Male Genital Tract Quiz

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| By Sowmya520
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Sowmya520
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Quizzes Created: 10 | Total Attempts: 26,519
Questions: 9 | Attempts: 545

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Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz on Male genital tract for pathology


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the most important cause of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?

    • A.

      Schistosoma

    • B.

      E. coli

    • C.

      Candida

    • D.

      Genetics

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Schistosoma
    Explanation
    Schistosoma is the most important cause of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. Schistosoma is a parasitic worm that infects the urinary tract and can lead to chronic inflammation and damage to the bladder epithelium. This chronic inflammation increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma, a type of bladder cancer. E. coli and Candida are not typically associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder, and while genetics may play a role in some cases, it is not the most important cause.

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  • 2. 

    A patient presents with dysuria, increased frequency and urgency, low back and pelvic pain, fever chills, with loss of sex drie and painful erections and ejaculations. He has infection of the prostate. What is the most common cause of acute prostitis?

    • A.

      E. coli

    • B.

      Strep.

    • C.

      Staph

    • D.

      Fungi

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. E. coli
    Explanation
    The most common cause of acute prostatitis is E. coli. This bacterium is commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and can ascend into the prostate gland, causing infection. The symptoms described by the patient, such as dysuria, increased frequency and urgency, low back and pelvic pain, fever chills, and loss of sex drive, are consistent with acute prostatitis. Other organisms like Strep., Staph, and fungi can also cause prostatitis, but E. coli is the most common culprit.

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  • 3. 

    A patient presents with an enlarged prostate gland that is not premalignant. Micrscopically, there is an increased proliferation of stromal and epithelial cells. Corpora amylacea are also seen. The patients complains of difficulty starting or stopping urination, with dribbling, nocturia, and fullness of bladder. Which of the following is decreased in this patient?

    • A.

      Testosterone

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Pancreatic enzymes

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Testosterone
    Explanation
    In this patient with an enlarged prostate gland, the increased proliferation of stromal and epithelial cells suggests benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a non-malignant condition characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. Testosterone, a male hormone, plays a role in the development and growth of the prostate gland. However, in BPH, there is actually a decrease in the levels of testosterone within the prostate tissue. This decrease in testosterone is thought to be due to an imbalance in the ratio of testosterone to estrogen, with estrogen levels remaining relatively constant or even increasing. Therefore, the correct answer is testosterone.

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  • 4. 

    A patient presents with hematuria, and bone pain in the back. Like the previous patient, he also has dysuria and interrupted urine flow. He is diagnosed with prostate cancer. What is the most important marker of his disease?

    • A.

      PSA

    • B.

      BRCA1

    • C.

      None of the above

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      Who cares

    Correct Answer
    A. PSA
    Explanation
    PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland. Elevated levels of PSA in the blood can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. Therefore, PSA is the most important marker for diagnosing and monitoring prostate cancer. BRCA1 is a gene mutation associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer, but it is not directly related to prostate cancer. "None of the above" and "All of the above" are not applicable in this case. "Who cares" is not a valid response.

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  • 5. 

    _ gene is affected

    Correct Answer
    RNASEL
    Explanation
    The given answer "RNASEL" is a gene that is affected. However, without any context or additional information, it is not possible to provide a specific explanation for why this gene is affected. It could be due to genetic mutations, environmental factors, or other causes.

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  • 6. 

    Is serum PSA cancer specific?

    • A.

      No, it is also found in hyperplasia and prostitis

    • B.

      Yes

    • C.

      Not sure

    • D.

      Who cares

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. No, it is also found in hyperplasia and prostitis
    Explanation
    The answer is no because serum PSA is not specific to cancer. It can also be found in conditions such as hyperplasia and prostatitis. Therefore, the presence of serum PSA does not necessarily indicate the presence of cancer.

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  • 7. 

    Poorly differentiated sheets and nests are seen in grade _ and well differentiated glands are seen in grade _

    Correct Answer
    5, 1
    Explanation
    In grade 5, poorly differentiated sheets and nests are observed, indicating a lack of organization and structure in the cells. This suggests a higher degree of malignancy and aggressiveness in the tumor. On the other hand, grade 1 exhibits well differentiated glands, indicating a more organized and structured growth pattern. This suggests a lower degree of malignancy and a better prognosis for the patient.

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  • 8. 

    Metastatic disease is stage _ and extension outside the prostate is stage _

    Correct Answer
    D C
    Explanation
    Metastatic disease refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to other parts of the body. This is considered an advanced stage of cancer and is denoted by stage D. On the other hand, extension outside the prostate refers to the cancer cells spreading beyond the prostate gland. This is considered a localized stage of cancer and is denoted by stage C.

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  • 9. 

    A fetus presents with only one testes because the other one has not completely descended. The baby has Pader Willi syndrome. Microscopically, there is leydig cell hyperplasia and hyalinised tubules. The patient has an increased risk of which of the following?

    • A.

      Prostate cancer

    • B.

      Seminoma of the testes

    • C.

      Gynecomastia

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Seminoma of the testes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is seminoma of the testes. Pader Willi syndrome is associated with an increased risk of testicular tumors, particularly seminomas. The presence of only one descended testes suggests that the other testes may be undescended, which further increases the risk of testicular cancer. The microscopic findings of leydig cell hyperplasia and hyalinised tubules also support the increased risk of seminoma. Prostate cancer and gynecomastia are not typically associated with Pader Willi syndrome.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 18, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Sowmya520
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