Jet Engine Mechanic 5 Level EOC Pretest (2A651)

83 Questions | Total Attempts: 578

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Jet Engine Quizzes & Trivia

This a cummulative pretest of all 5 volumes. A typical pretest for this AFSC


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
    • A. 

      NCO academy

    • B. 

      On the Job training

    • C. 

      Career development course

    • D. 

      Task qualification training

  • 2. 
    You may attend ADLS after having how many months in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      60

  • 3. 
    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series :
    • A. 

      91

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      127

    • D. 

      161

  • 4. 
    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      21-101

    • D. 

      36-2108

  • 5. 
    How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet to the rear

    • B. 

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet to the rear

    • C. 

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear

    • D. 

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear

  • 6. 
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions

    • B. 

      Unauthorized access

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials

  • 7. 
    If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005

    • B. 

      AFTO form 350

    • C. 

      AFTO form 349

    • D. 

      DD form 1574

  • 8. 
    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • B. 

      Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only)

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

  • 9. 
    The First part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C. 

      Category and type of equipment in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 10. 
    Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-2

  • 11. 
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by
    • A. 

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports

    • B. 

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules

    • C. 

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures

    • D. 

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions

  • 12. 
    How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 13. 
    You adjust a micrometer by turning the
    • A. 

      Barrel

    • B. 

      Frame

    • C. 

      Spindle

    • D. 

      Thimble

  • 14. 
    The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
    • A. 

      Function selcector

    • B. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch

    • C. 

      Touch-hold pushbutton switch

    • D. 

      Volts,ohms,diode test input jack

  • 15. 
    Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Maturity

    • C. 

      Rank

    • D. 

      Experience

  • 16. 
    Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 17. 
    What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Clevis

    • B. 

      Hex head

    • C. 

      Special purpose

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching

  • 18. 
    How is a screw length measured?
    • A. 

      Thread length of treads

    • B. 

      Base of the head to the bottom of the threads

    • C. 

      Length of the shank plus the threaded portion

    • D. 

      Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads

  • 19. 
    When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    • A. 

      6-8

    • B. 

      8-10

    • C. 

      10-12

    • D. 

      12-14

  • 20. 
    You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
    • A. 

      Their intentional orange color

    • B. 

      The different colors of the tubing or hoses

    • C. 

      The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses

    • D. 

      The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses

  • 21. 
    For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      35

  • 22. 
    When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
    • A. 

      Look for leaks

    • B. 

      Change the oil filter

    • C. 

      Inspect for missing parts

    • D. 

      Inspect the compressor inlet

  • 23. 
    To release internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    • A. 

      Parting surface nuts

    • B. 

      Parting surface bolts

    • C. 

      Filler valve on the side of the container

    • D. 

      Filler valve on the front of the container

  • 24. 
    Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 25. 
    What information is found in Part 1 of an AFTO form 244?
    • A. 

      Supervisory review

    • B. 

      Item identification

    • C. 

      Employee number blocks

    • D. 

      Nonscheduled inspection blocks

  • 26. 
    "An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body" This statement is
    • A. 

      Bernoulli's principle

    • B. 

      Newton's first law of motion

    • C. 

      Newton's second law of motion

    • D. 

      Newton's third law of motion

  • 27. 
    Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?
    • A. 

      Turbine

    • B. 

      Exhaust

    • C. 

      Diffuser

    • D. 

      Combustion

  • 28. 
    What is the sea-level atmosperic pressure at "standard day" conditions?
    • A. 

      13.5

    • B. 

      14.7

    • C. 

      49.94

    • D. 

      40.55

  • 29. 
    What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure?
    • A. 

      Increases pressure

    • B. 

      Decreases Pressure

    • C. 

      Has no effect

    • D. 

      Results in pressure fluctuations

  • 30. 
    What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
    • A. 

      Flameholder

    • B. 

      Combustion chamber

    • C. 

      Turbine wheel blades

    • D. 

      Turbine stator

  • 31. 
    The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to
    • A. 

      Act as a vibation damper

    • B. 

      Allow cooling air to the turbine

    • C. 

      Provide a passage for lubricating oil

    • D. 

      Provide a passage for the main fuel supply

  • 32. 
    Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and
    • A. 

      Fir tree

    • B. 

      Shrouded

    • C. 

      Unshrouded

    • D. 

      Reaction-impulse

  • 33. 
    When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because they
    • A. 

      Wear faster

    • B. 

      Attract dirt

    • C. 

      Cause oxidation

    • D. 

      Get soaked with sweat

  • 34. 
    The recommended method of heating inner reaces of bearings before installing them is
    • A. 

      Hot-oil bath

    • B. 

      Portable heater

    • C. 

      Bearing furnace

    • D. 

      Hydraulic bath

  • 35. 
    On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assmebly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?
    • A. 

      Diffuser

    • B. 

      Compressor rotor

    • C. 

      Compressor housing

    • D. 

      Compressor air inlet housing

  • 36. 
    The stationary (stator) vane blades on the T56 compressor are used to
    • A. 

      Increase velocity

    • B. 

      Increase pressure

    • C. 

      Decrease pressure

    • D. 

      Prolong compressor life

  • 37. 
    The AE2100D3 power plant major assemblies are the PGB, torquemeter assembly, power section, accessory drives, and the
    • A. 

      Nacelle structure

    • B. 

      Hydraulic pump

    • C. 

      Electric generator

    • D. 

      Tailpipe assembly

  • 38. 
    What routes oil and fuel through the T700 engine AGB?
    • A. 

      Internal lines

    • B. 

      External lines

    • C. 

      Internal passages

    • D. 

      External passages

  • 39. 
    What percentage of the total engine thrust does secondary airflow on the F108 engine produce?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      80

    • D. 

      100

  • 40. 
    On an F100-PW-220 engine, the No. 1 bearing assembly is located in the
    • A. 

      Diffuser case

    • B. 

      Rear fan duct

    • C. 

      Intermediate case

    • D. 

      Front compressor stator inlet shroud

  • 41. 
    On an F100-PW-220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through
    • A. 

      A transfer drive shaft

    • B. 

      A gearbox drive shaft

    • C. 

      A radial drive shaft

    • D. 

      An axial drive shaft

  • 42. 
    Which bearing compartment is contained in the intermediate case of the F119-pw-100 engine?
    • A. 

      No.1 and No.2 bearing

    • B. 

      No.2 and No.3 bearing

    • C. 

      No.3 and No. 4 bearing

    • D. 

      No.4 bearing and No.5 bearing

  • 43. 
    On the F119-PW-100 engine, which of the following is not attached to the gearbox assembly?
    • A. 

      Actuator fuel pump

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump

    • C. 

      Augmenter fuel control

    • D. 

      Engine generator

  • 44. 
    At room temperature how many times longer does it take water to settle in JP8 than in gasoline?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 45. 
    Operational control of the F108 engine is acheived by the use of the power lever, fuel shutoff lever and
    • A. 

      Fuel pump

    • B. 

      Oil heat exchanger

    • C. 

      Air fuel exchanger

    • D. 

      PMC

  • 46. 
    What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown ?
    • A. 

      Servo valve

    • B. 

      Fuel check vavle

    • C. 

      Electric shutoff valve

    • D. 

      Latching shutoff valve

  • 47. 
    Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
    • A. 

      TD valve

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump

    • C. 

      TD amplifier

    • D. 

      Fuel control

  • 48. 
    When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon seal is provided by
    • A. 

      Air pressure

    • B. 

      Spring spressure

    • C. 

      Hydraulic pressure

    • D. 

      Oil pressure

  • 49. 
    The F100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature, and
    • A. 

      Oil jet pressure

    • B. 

      Fan turbine speed

    • C. 

      Oil nozzle condition

    • D. 

      Number of oil jets used

  • 50. 
    Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side the engine
    • A. 

      Wet sump

    • B. 

      Dry sump

    • C. 

      Hot tank

    • D. 

      Cold tank

  • 51. 
    What is used to check the oil level in a F108 engine
    • A. 

      Sight gauge on the oil tank

    • B. 

      Flight station oil level gauge

    • C. 

      Filler cap with a graduated gauge

    • D. 

      Graduated marking on the outside of the tank

  • 52. 
    How many scavange oil pumps are located in the RGB ?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 53. 
    The Journeyman must be aware of which hazardous property of modern jet engine oil ?
    • A. 

      Toxcicity

    • B. 

      Alkalinity

    • C. 

      Viscosity

    • D. 

      Corrosiveness

  • 54. 
    Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than
    • A. 

      5%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      15%

    • D. 

      20%

  • 55. 
    On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?
    • A. 

      Brushes

    • B. 

      Commutator

    • C. 

      Rotating loop

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet

  • 56. 
    Which unit of an AC inition system develops 20,000 volts?
    • A. 

      Invertor

    • B. 

      Capacitor

    • C. 

      Generator

    • D. 

      Transformer

  • 57. 
    On early ignition systems, what is the pupose of the compositors in an ignition system?
    • A. 

      Prevents the points from arching

    • B. 

      Cause a voltage to jump across the spark gap in the ignition unit

    • C. 

      Step up voltage high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug

    • D. 

      Hold back the current flow until the voltage is high enough to be rectified

  • 58. 
    The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of the
    • A. 

      Shaft and piston

    • B. 

      Igniter and cable

    • C. 

      Flyweights and piston

    • D. 

      Flyweights and igniter

  • 59. 
    The JFS is basicly a
    • A. 

      Piston type starter

    • B. 

      Pneumatic type starter

    • C. 

      Small gas turbine engine

    • D. 

      Cartridge pneumatic starter

  • 60. 
    Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition ?
    • A. 

      Overspeed clutch

    • B. 

      Three speed switch

    • C. 

      Overrunning clutch

    • D. 

      Power turbine overspeed switch

  • 61. 
    When starting the F16, which component drives the  JFS geartrain, fuel control, and lube pump
    • A. 

      Pneumatic power

    • B. 

      Electrical power

    • C. 

      Hydraulic start motor

    • D. 

      Accessory drive gearbox

  • 62. 
    One type of aerodynamic blockage thrust reverser uses
    • A. 

      A closed nozzle

    • B. 

      The reverser door extension

    • C. 

      A clamshell type restriction aft of engine

    • D. 

      Vanes inside the duct to create swirling gases

  • 63. 
    In the mechanical type blockage thrust reverser, when the reverser is not in use what happens to the doors
    • A. 

      They retract into the engine mount strut

    • B. 

      They are stored behind each engine in the wing

    • C. 

      They form the inner exhaust cone during forward thrust operation

    • D. 

      They retract around the engine exhaust cone, usually forming the rear section of the engine nacelle

  • 64. 
    What are the two main types of augmentor ignition systems ?
    • A. 

      Torch igniter and hot streak

    • B. 

      Hot streak and fuel injection

    • C. 

      Pilot burner ring and hot streak

    • D. 

      Torch igniter and pilot burner

  • 65. 
    On the 54H60-91 propeller, which is a function of the the pitchlock regulator?
    • A. 

      Stops the dome piston from increasing blade angle above 23.3

    • B. 

      Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost

    • C. 

      Prevents cam bearing rollers from bottoming out in the track slopes

    • D. 

      Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is positioned in alpha range

  • 66. 
    On the 54H60-91 popeller, what is the function of the differential gear train assembly?
    • A. 

      Drives the main and standby pressure pumps

    • B. 

      Controls operation of the pilot valve and serves as an electrical ground

    • C. 

      Drives the rotation sleeve when the throttle is positioned in the beta range

    • D. 

      Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweights

  • 67. 
    On the 54H60-91 propeller, which pump is used to feather or unfeather the propeller during static propeller operation? 
    • A. 

      Main

    • B. 

      Backup

    • C. 

      Standby

    • D. 

      Auxiliary

  • 68. 
    On the 54H60-91 propeller, what forces the stop levers on the low pitch stop to move outward?
    • A. 

      Wedge

    • B. 

      Servo valve

    • C. 

      Dome piston

    • D. 

      Hydraulic piston

  • 69. 
    On the 54H60-91 propeller, when feathering the propeller, what acts on the mechanical linkage to open the feather actuating valve?
    • A. 

      Throttle

    • B. 

      Beta shaft

    • C. 

      Pilot valve

    • D. 

      Manual feather cam

  • 70. 
    When attempting to unfeather the 54H60-91 propeller in flight, where must the throttle be positioned?
    • A. 

      Any throttle position

    • B. 

      Above FLT IDLE

    • C. 

      At TAKE OFF

    • D. 

      At GND IDLE

  • 71. 
    The master synchrophaser board located in the synchrophaser unit contains a master channel and a slave channel. These channels are used by which propellers?
    • A. 

      No 1 and no 2

    • B. 

      No 2 and no 3

    • C. 

      No 3 and no 4

    • D. 

      All four propellers

  • 72. 
    Which is a function of normal governing?
    • A. 

      Blade phase angles

    • B. 

      Propeller reindexing

    • C. 

      Throttle anticipation

    • D. 

      Identical propeller speeds

  • 73. 
    If the master propeller fails during synchrophaser governing, the slave propellers follow the master to
    • A. 

      A 96% mechanical stop

    • B. 

      About a 2% speed change

    • C. 

      The mechanical governor setting

    • D. 

      The preset master propeller governing setting

  • 74. 
    When the ambient temperature is greater than 65*F and a patch is bonded to the blade fairing, what is the recommended drying time before running the repaired propeller on the aircraft engine?
    • A. 

      24 hrs

    • B. 

      48 hrs

    • C. 

      5 days

    • D. 

      7 days

  • 75. 
    The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to
    • A. 

      Inflate tires

    • B. 

      Remove snow and ice from aircraft surfaces

    • C. 

      Supply pneumattic power to aricraft pnehmatic starters

    • D. 

      Provide pneumatic power for air-conditioning systems

  • 76. 
    On an GTCP165 engine, turbine discharge temperature is controlled by the
    • A. 

      PMG

    • B. 

      Governor

    • C. 

      Pneumatic thermostat

    • D. 

      Fuel flow divider valve

  • 77. 
    On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
    • A. 

      Rheostat

    • B. 

      Rectifier

    • C. 

      Transducer

    • D. 

      Transformer

  • 78. 
    The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
    • A. 

      Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure

    • B. 

      Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure

    • C. 

      Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure

    • D. 

      Compressor discharge total pressure and trubine inlet total pressure

  • 79. 
    The test cell 1C temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
    • A. 

      100 to +1,000*

    • B. 

      75 to +1,400*

    • C. 

      -50 to +1,600*

    • D. 

      -25 to +1,800*

  • 80. 
    During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
    • A. 

      Mils

    • B. 

      Phase lags

    • C. 

      Cycles per second

    • D. 

      Phases per sound

  • 81. 
    The two types fo transducers used to measure vibration are
    • A. 

      Velocity and phase accelerometer

    • B. 

      Velocity and displacement accelerometer

    • C. 

      Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer

    • D. 

      Piezoelctric acceleromether and phase lag transducer

  • 82. 
    The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust the
    • A. 

      Fuel enrichment valve without being under the engine

    • B. 

      Fuel flow transmitter while under the engine

    • C. 

      Fuel control without being under the engine

    • D. 

      Fuel pump while under the engine

  • 83. 
    The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
    • A. 

      Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system

    • B. 

      Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system

    • C. 

      Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump

    • D. 

      Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump