circuit.
- D.
Compensate for differences in temperatures at altitude.
- 63.(412) What is the primary input power to the main ignition system?
- A.
28 VAC.
- B.
28 VDC
- C.
120 VAC.
- D.
120 VDC
- 64.(413) How many sets of imbedded magnets does the rotor contain?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
- 65.(413) What does the EGT/T5.6 thermocouple consist of?
- A.
Alumel.
- B.
Chromel.
- C.
Both alumel and chromel.
- D.
None of these.
- 66.(414) Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?
- A.
Inverter.
- B.
Capacitor.
- C.
Generator.
- D.
Transformer
- 67.(414) A simple DC ignition system consists of vibrator,
- A.
AC to DC converter, transformer, and igniter plugs.
- B.
Igniter plugs, and AC to DC converter.
- C.
AC to DC converter, and transformer.
- D.
Igniter plugs, and transformer.
- 68.(415) How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW–100 engine ignition system?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Five
- 69.(415) An F100-PW–100 engine augmentor igniter plug ionizes at a minimum rate of how many sparks per second?
- A.
25
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
90
- 70.(416) Which statement best describes the air turbine (impingement) starter?
- A.
Requires high-pressure, low-volume air-flow to produce torque necessary for engine start
- B.
Has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.
- C.
Uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine.
- D.
Is mounted on the engine accessory drive.
- 71.(416) The two air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate properly are sufficient
- A.
Volume and velocity.
- B.
Volume and pressure.
- C.
Temperature and velocity.
- D.
Temperature and pressure.
- 72.(417) The JFS is basically a
- A.
Piston-type starter
- B.
Pneumatic-type starter.
- C.
Small gas turbine engine.
- D.
Cartridge-pneumatic starter.
- 73.(417) Which item initially rotates the JFS?
- A.
ESS PTO.
- B.
Electric motor mounted on the aircraft.
- C.
Hydraulic motor.
- D.
Engine PTO.
- 74.(417) Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?
- A.
Can
- B.
Annular.
- C.
Can-annular.
- D.
Restricted flow.
- 75.(417) What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
- A.
Geartrain.
- B.
Turbine plenum.
- C.
Generator control unit.
- D.
Gas generator and accessory drive assembly.
- 76.(417) Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly?
- A.
Stator ring.
- B.
Turbine plenum.
- C.
Exhaust housing.
- D.
Generator assembly
- 77.(418) The F-15 secondary power system does not include the
- A.
JFS.
- B.
CGB.
- C.
CSD.
- D.
AMAD.
- 78.(418) Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition?
- A.
Overspeed clutch.
- B.
OverrunThree-speed switch.
- C.
Three-speed switch.
- D.
Power turbine overspeed switch.
- 79.(418) On the F-15 secondary power system CGB, how are the isolation decouplers extended?
- A.
Manually.
- B.
Electrically.
- C.
Hydraulically.
- D.
By spring pressure.
- 80.(418) Oil is supplied to the F-15 JFS through the
- A.
Oil tank.
- B.
Aircraft filter.
- C.
JFS oil system.
- D.
CGB oil system.
- 81.(418) On an F-15, the power to start the engines begins with the JFS and continues through the CGB to the
- A.
PTO.
- B.
ADG.
- C.
PMG.
- D.
AMAD
- 82.(418) On the F-15 secondary power system, what is used to stop the JFS starting cycle when the aircraft engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed?
- A.
Four-speed cutout switch.
- B.
Manual decoupler.
- C.
Hydraulic decoupler.
- D.
50-percent engine cutout switch assembly.
- 83.(419) Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?
- A.
Compressor.
- B.
Combustion.
- C.
Augmentor.
- D.
Turbine
- 84.(419) What is one of the first indications of ice formation at aircraft engine inlets?
- A.
Compressor stall.
- B.
Variable nozzle closes.
- C.
Decrease in exhaust gas temperature.
- D.
Increase in RPM.
- 85.(420) On an F110-GE–129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and
- A.
Ring cowl.
- B.
Fan inlet guide vane flaps.
- C.
Variable exhaust nozzle flaps.
- D.
C-D duct.
- 86.(420) On an F110-GE–129 engine, compressor bleed air is used for anti-icing, customer bleed, and
- A.
VSV actuator control.
- B.
IGV actuator control.
- C.
Low-pressure turbine cooling functions.
- D.
Main engine fuel pump operation.
- 87.(421) What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?
- A.
Ohm’s law.
- B.
Bernoulli’s law.
- C.
Newton’s first law.
- D.
Newton’s third law.
- 88.(421) The bleed air system is different from the variable vane system in that it
- A.
Allows airflow in only one direction.
- B.
Bleeds off air before it enters the engine.
- C.
Prevents airflow from entering the engine.
- D.
Bleeds off air after it has entered the engine.
- 89.(421) The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor stall in a dual-rotor engine by
- A.
Reducing the amount of air available to the N2 compressor.
- B.
Reducing the amount of air available to the N1 compressor.
- C.
Increasing the amount of air delivered to the N2 compressor.
- D.
Increasing the amount of air delivered by the N1 compressor.
- 90.(422) The cooling air for turbine nozzle vanes comes from
- A.
All stages of the compressor
- B.
Just the middle of the compressor.
- C.
The last few stages of the compressor
- D.
The first few stages of the compressor
- 91.(422) Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?
- A.
Through a heat exchanger.
- B.
Out the turbine case bleed holes.
- C.
Into the gas stream to exit the engine.
- D.
Back to the compressor to be used again.
- 92.(423) The F110-GE–129 engine controls airflow through the engine with the
- A.
VSV only.
- B.
VSVs and variable bleed valves.
- C.
IGV only.
- D.
IGVs and VSVs.
- 93.(423) Below what percentage of core engine speed are the VSV fully closed (cambered) on an F110-GE–129 engine?
- A.
45 percent.
- B.
50 percent.
- C.
55 percent
- D.
60 percent
- 94.(423) On an F110-GE–129 engine, the MEC schedules the variable vane positions by the
- A.
Sea-level temperature and actual engine RPM.
- B.
Turbine discharge pressure and compressor inlet temperature.
- C.
Fan discharge temperature and core engine speed.
- D.
Compressor inlet pressure and turbine speed.
- 95.(423) What is the function of the flexible feedback cable on the F110-GE–129 engine variable vane system?
- A.
Position the bleed valves in response to differential pressure through the fuel gear motor.
- B.
Position the bleed valves during acceleration and low RPM.
- C.
Transmit a mechanical feedback signal to the variable nozzle control.
- D.
Transmit a mechanical feedback signal to the main engine control.
- 96.(424) What component in the F100 monitoring system provides the operator information concerning how much (in percentage) the augmentor nozzle is opened or closed?
- A.
Oil pressure transmitter.
- B.
Engine Diagnostic Unit.
- C.
Fan turbine Inlet Temperature.
- D.
Augmentor Nozzle positioning indicator.
- 97.(424) Where is the fuel flow transmitter located in the F-15?
- A.
In the engine bay
- B.
Left front side of gearbox
- C.
Right front side of gearbox.
- D.
Attached to the fuel control.
- 98.(425) What component in the F110 monitoring system performs diagnostics and fault isolates to line replaceable units?
- A.
Full Authority Digital Electronic Control
- B.
Engine Monitoring System Computer.
- C.
Central Air Data Computer.
- D.
Ground Station Unit.
- 99.(426) What component or components make up the engine monitoring system on the F119 engine itself?
- A.
DEC.
- B.
CEDU.
- C.
FADEC
- D.
CEDU and FADEC.
- 100.(426) What component in the F119 engine monitoring system processes and stores vibration signals, oil debris signals, oil level signals, condition monitoring and fault information data in resident memory?
- A.
CEDU.
- B.
FADEC
- C.
Main engine control.
- D.
Main Fuel Throttle Valve.
- 101.(427) What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is not operating?
- A.
Act as the basic engine tailpipe.
- B.
Control engine discharge pressure.
- C.
Aid in control of engine oil pressure.
- D.
Help to control pressure and N2 speed.
- 102.(427) What is used to open and close flap-type and iris-type variable-exhaust nozzle systems?
- A.
Oil pressure for both types.
- B.
Air pressure for both types.
- C.
Oil pressure for the flap-type and fuel pressure for the iris-type.
- D.
Fuel pressure for the flap-type and air pressure for the iris-type.
- 103.(427) The most important advantage of using a C-D nozzle system is the
- A.
Need for bleed valves is eliminated.
- B.
Need for inlet guide vanes is eliminated.
- C.
Life expectancies of the engine and augmentor are increased.
- D.
Pilot has more control of engine thrust throughout all operational ranges.
- 104.(427) What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?
- A.
Fuel control.
- B.
Fuel spraybars.
- C.
Fuel manifolds.
- D.
Fuel/oil cooler.
- 105.(427) Which system employs a small combustion chamber to ignite the fuel in the augmentor (afterburner) duct?
- A.
Hot streak.
- B.
Torch igniter.
- C.
Fuel injection.
- D.
Pilot burner ring.
- 106.(427) What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems?
- A.
Torch igniter and hot streak.
- B.
Hot streak and fuel injection.
- C.
Pilot burner ring and hot streak.
- D.
Torch igniter and pilot burner ring.
- 107.(428) On the F100 engine augmentor, the divergent and convergent nozzle segments complete a four-bar linkage arrangement that controls the
- A.
Convergent exhaust nozzle control.
- B.
Aj.
- C.
Afterburner fuel control.
- D.
Unified fuel control.
- 108.(428) The F100 engine augmentor’s primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the
- A.
T5 amplifier.
- B.
Unified control.
- C.
Afterburner fuel control.
- D.
CENC
- 109.(428) The F100 engine augmentor’s exhaust nozzle is variable to control engine
- A.
N2 compressor rotor speed.
- B.
Thrust and fan stall margin
- C.
Fan stall margin only.
- D.
Thrust only.
- 110.(429) What component in the electronic/mechanical controls is a fuel cooled digital computer that provides signals to the MFC for control of the front compressor speed (N1), rear compressor speed (N2), engine airflow, combustion chamber pressure (Pb4) and FTIT.
- A.
MFC.
- B.
DEEC
- C.
Stator generator
- D.
Throttle quadrant.
- 111.Select the ones you like
- A.
Option1
- B.
Option2
- C.
Option3
- D.
Option4
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