Iom Quiz #2 Terminology & Electrode Placement V-VI & P18-41
This quiz covers acronyms and abbreviations associated wth IOM terminology and electrode placement points for monitoring.
- 1.
ACIF stands for:
- A.
Anterior cervical inserted fusion
- B.
Auditory cerebellopontine interbody fusion
- C.
Anterior cervical instrumentation and fusion
- D.
Auxilliary component of interbody fusion
Correct Answer
C. Anterior cervical instrumentation and fusionExplanation
The correct answer is anterior cervical instrumentation and fusion.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is a diagnostic procedure that is used intraoperatively to monitor the integrity of the auditory or VIII-cranial nerve during craniotomies?
- A.
Hypoglossal Evoked Potential
- B.
BAEP
- C.
Transcranial Electric Motor-Evoked Potential
- D.
Electromyographies
Correct Answer
B. BAEPExplanation
The correct answer is BAEP: brainstem auditory-evoked potential/responseRate this question:
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- 3.
CNS is an abbreviation for which of the following terms:
- A.
The central nervous system
- B.
The central neural structure
- C.
The cervical neural stem
- D.
Centrally-located non-identifiable structures
Correct Answer
A. The central nervous systemExplanation
The correct answer is "The central nervous system." The term CNS is commonly used in the medical field to refer to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. It is responsible for coordinating and controlling the body's activities and functions. The other options mentioned in the question do not accurately represent the meaning of CNS.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is true about the CPA (cerebellopontine angle):
- A.
The CPA is a space where tumors may grow
- B.
Removal of tumors in the CPA region should include monitoring of the VIII nerve
- C.
Surgical approaches to the CPA can threaten auditory function
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The CPA is a space located between the cerebellum and the pons where tumors may grow. When removing tumors in the CPA region, it is important to monitor the VIII nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, which is responsible for hearing and balance. Surgical approaches to the CPA can pose a risk to auditory function, highlighting the importance of careful monitoring and preservation of the nerve. Therefore, all of the statements provided are true about the CPA.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A CAT scan is an abbreviation for which of the following:
- A.
Computer assisted topography
- B.
Computerized axial tomography
- C.
Computerized telemetry
- D.
Computerized toxicology
Correct Answer
B. Computerized axial tomograpHyExplanation
Computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan is a medical imaging technique that uses X-rays and computer processing to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body. The term "computerized axial tomography" accurately describes the process of using computers to generate images of the body by taking multiple X-ray images from different angles.Rate this question:
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- 6.
DLIF is an abbreviation for which of the following:
- A.
Dermatome left interbody fusion
- B.
Dermatome left inset fold
- C.
Direct lateral interbody fusion
Correct Answer
C. Direct lateral interbody fusionExplanation
DLIF stands for Direct Lateral Interbody Fusion. This surgical procedure involves accessing the spine through a lateral approach, meaning that the surgeon approaches the spine from the side. The interbody fusion part refers to the fusion of two adjacent vertebrae using a bone graft or implant. This procedure is commonly used to treat conditions such as degenerative disc disease, spinal stenosis, and spondylolisthesis.Rate this question:
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- 7.
FI stands for which of the following:
- A.
Fraction inspired
- B.
Fissure insertion
- C.
Foramen instrumentation
- D.
Final Installation
Correct Answer
A. Fraction inspiredExplanation
FI stands for "Fraction inspired" which refers to the fraction or percentage of inspired oxygen in the air. This term is commonly used in medical settings to indicate the concentration of oxygen being delivered to a patient. It is important to monitor and adjust the fraction inspired based on the patient's needs to ensure proper oxygenation.Rate this question:
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- 8.
ET stands for which of the following:
- A.
Evoked transdermal
- B.
External temperature
- C.
Elevated trapezius
- D.
End tidal
Correct Answer
D. End tidalExplanation
ET stands for End Tidal. End tidal refers to the measurement of the concentration of a gas, typically carbon dioxide, at the end of each exhaled breath. This measurement is used in medical settings to monitor the patient's respiratory status and the effectiveness of ventilation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Hct is an abbreviation for hematocrit
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true. Hct is indeed an abbreviation for hematocrit. Hematocrit is a medical term that refers to the volume percentage of red blood cells in the blood. Hct is commonly used as a shorthand abbreviation for hematocrit in medical documentation and discussions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The interstimulus interval is abbreviated as:
- A.
ISS
- B.
ISI
- C.
INTi
- D.
Int.SI
Correct Answer
B. ISIExplanation
The correct answer is ISI. The interstimulus interval (ISI) refers to the time between the presentation of two consecutive stimuli. It is commonly used in experiments to study perception and cognition. The other options (ISS, INTi, Int.SI) do not represent the correct abbreviation for interstimulus interval.Rate this question:
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- 11.
MAP stands for which of the following:
- A.
Mean absolute percentage
- B.
Mean average percentage
- C.
Mean arterial pressure
- D.
Moderate Absolute Pressure Mean arterial pressure
Correct Answer
C. Mean arterial pressureExplanation
MAP stands for Mean Arterial Pressure. It is a measure of the average blood pressure in the arteries during one cardiac cycle. It is calculated by taking into account both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure values. MAP is an important indicator of perfusion pressure in the organs and tissues of the body. It is often used in medical settings to assess a patient's cardiovascular health and to guide treatment decisions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
PLIF stands for posterior lumbar instrumentation function
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
PLIF stands for posterior lumbar instrumentation and fusion.Rate this question:
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- 13.
For recording somatosensory evoked potentials, including a cephalic ground, what is the minimum number of total needles that must be placed ?
- A.
5
- B.
8
- C.
4
- D.
6
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
Six electrodes are used for recording, two are used for stimulating, and one is used as a ground.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the correct placement for the sensory recording electrode for CPz?
- A.
2 inches posterior to Cz
- B.
2 cm posterior and 4cm lateral to Cz
- C.
Half way between Fpz and Cz
- D.
Diagonally centered between C3 and C2
Correct Answer
B. 2 cm posterior and 4cm lateral to CzExplanation
The correct placement for the sensory recording electrode for CPz is 2 cm posterior and 4 cm lateral to Cz.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Where is the electrode placed to record Erb's point?
- A.
2 cm left of the brachial plexus
- B.
Over the brachial plexus on the ipsilateral side
- C.
Over the medial aspect of the upper arm
- D.
At the brain stem
Correct Answer
B. Over the brachial plexus on the ipsilateral sideExplanation
The electrode is placed over the brachial plexus on the ipsilateral side to record Erb's point. This is the correct placement for recording Erb's point, which is a specific location on the brachial plexus where the upper trunk and the posterior division of the lower trunk merge.Rate this question:
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- 16.
To acquire subcortical data, insert subdermal recording needles at the interspinous space referred to as the root entry zone.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that to acquire subcortical data, it is necessary to insert subdermal recording needles at the interspinous space, which is known as the root entry zone. This implies that the statement is true, as it accurately describes the correct method for acquiring subcortical data.Rate this question:
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- 17.
At what anatomical locations do the greater and lesser occipital nerves ascend the skull?
- A.
Two inches lateral to midline
- B.
Between CP3 and CP4
- C.
One inch lateral to midline of the occiput
- D.
None of the above None of the above
Correct Answer
C. One inch lateral to midline of the occiputExplanation
The greater and lesser occipital nerves ascend the skull one inch lateral to the midline of the occiput.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Where is the stimulation site for C7?
- A.
At the third digit of the third digit
- B.
At the base of the thumb
- C.
At the fingertip of the fifth digit
- D.
At the fingertip of the second digit
Correct Answer
A. At the third digit of the third digit -
- 19.
What is the stimulation site for L4?
- A.
At the web space between the first and second toes
- B.
2 cm posterior to the lateral malleolus
- C.
14 cm distal to the inferior patellar rim, medial to the tibia
- D.
14 cm proximal to the superior patellar rim, anterolateral thigh
Correct Answer
C. 14 cm distal to the inferior patellar rim, medial to the tibia -
- 20.
What nerve is stimulated 2cm distal to the fibular head?
- A.
The tibial nerve
- B.
The peroneal nerve
- C.
The radial nerve
- D.
The median nerve
Correct Answer
B. The peroneal nerveExplanation
The peroneal nerve is stimulated 2cm distal to the fibular head. The peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and innervates the muscles of the lower leg and foot. It is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes. Stimulation of the peroneal nerve at this specific location can help diagnose and treat conditions such as peroneal neuropathy or foot drop.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 14, 2011Quiz Created by
Richard Slepian
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