Information Technology Essentials Quiz! Trivia

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Information Technology Essentials Quiz! Trivia - Quiz


This is an Information Technology Essentials Quiz! Information technology is based on understanding how a computer works for starters. One should have a proper understanding of hardware materials as well as the software. Do you know how to access the command line or different ways to set up a network? This quiz will help to refresh your memory, do give it a try and see what aspects of technology you may have forgotten.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Name two output devices.

    • A.

      Speakers and Headphones

    • B.

      Mouse and Keyboard

    • C.

      Touch Screen

    • D.

      Monitors and Projectors

    • E.

      Digital Camera

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Speakers and Headphones
    D. Monitors and Projectors
    Explanation
    The question asks for two output devices, which are devices that display or transmit information from a computer to the user. Speakers and headphones are output devices that produce sound, while monitors and projectors display visual information. Both sets of devices fit the criteria of being output devices as they provide information to the user.

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  • 2. 

    Most computers have audio support either integrated onto the motherboard or on a _______ _____

    Correct Answer(s)
    adapter card
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "adapter card" because most computers have audio support either integrated onto the motherboard or on a separate adapter card. An adapter card is a hardware component that can be added to a computer to provide additional functionality, such as audio support. This card can be inserted into an expansion slot on the motherboard, allowing the computer to have audio capabilities. Therefore, an adapter card is a common solution for computers to have audio support.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is a power fluctuation?

    • A.

      Blackout

    • B.

      Surge suppressor

    • C.

      Noise

    • D.

      Spike

    • E.

      Standby power supply - UPS

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Blackout
    C. Noise
    D. Spike
    Explanation
    A power fluctuation refers to a sudden and temporary change in the voltage or current levels of an electrical power supply. A blackout is a complete loss of power, resulting in a total interruption of electricity. Noise refers to random electrical signals or disturbances that can disrupt the normal functioning of electrical equipment. A spike is a brief and sudden increase in voltage, which can potentially damage electronic devices. Therefore, blackout, noise, and spike are all examples of power fluctuations.

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  • 4. 

    ___________ ___ is used to blow away dust and debris from different computer parts without touching the components.

    Correct Answer(s)
    compressed air
    Explanation
    Compressed air is used to blow away dust and debris from different computer parts without touching the components. Compressed air is a canister filled with air that is pressurized. When the nozzle is pressed, a burst of air is released, which can effectively remove dust and debris from hard-to-reach areas of the computer. It is a safe and efficient method of cleaning computer parts without causing any damage to the sensitive components.

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  • 5. 

    ______ is used to optimize space on a hard drive to allow faster access to programs and data.

    Correct Answer(s)
    defrag
    Explanation
    Defragmentation, also known as "defrag," is a process used to optimize the space on a hard drive. It rearranges fragmented files and organizes them contiguously, allowing for faster access to programs and data. By reducing the amount of fragmentation, the computer can read and write files more efficiently, improving overall system performance.

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  • 6. 

    What compound is used to keep the CPU cool.?

    Correct Answer(s)
    thermal
    Explanation
    The compound used to keep the CPU cool is thermal. Thermal compounds, also known as thermal paste or thermal grease, are substances that are applied between the CPU and the heat sink to enhance heat transfer. They have high thermal conductivity and help to fill in any microscopic gaps between the CPU and heat sink, ensuring efficient heat dissipation and preventing overheating of the CPU.

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  • 7. 

    Name three Power cables.

    • A.

      SATA

    • B.

      Serial

    • C.

      USB

    • D.

      Molex

    • E.

      Berg

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SATA
    D. Molex
    E. Berg
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because SATA, Molex, and Berg are all types of power cables. SATA (Serial ATA) cables are used to connect storage devices such as hard drives and solid-state drives to the motherboard. Molex cables are commonly used to provide power to computer components such as fans and disk drives. Berg cables, also known as floppy cables, were commonly used to connect floppy disk drives to the motherboard in older computer systems.

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  • 8. 

    Where would change the options for the Boot priority.? 

    Correct Answer(s)
    BIOS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. In the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) settings, you can change the boot priority options. The boot priority determines the order in which the computer searches for a bootable operating system. By accessing the BIOS, you can specify whether the computer should boot from the hard drive, CD/DVD drive, USB drive, or any other connected storage device. Changing the boot priority in the BIOS allows you to customize the startup process according to your needs.

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  • 9. 

    What is the first thing a computer does when the power button is pressed?

    • A.

      Loads Ntldr

    • B.

      Loads MBR

    • C.

      Loads POST

    • D.

      Loads the BIOS

    • E.

      Loads the boot.ini file

    Correct Answer
    C. Loads POST
    Explanation
    When the power button is pressed, the first thing a computer does is load the POST (Power-On Self Test). The POST is a diagnostic test that checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly. It verifies the integrity of the CPU, memory, and other essential components. Once the POST is completed successfully, the computer moves on to the next step in the boot process.

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  • 10. 

    Which boot configuration utility allows you to set the programs that will run at startup and to edit configuration files.? ________

    Correct Answer
    Msconfig
    Explanation
    Msconfig is a boot configuration utility that allows users to set the programs that will run at startup and edit configuration files. It is a built-in tool in Windows operating systems that provides an easy way to manage startup programs and modify system settings. With msconfig, users can enable or disable startup programs, change boot options, and troubleshoot system issues by selectively enabling or disabling services and startup items. It is a useful tool for optimizing system performance and managing the startup process.

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  • 11. 

    Name three types of filename extensions that are commonly used.

    • A.

      .ntfs

    • B.

      .doc

    • C.

      .zip

    • D.

      .txt

    • E.

      .cmd

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. .doc
    C. .zip
    D. .txt
    Explanation
    The given answer lists three commonly used filename extensions: .doc, .zip, and .txt. These extensions correspond to specific file formats. .doc is typically used for Microsoft Word documents, .zip indicates a compressed file, and .txt represents a plain text file. These extensions help identify the type of file and determine which program should be used to open or manipulate it.

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  • 12. 

    Which registry key has the information and desktop settings, history related to the current user of a PC?

    • A.

      HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

    • B.

      HKEY_CURRENT_USER

    • C.

      HKEY_USERS

    • D.

      HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

    • E.

      HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

    Correct Answer
    B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
    Explanation
    HKEY_CURRENT_USER is the correct answer because it is a registry key that contains information and desktop settings specific to the currently logged-in user of a PC. This key stores preferences, application settings, and other user-related data. It is unique for each user and allows customization of the user's desktop environment and other user-specific configurations.

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  • 13. 

    Name two Open-Ended Questions.

    • A.

      Has anyone else used your computer recently.

    • B.

      What were you doin when the problem was identified.

    • C.

      Have you changed your password recently.

    • D.

      What updates or patches have been installed on your computer.

    • E.

      Does the computer boot up successfully.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. What were you doin when the problem was identified.
    D. What updates or patches have been installed on your computer.
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly identifies two open-ended questions: "What were you doing when the problem was identified?" and "What updates or patches have been installed on your computer?" Open-ended questions are those that require more than a simple yes or no answer and encourage the respondent to provide detailed information or explanation. Both of these questions prompt the person to provide specific details about their actions or the state of their computer, allowing for a more thorough understanding of the situation.

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  • 14. 

    How do you access the command line in XP.?

    • A.

      Start>Run>Prompt

    • B.

      Start>Control Panel>Prompt

    • C.

      Start>Run>cmd

    • D.

      Start>All programs>Accessories>Terminal

    • E.

      Start>Run>Terminal

    Correct Answer
    C. Start>Run>cmd
    Explanation
    To access the command line in Windows XP, you can follow these steps: click on the Start button, then select Run. In the Run dialog box, type "cmd" and press Enter. This will open the command prompt window, where you can enter commands and execute various tasks using the command line interface.

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  • 15. 

    A ____ ______ is a device that attaches to AC power and to desktop peripherals.

    Correct Answer
    base station
    Explanation
    A base station is a device that connects to AC power and serves as a central hub for connecting desktop peripherals. It provides power and connectivity to devices such as monitors, keyboards, mice, printers, and other accessories. The base station allows for easy organization and management of multiple peripherals, reducing clutter and simplifying the setup process.

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  • 16. 

    _______ __________ controls the flow of electricity to the components of a computer.

    Correct Answer
    Power management
    Explanation
    Power management is responsible for controlling the flow of electricity to the various components of a computer. It ensures that the right amount of power is supplied to each component, preventing any damage or malfunctioning. This includes regulating the power supply, distributing power to different hardware components, and implementing power-saving features to optimize energy usage. By effectively managing power, it helps in improving the overall performance and longevity of the computer system.

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  • 17. 

    Which PC Card has a thickness of 5.5mm and a size of 85.6*54?

    • A.

      Type I

    • B.

      Type II

    • C.

      Express Card/34

    • D.

      Type III

    • E.

      Express Card/54

    Correct Answer
    B. Type II
    Explanation
    Type II PC Card has a thickness of 5.5mm and a size of 85.6*54.

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  • 18. 

    What is the standard of parallel printer port?

    • A.

      IEEE 1394a

    • B.

      IEEE 1283

    • C.

      IEEE 1284

    • D.

      IEEE 1394b

    • E.

      IEEE 1284a

    Correct Answer
    C. IEEE 1284
    Explanation
    The standard of parallel printer port is IEEE 1284. This standard specifies the electrical and communication interface between a computer and a parallel printer. It defines the physical connector, the electrical signaling, and the communication protocol used for data transfer between the computer and the printer.

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  • 19. 

    What 802.11 Wi-Fi standard has a transfer rate of 11Mbps at 2.4 GHz?

    • A.

      802.11a

    • B.

      802.11b

    • C.

      802.11g

    • D.

      802.11n

    • E.

      802.11x

    Correct Answer
    B. 802.11b
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.11b. The 802.11b Wi-Fi standard has a transfer rate of 11Mbps at 2.4 GHz. This standard was introduced in 1999 and was the first widely adopted Wi-Fi standard. It operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and offers a maximum data rate of 11 Mbps. Although it is slower compared to newer standards like 802.11n and 802.11ac, 802.11b is still used in some legacy devices and networks.

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  • 20. 

    ________ is when an image has been deposited on the paper and fusion occurs.

    Correct Answer
    cleaning
  • 21. 

    Name two advantages of an Inkjet Printer.

    • A.

      Low cost

    • B.

      Nozzles are prone to clogging

    • C.

      Quick to warm up

    • D.

      Ink is wet after printing

    • E.

      Ink cartridges are expensive

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Low cost
    C. Quick to warm up
    Explanation
    The given answer states two advantages of an inkjet printer, which are low cost and quick warm-up time. Inkjet printers are generally more affordable compared to other types of printers, making them a cost-effective option for home or small office use. Additionally, inkjet printers have a quick warm-up time, allowing users to start printing documents or photos without much waiting.

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  • 22. 

    What printer produces photo-quality images for graphic printing?

    Correct Answer(s)
    dye-sublimation
    Explanation
    Dye-sublimation printers are known for producing photo-quality images for graphic printing. This printing technology uses a heat transfer process to create vibrant and detailed prints with smooth color gradients. The dye-sublimation process involves transferring dye onto a special paper, which is then heated to turn the dye into a gas. This gas is then absorbed by the printing material, resulting in high-resolution and long-lasting prints that accurately reproduce colors and details, making dye-sublimation printers ideal for graphic printing and professional photography.

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  • 23. 

    A ____________ network is when devices are connected directly to each other without any addtional networking device between them.

    Correct Answer(s)
    peer-to-peer
    Explanation
    A peer-to-peer network is a type of network where devices are directly connected to each other without the need for any additional networking device. In this type of network, each device can act as both a client and a server, allowing them to share resources and communicate directly with each other. This eliminates the need for a central server or intermediary device, making it a decentralized and efficient network setup.

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  • 24. 

    How is Bandwidth measured?

    • A.

      Bps

    • B.

      GHz

    • C.

      Kbps

    • D.

      MHz

    • E.

      Mbps

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bps
    C. Kbps
    E. Mbps
    Explanation
    Bandwidth is a measure of the amount of data that can be transmitted over a network in a given amount of time. It is typically measured in bits per second (bps), kilobits per second (kbps), or megabits per second (Mbps). The answer options provided (bps, kbps, Mbps) are all valid units for measuring bandwidth. GHz and MHz, on the other hand, are units used to measure frequency, not bandwidth.

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  • 25. 

    Class _ for IP addresses is set as 255.255.0.0, indicating the first two octets of the IP address are the network portion.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B
    Explanation
    Class B IP addresses have a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, which means the first two octets of the IP address are used to identify the network portion. This allows for a large number of networks and a moderate number of hosts per network. Class B addresses have a range of 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of Coaxial cable has a maximum length of 185meters?

    • A.

      Thicknet

    • B.

      Thinnet

    • C.

      RG-59

    • D.

      RG-6

    • E.

      Thinnernet

    Correct Answer
    B. Thinnet
    Explanation
    Thinnet, also known as 10BASE2, is a type of coaxial cable that has a maximum length of 185 meters. It is commonly used in Ethernet networks and is characterized by its thin size and flexibility. Thinnet cables have a lower signal attenuation compared to other coaxial cables, allowing for longer cable runs. This makes Thinnet suitable for smaller network setups or installations where the distance between devices is relatively short.

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  • 27. 

    Name three types of Physical Topologies.

    • A.

      Star

    • B.

      Mesh

    • C.

      Token

    • D.

      Ring

    • E.

      Broadcast

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Star
    B. Mesh
    D. Ring
    Explanation
    The question asks for three types of physical topologies. The answer provided includes the types "star," "mesh," and "ring," which are indeed three different physical topologies. A star topology consists of a central node connected to multiple peripheral nodes, forming a star-like structure. A mesh topology involves each node being connected to every other node in a network, creating a fully interconnected network. A ring topology connects nodes in a circular manner, where each node is connected to the next and the last node is connected to the first, forming a ring.

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  • 28. 

    Which layer of the OSI Model is responsible for network services to applications?

    • A.

      Application

    • B.

      Presentation

    • C.

      Transport

    • D.

      Data link

    • E.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Application
    Explanation
    The Application layer of the OSI Model is responsible for network services to applications. This layer provides services directly to user applications, enabling them to access network resources and communicate with other applications. It includes protocols such as HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and DNS, which are used for tasks like web browsing, file transfer, email, and domain name resolution. The Application layer ensures that data is properly formatted and understood by the receiving application, allowing for seamless communication between network services and applications.

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  • 29. 

    What type of threat does not need to be attached to other software? instead, it is hidden in software that appears to do one thing, and yet it does something else.

    • A.

      Worm

    • B.

      Spyware

    • C.

      Trojan horse

    • D.

      Virus

    • E.

      Grayware

    Correct Answer
    C. Trojan horse
    Explanation
    A trojan horse is a type of threat that does not need to be attached to other software. Instead, it is hidden in software that appears to do one thing, but actually performs malicious activities in the background. Unlike viruses or worms that need to attach themselves to other files or programs to spread, a trojan horse disguises itself as legitimate software to deceive users into installing it. Once installed, it can perform various harmful actions such as stealing sensitive information, damaging files, or allowing unauthorized access to the system.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 24, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 16, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Brendan841
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