2A651 Edition2 Vol. 1 Ure

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2A651 Edition2 Vol. 1 Ure - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which functions form a maintenance group?

    • A.

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B.

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C.

      Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA. This answer includes all the necessary functions for a maintenance group, which are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. These functions are essential for ensuring the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft.

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  • 2. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • A.

      Operations Support Center.

    • B.

      Logistics Support Squadron.

    • C.

      Operations Support Squadron.

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Operations Center.
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the operations and maintenance activities of the fleet, ensuring that everything is running smoothly and efficiently. They coordinate with various departments and personnel to ensure timely maintenance and repairs, and they also track and analyze fleet health indicators to identify any potential issues or areas for improvement.

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  • 3. 

    When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?

    • A.

      Maintenance.

    • B.

      Accessories.

    • C.

      Fabrication.

    • D.

      Munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance.
    Explanation
    As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, you will most likely be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the main responsibility of an engine troop is to perform maintenance and repairs on engines. The Maintenance flight is specifically responsible for the overall maintenance and upkeep of equipment, including engines, within the squadron. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that as an engine troop, you would be attached to the Maintenance flight.

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  • 4. 

    What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

    • A.

      Career field subdivision

    • B.

      Specific AFSC

    • C.

      Career field.

    • D.

      Skill level.

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific AFSC
    Explanation
    The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. AFSCs are used to identify and categorize different career fields within the Air Force. The specific AFSC is a unique code that identifies a specific job or specialty within the career field. In this case, the fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 would indicate the specific job or specialty within the broader career field.

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  • 5. 

    (002) What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      Craftsman.

    • B.

      Apprentice.

    • C.

      Journeyman.

    • D.

      Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Craftsman.
    Explanation
    Once you obtain the 7-skill level, your title will be Craftsman. This suggests that reaching the 7-skill level signifies a high level of expertise and mastery in a particular craft or skill. The term "Craftsman" is often associated with someone who has honed their skills through years of experience and is considered an expert in their field.

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  • 6. 

    (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • A.

      On-the-job training.

    • B.

      Task qualification training.

    • C.

      Career development course.

    • D.

      Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA).

    Correct Answer
    C. Career development course.
    Explanation
    A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills and knowledge related to their specific career field. It may cover a wide range of topics such as technical skills, leadership development, and professional growth. By participating in a career development course, individuals can acquire the necessary knowledge to excel in their job and advance in their career.

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  • 7. 

    (002) How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
    Explanation
    In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, you must have a minimum of 48 months of service. This indicates that you need to have served for at least four years before being eligible for ALS.

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  • 8. 

    (003) Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series

    • A.

      91

    • B.

      66

    • C.

      127

    • D.

      161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

    • A.

      Goggles.

    • B.

      Back brace.

    • C.

      Leather gloves.

    • D.

      Safety-toed boots.

    Correct Answer
    D. Safety-toed boots.
    Explanation
    Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, crushing, and impacts. Heavy objects can cause severe injuries if they fall on the feet or if the feet are accidentally stepped on. Safety-toed boots have reinforced toes that can withstand the impact and prevent injuries. Goggles protect the eyes, back brace supports the back, and leather gloves protect the hands, but none of these specifically address the potential hazards to the feet when lifting heavy objects.

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  • 10. 

    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • A.

      00–5–1.

    • B.

      00–20–1.

    • C.

      21–101

    • D.

      36–2108.

    Correct Answer
    C. 21–101
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21–101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

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  • 11. 

    (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

    • A.

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear

    • B.

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C.

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D.

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the axis of rotation of a propeller extends 10 feet in front of the propeller and 5 feet behind it.

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  • 12. 

    (004) When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the

    • A.

      Ground man.

    • B.

      Crew cheif

    • C.

      Scanner

    • D.

      Pilot

    Correct Answer
    D. Pilot
    Explanation
    When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot. This is because the pilot has the best visibility of the entire aircraft and can ensure the safety of everyone around. The pilot can also communicate with the ground crew and coordinate their movements to avoid any accidents or injuries. Therefore, it is important for all personnel to follow the pilot's instructions and remain visible to them at all times.

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  • 13. 

    (005) Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

    • A.

      People

    • B.

      Animals

    • C.

      Weather

    • D.

      Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
    Explanation
    Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by people. This refers to any damage caused to equipment or machinery due to the presence of foreign objects, such as tools, debris, or other materials, that are accidentally left behind or introduced by human error. These objects can cause significant damage to sensitive components, leading to malfunctions or failures. It is important for individuals to be vigilant and follow proper procedures to prevent FOD and ensure the safety and functionality of equipment.

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  • 14. 

    (006) During flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

    • A.

      Acetone

    • B.

      Toluene

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Carbon monoxide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon monoxide.
    Explanation
    During flight-line and test cell operations, exposure to carbon monoxide is possible. Carbon monoxide is a colorless and odorless gas that is produced by the incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels. It can be present in the exhaust fumes of aircraft engines and can pose a serious health risk if inhaled in high concentrations. Acetone, toluene, and carbon dioxide are not specifically mentioned in the context of flight-line and test cell operations, making carbon monoxide the most likely correct answer.

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  • 15. 

    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • A.

      Aerosols.

    • B.

      Liquids.

    • C.

      Solids

    • D.

      Gases

    Correct Answer
    D. Gases
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are the easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because they can be easily inhaled. Gases have the ability to disperse in the air and can be inhaled directly into the lungs, allowing them to quickly enter the bloodstream and affect various organs. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require ingestion or contact with the skin to enter the body, which can be slower and less efficient.

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  • 16. 

    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Hospital.

    • C.

      Supervisor.

    • D.

      Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that employees understand the proper procedures and guidelines for using PPE to protect themselves and others from potential hazards. The supervisor plays a crucial role in promoting a safe work environment and ensuring that employees are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to use PPE effectively.

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  • 17. 

    (007) What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

    • A.

      Alcohol

    • B.

      Pine oil

    • C.

      Mild soap

    • D.

      Fleur-de-lis.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mild soap
    Explanation
    Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is effective in removing dirt, oil, and other contaminants from the surface of the respirator. Mild soap is gentle enough to not damage the materials of the respirator while still providing an effective cleaning. It is important to clean and sanitize respirators regularly to maintain their effectiveness and prevent the spread of germs and bacteria.

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  • 18. 

    (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • A.

      Explosions.

    • B.

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C.

      Overflow of materials.

    • D.

      Mixing of unlike materials.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the area. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents or mishandling of hazardous materials by untrained individuals, which can result in harm to the environment, public health, and safety. It is crucial to restrict access to authorized personnel only, who have the necessary knowledge and training to handle hazardous waste properly.

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  • 19. 

    (007) Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

    • A.

      Flash point.

    • B.

      Classification.

    • C.

      Shipping name.

    • D.

      Date the waste began to accumulate

    Correct Answer
    D. Date the waste began to accumulate
    Explanation
    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important because it helps track the age of the waste and ensures that it is properly managed and disposed of within the required timeframes. This information is crucial for regulatory compliance and helps in determining the appropriate handling and disposal methods for the waste.

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  • 20. 

    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • A.

      Dilution.

    • B.

      Incineration.

    • C.

      Land disposal.

    • D.

      Biodegradation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution.
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or another liquid to reduce its concentration. This method is often used for liquid or soluble waste, as it helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it less harmful to the environment. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always a sufficient or sustainable method for hazardous waste disposal, as it may only temporarily reduce the concentration of the waste and can still pose risks if not properly managed. Other methods such as incineration, land disposal, or biodegradation may be more appropriate depending on the nature of the waste.

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  • 21. 

    (008) From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

    • A.

      Base system

    • B.

      Weapons system.

    • C.

      Inventory system.

    • D.

      Geographical system.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapons system.
    Explanation
    The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the GLSC focuses on ensuring that the necessary logistics support is provided for the weapons system, including maintenance, repair, and supply chain management. By managing supply from the weapons system perspective, the GLSC can effectively coordinate and prioritize the allocation of resources to support the operational readiness of the weapons system.

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  • 22. 

    (008) What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?

    • A.

      Depot-level Repair System.

    • B.

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C.

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D.

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Repair Cycle Support System.
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle Support System has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to ensure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as quickly as possible. This system helps track and manage the repair process, ensuring that assets are efficiently repaired and returned to service.

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  • 23. 

    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

    • A.

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B.

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C.

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register (D04).
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register allows organizations to keep track of the documents that have been processed, ensuring that all necessary actions have been taken and nothing has been overlooked. It serves as a record for accountability and helps in maintaining an organized and efficient supply system.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization’s

    • A.

      Type of aircraft

    • B.

      Contract

    • C.

      Mission

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission
    Explanation
    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization's mission. This suggests that the organizations have different objectives and goals, which require specific parts and supplies to fulfill their missions effectively. By prioritizing the delivery based on the mission, Base Supply can ensure that the organizations receive the necessary parts in a timely manner to support their unique missions.

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  • 25. 

    (009) Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag?

    • A.

      AFMAN 23–110

    • B.

      TO 00–20–2.

    • C.

      AFI 91–301.

    • D.

      D. TO 00–5–1.

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00–20–2.
    Explanation
    TO 00-20-2 provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag.

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  • 26. 

    (010) If you are temporary duty (TDY) and both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • A.

      AF IMT 2005

    • B.

      DD Form 1574.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 349.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 350.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005
    Explanation
    If both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available while on temporary duty (TDY), the form that would be used to order an engine part is AF IMT 2005.

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  • 27. 

    (010) If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)

    • A.

      23–254

    • B.

      23–110.

    • C.

      91–254.

    • D.

      91–110.

    Correct Answer
    B. 23–110.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question is asking for the manual to refer to for detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force IMT Form 2005. The manual specified is AFMAN 23-110.

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  • 28. 

    (011) Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

    • A.

      1574.

    • B.

      1575.

    • C.

      1577–2.

    • D.

      1577–3.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1574.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1574. This is because serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form 1574.

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  • 29. 

    (011) Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

    • A.

      1574.

    • B.

      1575

    • C.

      1577–2.

    • D.

      1577–3.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1575
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1575. This is because the question states that items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are required to have an attached form. Out of the given options, DD Form 1575 is the most suitable form for this purpose.

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  • 30. 

    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • A.

      Supply

    • B.

      Shelf-life

    • C.

      Inspection

    • D.

      Bench stock

    Correct Answer
    B. Shelf-life
    Explanation
    A storage time period must be assigned to the item's shelf-life to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time. Shelf-life refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. By assigning a specific shelf-life to an item, it ensures that it will be used or consumed within the recommended time frame, guaranteeing its quality and performance.

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  • 31. 

    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

    • A.

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B.

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C.

      Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.

    • D.

      Should be inspected or tested.

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.
    Explanation
    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its assigned shelf-life period. It is important to adhere to this expiration date to ensure the item's effectiveness and safety.

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  • 32. 

    (013) In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to

    • A.

      Job control.

    • B.

      Wing commander.

    • C.

      Higher headquarters

    • D.

      Logistics commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Higher headquarters
    Explanation
    Deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to higher headquarters in the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents. This is because higher headquarters have the authority and responsibility to address and resolve issues that could potentially lead to accidents. They have the necessary resources and decision-making power to take appropriate actions and implement corrective measures to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment.

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  • 33. 

    (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?

    • A.

      Shelf-life.

    • B.

      Bench stock.

    • C.

      Hazardous materials.

    • D.

      Equipment authorization inventory data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment authorization inventory data.
    Explanation
    The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt (CA/CRL) must reflect the Equipment authorization inventory data. This means that any items that have been authorized and are part of the inventory must be listed on the CA/CRL. This includes equipment that has been authorized for use and is being held in custody by the custodian. Shelf-life, bench stock, and hazardous materials are not relevant to the CA/CRL and therefore do not need to be reflected on it.

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  • 34. 

    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • A.

      Shop cheif

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      Commander

    • D.

      Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. The commander is the highest-ranking officer in a military unit and has the authority to appoint individuals to various positions within the unit. As an equipment custodian, you would be responsible for managing and maintaining the unit's equipment inventory. This role requires trust and accountability, which is why the appointment is made by the commander.

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  • 35. 

    (014) When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

    • A.

      Before signing for the account.

    • B.

      Within 10 days of signing for the account.

    • C.

      Within 15 days of signing for the account.

    • D.

      Within 30 days of signing for the account.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before signing for the account.
    Explanation
    New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account. This is important because they need to be familiar with the procedures and responsibilities associated with the equipment they will be accountable for. By receiving training beforehand, they can ensure that they understand how to properly handle and maintain the equipment, as well as any regulations or guidelines that need to be followed. This will help to prevent any mishandling or misuse of the equipment, ensuring its longevity and functionality.

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  • 36. 

    (015) The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the

    • A.

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C.

      Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.

    Correct Answer
    C. Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO.
    Explanation
    The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the category and the aircraft mission type in the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific category of the technical order and the type of aircraft mission it is related to. This helps to organize and classify the TOs, making it easier for users to locate the appropriate TO for their specific needs.

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  • 37. 

    (016) In which type of technical order (TO) would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • A.

      Index.

    • B.

      Preliminary.

    • C.

      Methods and Procedure.

    • D.

      Operational and Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Index.
    Explanation
    In the Index type of technical order (TO), you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The Index provides a comprehensive list of all the TOs available for a particular category, making it easier for users to locate the specific TO they need. This helps in organizing and managing the TOs effectively, ensuring that all necessary information is easily accessible to the users.

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  • 38. 

    (016) Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00–5–1.

    • B.

      00–5–2.

    • C.

      00–20–1.

    • D.

      00–20–2.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00–5–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1 because it is the technical order (TO) that specifically describes the Air Force TO system. The other options, 00-5-2, 00-20-1, and 00-20-2, do not pertain to the Air Force TO system.

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  • 39. 

    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • A.

      General Equipment.

    • B.

      General System.

    • C.

      Fault Isolation.

    • D.

      Job Guide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Job Guide.
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform a specific maintenance task. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions on how to carry out a specific maintenance action.

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  • 40. 

    (017) What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction

    • B.

      Numerical index.

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D.

      Reference designation index.

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The introduction section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the various codes and symbols used throughout the IPB, helping users understand and interpret the information presented in the document.

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  • 41. 

    (018) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that have the potential to cause a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of individuals involved.

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  • 42. 

    (018) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent action.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent action." This is because the description given in the question matches the visual representation of the TCTO category for urgent action. The alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs, as well as the red diagonals bordering the first page, indicate that the TCTO requires immediate attention and action.

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  • 43. 

    (019) Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00–5–1.

    • B.

      00–5–2.

    • C.

      00–20–1.

    • D.

      00–20–2.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00–5–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. This technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system. It is likely that this TO provides comprehensive details about the organization, structure, and procedures of the Air Force TO system, serving as a guide for personnel involved in the management and use of TOs.

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  • 44. 

    (019) Who originates technical orders?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Contracting squadron.

    • C.

      Equipment manufacturer.

    • D.

      Maintenance group commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Equipment manufacturer.
    Explanation
    Technical orders are documents that provide detailed instructions for the maintenance, repair, and operation of equipment. These orders are typically created and originated by the equipment manufacturer, as they have the most knowledge and expertise about their own products. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring that the technical orders are accurate and up-to-date, and they may also provide support and guidance to users of their equipment. The other options, such as the section supervisor, contracting squadron, or maintenance group commander, may have roles in the maintenance process but are not responsible for originating the technical orders.

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  • 45. 

    (020) Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • A.

      Initiator.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D.

      Product improvement office.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor of initiator.
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor is in charge of reviewing and verifying the information provided by the initiator before it is submitted. They play a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy and completeness of the Form 22, which is important for maintaining the efficiency and safety of Air Force operations.

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  • 46. 

    (021) What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

    • A.

      Evident and hidden.

    • B.

      Potential and evident.

    • C.

      Hidden and functional.

    • D.

      Potential and functional.

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential and functional.
    Explanation
    The two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or function of a system or component. This classification helps in identifying and addressing both existing failures and potential risks to improve the reliability and performance of the system.

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  • 47. 

    (021) In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

    • A.

      Hard time

    • B.

      Lubrication.

    • C.

      On condition.

    • D.

      Failure finding.

    Correct Answer
    C. On condition.
    Explanation
    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, the preventative maintenance task that involves a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition is "On condition." This means that the inspection is performed based on specific conditions or indicators that suggest a potential failure may occur. This approach allows for timely detection and intervention before the failure actually happens, reducing the likelihood of unexpected breakdowns and improving overall reliability.

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  • 48. 

    (022) Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?

    • A.

      Centralized repair facility (CRF).

    • B.

      Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).

    • C.

      Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP).

    • D.

      Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).
    Explanation
    Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the correct answer because it is the program that integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. ET&D is specifically designed to track and analyze engine performance data over time, allowing for early detection of any potential issues or abnormalities. By continuously monitoring engine parameters and comparing them to established trends, ET&D enables proactive maintenance and helps optimize engine performance and lifespan. This program plays a crucial role in ensuring the health and reliability of engines.

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  • 49. 

    (022) The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by

    • A.

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

    • B.

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

    • C.

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

    • D.

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to detect any performance degradation or failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for timely interventions and preventive measures to be taken in order to prevent or limit any damage to the engines. By closely monitoring the engine's performance and identifying any potential issues, the ET&D program can help ensure the safe and efficient operation of the engines.

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  • 50. 

    (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?

    • A.

      Propulsion and depot.

    • B.

      Depot and nondestructive inspection.

    • C.

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

    • D.

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.
    Explanation
    Propulsion and nondestructive inspection technicians are responsible for providing maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program. They have the expertise and knowledge to collect and analyze data related to engine performance and identify any potential issues or trends. This information is crucial for monitoring and maintaining the engines in optimal condition, ensuring their reliability and efficiency.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 28, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 22, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kc10

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