ITIL V3.5 Practice Test 3

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ITIL Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the following does this include?

    • A.

      Only capabilities needed and agreed

    • B.

      Only resources and capabilities needed

    • C.

      Only requirements needed and agreed

    • D.

      Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

    Correct Answer
    D. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
    Explanation
    The design of service solutions in Service Design includes the identification and agreement of requirements, as well as the identification and allocation of necessary resources and capabilities. This means that all three elements - requirements, resources, and capabilities - are considered and included in the design of service solutions.

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  • 2. 

    A process owner is responsible for which of the following? 1. Documenting the process 2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) 3. Improving the process 4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training

    • A.

      1, 3 and 4 only

    • B.

      All of the above

    • C.

      1, 2 and 3 only

    • D.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    Correct Answer
    B. All of the above
    Explanation
    The process owner is responsible for documenting the process, improving the process, and ensuring process staff undertake the required training. They are also responsible for defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs). Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    • A.

      Process owners are more important to service management than service owners

    • B.

      Service owners are more important to service management than process owners

    • C.

      Service owners are as important to service management as process owners

    • D.

      Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization

    Correct Answer
    C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Service owners are as important to service management as process owners." This statement implies that both service owners and process owners play equally significant roles in service management. It suggests that both functions are necessary and contribute to the overall success of service management within an organization.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? The Service Owner:

    • A.

      Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

    • B.

      Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service they own

    • C.

      Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own

    • D.

      Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
    Explanation
    The Service Owner is not responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own. This responsibility falls under the role of the Service Manager. The Service Owner is accountable for the overall management and performance of the service, including continual improvement and managing changes. They are also a primary stakeholder in the underlying IT processes supporting the service.

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  • 5. 

    A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them?

    • A.

      Tell others about the progress of an activity

    • B.

      Perform an activity

    • C.

      Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity

    • D.

      Manage an activity

    Correct Answer
    C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity." In a RACI matrix, the "I" stands for "Informed." This means that the Process Owner is not responsible for performing the activity or managing it, but they should be kept informed about the progress of the activity. This allows them to stay updated and provide any necessary input or support as needed.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

    • A.

      Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

    • B.

      Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

    • C.

      Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio

    • D.

      Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager is to ensure that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate, consistent with information in the Service Portfolio, and that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue. However, the responsibility of ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate does not fall under the Service Catalogue Manager's role.

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  • 7. 

    Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

    • A.

      Process Manager

    • B.

      Service Catalog Manager

    • C.

      Supplier Manager

    • D.

      IT Designer/Architect

    Correct Answer
    C. Supplier Manager
    Explanation
    The Supplier Manager is the role that is most likely to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts. This role is responsible for managing relationships with suppliers and ensuring that contracts with suppliers are effectively managed. Underpinning Contracts are agreements with external suppliers that provide support and services to the organization. Therefore, it is the responsibility of the Supplier Manager to oversee the management of these contracts and ensure that the organization's needs are met. The other roles listed, such as Process Manager, Service Catalog Manager, and IT Designer/Architect, may have other responsibilities related to IT service management but are not directly involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts.

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  • 8. 

    A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following? 1. A new IT service 2. A major change to an IT service 3. An Emergency Change to an IT service 4. An IT service retirement

    • A.

      1, 2 and 3 only

    • B.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    • C.

      1, 3 and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 1, 2 and 4 only
    Explanation
    A Service Design Package should be produced for a new IT service, a major change to an IT service, and an IT service retirement. This means that when implementing any of these scenarios, it is important to have a comprehensive plan and documentation in place to ensure a smooth transition. Producing a Service Design Package helps to outline the necessary steps, resources, and requirements for each of these situations, ensuring that all aspects of the service are considered and properly managed.

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  • 9. 

    There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below? 1. Progress 2. Effectiveness 3. Efficiency 4. ?

    • A.

      Cost Cost

    • B.

      Conformance

    • C.

      Compliance

    • D.

      Capacity

    Correct Answer
    C. Compliance
    Explanation
    The missing metric from the list is Compliance. The given list includes metrics related to progress, effectiveness, efficiency, and cost. Compliance refers to the extent to which a process adheres to legal, regulatory, and industry standards. It is an important metric to measure the capability and performance of processes, as it ensures that the processes are in line with the required guidelines and regulations.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management? A. The IT Executive B. The ISO27001 Standard C. The Business D. The Service Level Manager

    • A.

      The IT Executive

    • B.

      The ISO27001 Standard

    • C.

      The Business

    • D.

      The Service Level Manager

    Correct Answer
    C. The Business
    Explanation
    The level of protection in Information Security Management is defined by the business. This means that the responsibility for determining the appropriate level of security measures and safeguards lies with the organization itself. The business needs to assess its own risks, requirements, and resources in order to establish the appropriate level of protection for its information assets.

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  • 11. 

    Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

    • A.

      The Service Level Manager

    • B.

      The IT Service Continuity Manager

    • C.

      The Service Catalog Manager

    • D.

      The Supplier Manager

    Correct Answer
    D. The Supplier Manager
    Explanation
    The Supplier Manager has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis. This role is specifically responsible for managing relationships with suppliers and ensuring that the organization's supply chain is efficient and effective. By regularly reviewing and analyzing supplies and contracts, the Supplier Manager can identify any potential risks or issues and take appropriate action to mitigate them. This helps to ensure that the organization has a reliable and secure supply chain, which is crucial for successful operations.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?

    • A.

      Early Life Support

    • B.

      Service Test Manager

    • C.

      Evaluation

    • D.

      Release Packaging and Build Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Early Life Support
    Explanation
    Early Life Support provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment. This means that Early Life Support is responsible for providing assistance and resolving any issues that may arise after a release or deployment has taken place. They ensure that the system is functioning correctly and address any problems that may occur during this phase.

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  • 13. 

    What does a service always deliver to customers?

    • A.

      Applications

    • B.

      Infrastructure

    • C.

      Value

    • D.

      Resources

    Correct Answer
    C. Value
    Explanation
    A service always delivers value to customers. This is because the purpose of a service is to meet the needs and expectations of customers, and value is the perceived benefit or worth that customers receive from using a service. Value can be in the form of tangible benefits, such as cost savings or increased efficiency, or intangible benefits, such as improved customer satisfaction or peace of mind. Ultimately, the goal of a service is to provide value that exceeds the cost or effort required to obtain it, thus creating a positive customer experience.

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  • 14. 

    Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

    • A.

      Service Design

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Service Strategy

    • D.

      Service Operation

    Correct Answer
    C. Service Strategy
    Explanation
    Service Strategy is the stage of the Service Lifecycle that is most concerned with defining policies and objectives. During this stage, the organization determines how to achieve its business objectives and goals by identifying the services it will offer, the target market, and the value proposition. It involves strategic planning, financial management, and understanding customer needs and market opportunities. The policies and objectives defined in the Service Strategy stage provide the foundation for the design, transition, and operation of services in the subsequent stages of the lifecycle.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

    • A.

      Change Management

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Service Strategy

    • D.

      Service Design

    Correct Answer
    D. Service Design
    Explanation
    Service Design is the correct answer because it is primarily responsible for designing new or changed services. This phase in the ITIL service lifecycle focuses on understanding the business requirements and translating them into service design packages. It involves designing the service solution, including the processes, technology, and resources required to deliver the service effectively. Service Design ensures that the new or changed services are aligned with the organization's overall strategy and meet the needs of the customers and stakeholders.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

    • A.

      Capacity Management

    • B.

      Governance

    • C.

      Service Strategy

    • D.

      Service Level Management

    Correct Answer
    B. Governance
    Explanation
    Governance is concerned with fairness and transparency. It involves establishing policies, procedures, and guidelines to ensure that decisions are made in a fair and transparent manner. Governance ensures that there is accountability, integrity, and ethical behavior in an organization. It also promotes transparency by providing access to information and decision-making processes to stakeholders. Through effective governance, organizations can ensure that resources are allocated fairly, conflicts of interest are managed, and decisions are made in the best interest of all stakeholders.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

    • A.

      An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use

    • B.

      An agreement that covers one service for a single customer

    • C.

      An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure

    • D.

      An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service

    Correct Answer
    D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
    Explanation
    This answer is the best description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA) because it states that the agreement covers one service for all users of that service. This means that the SLA applies to all individuals or groups who utilize the specific service covered by the agreement, ensuring that the agreed-upon level of service is provided consistently to all users.

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  • 18. 

    Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?

    • A.

      The Service Level Agreement (SLA)

    • B.

      The Problem Record

    • C.

      The Availability Management Information System

    • D.

      The IT Service Continuity Plan

    Correct Answer
    B. The Problem Record
    Explanation
    Workarounds are temporary solutions or fixes that are implemented to minimize the impact of a problem or incident. It is important to document the details of a workaround in the Problem Record. The Problem Record is a document that contains all the information related to a problem, including its description, root cause analysis, and resolution details. By documenting the workaround in the Problem Record, it becomes easily accessible to all relevant stakeholders and can be referred to in the future if similar issues arise. This helps in maintaining a comprehensive and up-to-date knowledge base for problem management.

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  • 19. 

    Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

    • A.

      Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

    • B.

      Public standards are always cheaper to adopt

    • C.

      Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

    • D.

      Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

    Correct Answer
    A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
    Explanation
    Proprietary knowledge refers to knowledge that is owned and controlled by a specific organization or individual. It is often not documented or shared with others, making it difficult for others to adopt, replicate, or transfer. In contrast, public frameworks and standards, such as ITIL, are openly available and documented, making them easier to adopt and transfer to different organizations or environments. This makes public frameworks and standards more attractive as they provide a clear and accessible guide for organizations to follow.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

    • A.

      Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed

    • B.

      They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly

    • C.

      They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust

    • D.

      They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language

    Correct Answer
    B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
    Explanation
    Public frameworks and standards have many benefits, such as widely distributed knowledge, robustness due to validation across various environments, and facilitating collaboration through a common language. However, the statement that they are always free and can be implemented quickly is not a correct benefit. While some public frameworks and standards may be freely available, others may require payment or have associated costs. Additionally, the ease and speed of implementation depend on various factors, such as the complexity of the framework or standard and the resources available for implementation.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT? 1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives 2. A process should be documented

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      Both of the above

    • D.

      Neither of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both of the above
    Explanation
    Both statements are correct.

    1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives: This means that a process is designed to achieve specific goals or objectives. It provides a structured approach to accomplish these objectives efficiently and effectively.

    2. A process should be documented: Documentation is essential for a process as it helps in understanding, communicating, and replicating the process. It ensures that the process is consistent, repeatable, and can be improved over time. Documentation also helps in training new employees and maintaining a standard operating procedure.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    • A.

      They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

    • B.

      We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner

    • C.

      They deliver specific results

    • D.

      They respond to specific events

    Correct Answer
    A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
    Explanation
    Processes are not units of organizations, but rather a series of activities that work together to achieve a specific goal or deliver a specific result. They can involve multiple units or departments within an organization.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following are aspects of Service Design? 1. Architectures 2. Technology 3. Service Management processes 4. Metrics

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Service Design encompasses various aspects, including architectures, technology, service management processes, and metrics. Architects play a crucial role in designing the structure and framework of a service. Technology is essential for implementing and delivering the service effectively. Service management processes ensure the smooth operation and continuous improvement of the service. Metrics help in measuring the performance and success of the service. Therefore, all of the given options - 1, 2, 3, and 4 - are aspects of Service Design.

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  • 24. 

    You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?

    • A.

      Reduced Total Cost of Ownership

    • B.

      Improved quality of service

    • C.

      Improved Service alignment with business goals

    • D.

      Better balance of technical skills to support live services

    Correct Answer
    D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
    Explanation
    The statement "Better balance of technical skills to support live services" would not be part of the value proposition because it does not directly relate to the adoption of Service Design disciplines. The other three statements all highlight the potential benefits of adopting Service Design, such as reducing costs, improving service quality, and aligning services with business goals. However, the statement about technical skills does not specifically mention how it relates to Service Design or its value.

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  • 25. 

    Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: 'The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development'?

    • A.

      Service Design

    • B.

      Service Strategy

    • C.

      Service Operation

    • D.

      Continual Service Improvement

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Design
    Explanation
    Service Design is the correct answer for this question because it is the phase of the ITIL lifecycle that focuses on designing and developing services that meet the needs of the business and customers. During the Service Design phase, all aspects of the service, including processes and technology, are considered to ensure that the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of the service is minimized. By taking a holistic approach to service design, organizations can identify and address potential cost drivers and inefficiencies, resulting in a more cost-effective and efficient service.

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  • 26. 

    Which statement about Service Level Agreements(SLAs) is CORRECT?

    • A.

      They must contain legal wording because of their importance

    • B.

      There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer

    • C.

      The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity

    • D.

      Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer

    Correct Answer
    C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the wording of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity. This is because SLAs are formal agreements between a service provider and a customer that outline the level of service expected and the metrics used to measure that service. Clear and concise wording ensures that both parties have a mutual understanding of the expectations and prevents any misunderstandings or disputes.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following are goals of Service Operation? 1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business 2. The successful release of services into the live environment

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      Both of the above

    • D.

      Neither of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 only
    Explanation
    The goal of Service Operation is to coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business. This involves ensuring that services are delivered efficiently and effectively, meeting the needs and expectations of the business. The successful release of services into the live environment is not a specific goal of Service Operation, although it is an important aspect of service delivery. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?

    • A.

      Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure

    • B.

      An unplanned interruption to an IT service

    • C.

      The unknown cause of one or more Incidents

    • D.

      Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem

    Correct Answer
    A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure
    Explanation
    An event is defined as any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure. This means that it is any observable incident or happening that holds importance in terms of managing the IT infrastructure. It could be an alert, a notification, or any other event that requires attention from the IT management team.

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  • 29. 

    A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created

    • C.

      No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented

    • D.

      No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    This is a valid approach because a Known Error can be raised after the diagnosis of a Problem is complete but before a workaround has been found. A Known Error is raised to document a problem that has been diagnosed but does not yet have a permanent resolution. It helps in tracking and managing the problem until a permanent solution is implemented. Therefore, it is not necessary to have a workaround or a permanent resolution in place before raising a Known Error.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT? 1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action 2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      Both of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both of the above
    Explanation
    Both of the statements about communication within Service Operation are correct. Communication should always have an intended purpose or resultant action to ensure that it is meaningful and productive. Additionally, communication should not occur without a clear audience in mind, as this helps to ensure that the message is tailored and targeted effectively.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?

    • A.

      To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

    • B.

      Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

    • C.

      To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening

    • D.

      To detect security events and make sense of them

    Correct Answer
    B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
    Explanation
    The goal of Access Management is to provide the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services. This means ensuring that authorized users have the necessary permissions and privileges to access the services they require, while also enforcing security measures to prevent unauthorized access. Access Management involves processes such as user authentication, authorization, and provisioning, to ensure that users have the appropriate level of access based on their roles and responsibilities.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of ITIL?

    • A.

      Local

    • B.

      Centralized

    • C.

      Holistic

    • D.

      Virtual

    Correct Answer
    C. Holistic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Holistic. In the Service Operation volume of ITIL, there are various types of Service Desks recognized, such as Local, Centralized, and Virtual. However, Holistic is not recognized as a Service Desk type in ITIL.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?

    • A.

      He desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves

    • B.

      The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place

    • C.

      The desk provides 24 hour global support

    • D.

      There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

    Correct Answer
    D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
    Explanation
    A centralized Service Desk refers to a single desk located in one place that provides support to the entire organization. This means that all users within the organization can contact and receive assistance from the same desk, regardless of their location. This approach allows for consistent support and coordination of resources, ensuring efficient and effective service delivery.

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  • 34. 

    Service Design emphasises the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these 'Four Ps'?

    • A.

      People, Products, Partners, Profit

    • B.

      People, Process, Products, Partners

    • C.

      Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit

    • D.

      People, Potential, Products, Performance

    Correct Answer
    B. People, Process, Products, Partners
    Explanation
    Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps' which are People, Process, Products, and Partners. These four elements are crucial in designing and delivering a successful service. People refer to the customers and employees involved in the service, Process involves the steps and activities to deliver the service, Products include the tangible and intangible elements of the service, and Partners refer to the collaborations and relationships with external entities. By considering and optimizing these four elements, service designers can create a well-rounded and effective service experience.

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  • 35. 

    Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

    • A.

      Profit

    • B.

      Preparation

    • C.

      Products

    • D.

      Potential

    Correct Answer
    C. Products
    Explanation
    Service Design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps" which are Partners, People, Processes, and Products. This additional "P" represents the tangible goods or intangible services that are offered to customers. It highlights the significance of considering the design and delivery of the products as part of the overall service experience.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?: 1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes

    • A.

      1, 2 and 3 only

    • B.

      1, 3 and 4 only

    • C.

      2,3 and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When designing measurement systems, methods, and metrics, all of the mentioned factors should be considered. The services are important to understand the overall purpose and objectives of the system. The architectures help in determining the structure and components of the system. The configuration items are crucial for tracking and managing the system's configuration. Lastly, the processes play a significant role in defining the steps and activities involved in the system. Considering all these factors ensures a comprehensive and effective measurement system design.

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  • 37. 

    Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages 1. Monitor, Measure and Review 2. Continual Improvement 3. Implement Initiatives 4. Plan for Improvement

    • A.

      1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act

    • B.

      3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

    • C.

      4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act

    • D.

      2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act. This is known as the Deming Cycle, also referred to as the PDCA (Plan-Do-Check-Act) cycle. In this cycle, the first stage is planning for improvement, followed by implementing the plan (Do), then checking the results and comparing them to the objectives (Check), and finally taking appropriate actions based on the results (Act). This cycle is a continuous process of improvement and is widely used in quality management systems.

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  • 38. 

    In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned by which set of activities?

    • A.

      Baseline assessments

    • B.

      Service and process improvements

    • C.

      Taking measurements and recording metrics

    • D.

      Setting measurement targets

    Correct Answer
    B. Service and process improvements
    Explanation
    The stage 'How do we get there?' in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model is underpinned by service and process improvements. This stage focuses on identifying and implementing improvements to existing services and processes in order to achieve the desired outcomes. It involves analyzing current performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance the quality and efficiency of services. By continuously improving services and processes, organizations can ensure that they are aligned with business objectives and meet the needs of customers.

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  • 39. 

    Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

    • A.

      Where are we now?

    • B.

      Where do we want to be?

    • C.

      How do we get there?

    • D.

      Did we get there?

    Correct Answer
    B. Where do we want to be?
    Explanation
    The stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model that is best described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision' is "Where do we want to be?" This stage involves identifying the desired future state or goals of the organization based on the principles defined in the vision. It requires a deeper understanding of the principles and priorities for improvement in order to align the organization's objectives with the desired outcomes.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager? 1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts 2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database 3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts 4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers

    • A.

      1, 2 and 3 only

    • B.

      1, 3 and 4 only

    • C.

      2, 3 and 4 only

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of a Supplier Manager include negotiating and agreeing contracts, updating the Supplier and Contract database, and planning for possible closure, renewal, or extension of contracts. Managing relationships with internal suppliers is not mentioned as a responsibility of a Supplier Manager. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.

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  • 41. 

    Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

    • A.

      An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database

    • B.

      A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item

    • C.

      An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management

    • D.

      Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported

    Correct Answer
    C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
    Explanation
    A Configuration Item (CI) is defined as an asset, service component, or any other item that is currently or will be under the control of Configuration Management. This means that a CI can be any tangible or intangible item that is managed and controlled within the Configuration Management system. It could include hardware, software, documentation, or any other relevant information that describes a specific item within the organization's infrastructure.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?

    • A.

      To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes

    • B.

      To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)

    • C.

      To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized

    • D.

      To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

    Correct Answer
    D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
    Explanation
    The objective of Release and Deployment Management is to define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders. This involves working closely with them to understand their requirements and expectations, and then creating plans that align with these needs. By doing so, the organization can ensure that the release and deployment processes are well-coordinated and meet the desired outcomes. This objective helps in minimizing any potential disruptions or issues during the release and deployment activities, ultimately leading to a successful implementation of changes.

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  • 43. 

    What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?

    • A.

      Informational, Scheduled, Normal

    • B.

      Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency

    • C.

      Informational, Warning, Exception

    • D.

      Warning, Reactive, Proactive

    Correct Answer
    C. Informational, Warning, Exception
    Explanation
    The categories of events described in the ITIL Service Operation book are informational, warning, and exception. Informational events provide useful information about the system's status or performance. Warning events indicate potential issues or risks that may impact the system. Exception events represent deviations from normal operation and require immediate attention and resolution.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk? 1. Known Error Data 2. Change Schedules 3. Service Knowledge Management System 4. The output from monitoring tools

    • A.

      1, 2 and 3 only

    • B.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    • C.

      2, 3 and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The Service Desk should have access to all of the options listed. Known Error Data is important for the Service Desk to have in order to quickly resolve incidents. Change Schedules are necessary for the Service Desk to be aware of upcoming changes that may impact services. The Service Knowledge Management System is a valuable resource for the Service Desk to access information and solutions for incidents. The output from monitoring tools is crucial for the Service Desk to proactively identify and address potential issues before they become incidents. Therefore, all of the options should be available to the Service Desk.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

    • A.

      Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

    • B.

      Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs

    • C.

      First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

    • D.

      Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

    Correct Answer
    C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
    Explanation
    The objective of the Operations Management function is to ensure efficient and effective operations within an organization. This includes activities such as improving service at reduced costs, maintaining stability of day-to-day processes, and swiftly diagnosing and resolving IT operations failures. However, the first line incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users is not typically an objective of the Operations Management function. This task is usually handled by the IT support or helpdesk team.

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  • 46. 

    Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

    • A.

      The ITIL Complementary Guidance

    • B.

      The Service Support book

    • C.

      Pocket Guides

    • D.

      The Service Strategy book

    Correct Answer
    A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
    Explanation
    The ITIL Complementary Guidance provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies. This guidance complements the core ITIL publications and offers additional information and practical advice for implementing ITIL practices in a customized manner. It helps organizations tailor the ITIL framework to meet their specific needs and align it with their business goals and strategies. The Service Support book, Pocket Guides, and the Service Strategy book may provide valuable information, but they do not specifically focus on adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 10, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Poserdl

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