Human Physiology Exam 5

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Human Physiology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1.      Gametes like eggs and sperm are ______ containing ____ of each 23 chromosomes while somatic cells are ______ containing _____ of each 23 chromosomes.

    • A.

      A.haploid, 2, diploid, 1

    • B.

      B.diploid, 1, haploid, 2

    • C.

      C.haploid, 1, diploid, 2

    • D.

      D.diploid, 2, haploid, 1

    Correct Answer
    C. C.haploid, 1, diploid, 2
    Explanation
    Gametes like eggs and sperm are haploid, meaning they contain only one set of chromosomes (23 in humans). This is because during the process of meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved. On the other hand, somatic cells are diploid, meaning they contain two sets of chromosomes (23 pairs in humans). This is because somatic cells undergo mitosis, which results in the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following statements concerning sex determination and sex differentiation is correct?

    • A.

      A.An XY combination of sex chromosomes is a genetic male.

    • B.

      B.The secretion of testosterone by the fetal gonads induces the development of male external genitalia and reproductive tract.

    • C.

      C.Sexual differentiation does not occur until the ninth month of gestation.

    • D.

      D.Both (a) and (b) above.

    • E.

      E.All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. D.Both (a) and (b) above.
    Explanation
    Both statement (a) and (b) are correct. An XY combination of sex chromosomes is a genetic male, and the secretion of testosterone by the fetal gonads induces the development of male external genitalia and reproductive tract.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is NOT a function of sertoli cells?

    • A.

      A.Secrete inhibin

    • B.

      B.form blood-testis barrier

    • C.

      C.provide nutrients for developing sperm

    • D.

      D.secrete testosterone

    • E.

      E.secrete fluid into lumen of seminiferous tubules to support sperm development and transport.

    Correct Answer
    D. D.secrete testosterone
    Explanation
    Sertoli cells are located in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and have several important functions in the development and maturation of sperm. They secrete inhibin, a hormone that regulates the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in the pituitary gland. They also form the blood-testis barrier, which separates the developing sperm from the bloodstream and protects them from immune attack. Sertoli cells provide essential nutrients for the developing sperm and support their development and transport by secreting fluid into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. However, they do not secrete testosterone, which is primarily produced by the Leydig cells in the testes.

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  • 4. 

    Penile erection is under the control of the __________ while ejaculation is under the control of the_________________.

    • A.

      A.somatic nervous system : parasympathetic nervous system

    • B.

      B.sympathetic nervous system : parasympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      C.parasympathetic nervous system : sympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      D.somatic nervous system : sympathetic nervous system

    • E.

      E.sympathetic nervous system : somatic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. C.parasympathetic nervous system : sympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    Penile erection is under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system, which causes the release of nitric oxide and relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels of the penis, allowing for increased blood flow and erection. On the other hand, ejaculation is under the control of the sympathetic nervous system, which triggers the contraction of smooth muscles in the reproductive organs and the release of semen.

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  • 5. 

    Spermatogenesis:

    • A.

      A.occurs in the seminiferous tubules.

    • B.

      B.begins with haploid spermatogonia that undergo meiosis to form diploid sperm.

    • C.

      C.is controlled by prolactin.

    • D.

      D.occurs only prior to birth in males.

    • E.

      E.all of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. A.occurs in the seminiferous tubules.
    Explanation
    Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production in males. It occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Option A correctly states that spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules, making it the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because spermatogonia undergo meiosis to form haploid sperm, not diploid sperm. Option C is incorrect because prolactin does not control spermatogenesis; it is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone. Option D is incorrect because spermatogenesis continues throughout the reproductive life of a male, not just prior to birth. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a structure in the female reproductive system and its function?

    • A.

      A.ovary : produce eggs and sex hormones

    • B.

      B.oviduct : conducts egg from ovary to uterus

    • C.

      C.uterus : site of fertilization

    • D.

      D.cervix : opening of uterus that leads to the vagina

    • E.

      E.vagina : receptacle for penis and birth canal

    Correct Answer
    C. C.uterus : site of fertilization
  • 7. 

    The number of primary oocytes in a female:

    • A.

      A.is fixed prior to birth.

    • B.

      B.is maintained constant during her reproductive life because those that are lost are continuously replaced by an equal number of new primary oocytes.

    • C.

      C.increases at the time of menopaouse.

    • D.

      D.is unlimited.

    • E.

      E.none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A.is fixed prior to birth.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The number of primary oocytes in a female is fixed prior to birth. This is because females are born with all the primary oocytes they will ever have, and no new ones are produced after birth. As females age, these primary oocytes gradually decrease in number through a process called atresia, where many of them degenerate and are reabsorbed by the body. Therefore, the number of primary oocytes in a female is determined before birth and does not change throughout her reproductive life.

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  • 8. 

     During the ovarian cycle after the secondary oocyte has been ovulated the follicle cells become the _______ which secretes estrogen and progesterone.

    • A.

      A.polar body

    • B.

      B.zona pellucida

    • C.

      C.corpus luteum

    • D.

      D.endometrium

    • E.

      E.placenta

    Correct Answer
    C. C.corpus luteum
    Explanation
    After the secondary oocyte has been ovulated, the follicle cells transform into the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes hormones such as estrogen and progesterone. These hormones are important for preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will eventually degenerate and be replaced by scar tissue.

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  • 9. 

    Ovulation is triggered by the release of _______ from the anterior pituitary.

    • A.

      A.testosterone

    • B.

      B.estrogen

    • C.

      C.progesterone

    • D.

      D.luteinizing hormone (LH)

    • E.

      E.oxytocin

    Correct Answer
    D. D.luteinizing hormone (LH)
    Explanation
    Ovulation is triggered by the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary. LH is responsible for stimulating the release of the egg from the ovary during the menstrual cycle. Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, and oxytocin are all involved in various aspects of the reproductive system, but they do not directly trigger ovulation.

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  • 10. 

    During the uterine cycle the endometrium thickens in response to the follicle cells producing and releasing ________.

    • A.

      A.follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

    • B.

      B.estrogen

    • C.

      C.testosterone

    • D.

      D.luteinizing hormone (LH)

    • E.

      E.oxytocin

    Correct Answer
    B. B.estrogen
    Explanation
    During the uterine cycle, the endometrium thickens in response to the follicle cells producing and releasing estrogen. Estrogen is a hormone that is primarily produced by the ovaries. It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of the female reproductive system. In the uterine cycle, estrogen stimulates the growth and proliferation of the endometrial lining, preparing it for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. It also helps to regulate the release of other hormones involved in the menstrual cycle. Therefore, estrogen is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 11. 

     Which of the following is NOT an effect of progesterone?

    • A.

      A.promote secretory-phase uterine conditions

    • B.

      B.trigger ovulation

    • C.

      C.promote growth of glandular tissue in breasts

    • D.

      D.suppress milk production

    • E.

      E.suppress uterine contractile activity

    Correct Answer
    B. B.trigger ovulation
    Explanation
    Progesterone is a hormone that is primarily responsible for preparing the uterus for pregnancy and maintaining pregnancy. It promotes secretory-phase uterine conditions, meaning it prepares the uterus for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. It also promotes the growth of glandular tissue in the breasts and suppresses milk production. Additionally, progesterone suppresses uterine contractile activity, which helps to prevent premature labor. However, it does not trigger ovulation. Ovulation is triggered by luteinizing hormone (LH) which is released by the pituitary gland.

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  • 12. 

    If fertilization and subsequently implantation occur what hormone is produced by the embryo to prevent the corpus luteum from degenerating?

    • A.

      A.prolactin

    • B.

      B.oxytocin

    • C.

      C.testosterone

    • D.

      D.human chorionic gonadotropin

    • E.

      E.growth hormone

    Correct Answer
    D. D.human chorionic gonadotropin
    Explanation
    After fertilization and implantation, the embryo produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to prevent the corpus luteum from degenerating. This hormone maintains the corpus luteum, which is responsible for producing progesterone. Progesterone is essential for maintaining the uterine lining and supporting the early stages of pregnancy. By preventing the corpus luteum from degenerating, hCG ensures a continuous supply of progesterone, which is crucial for the survival and development of the embryo.

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  • 13. 

    The kidneys?

    • A.

      A.regulate plasma ionic concentration

    • B.

      B.regulate plasma osmolarity

    • C.

      C. regulate plasma volume

    • D.

      D. regulate plasma hydrogen concentration

    • E.

      E. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. E. all of the above
    Explanation
    The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis within the body by regulating various aspects of plasma composition. They help regulate plasma ionic concentration by selectively reabsorbing or excreting ions such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and phosphate. The kidneys also regulate plasma osmolarity by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed or excreted. Additionally, they regulate plasma volume by adjusting the amount of water and solutes reabsorbed. Lastly, the kidneys help regulate plasma hydrogen concentration by excreting excess hydrogen ions. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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  • 14. 

    Order the following nephron components and associated structures to indicate the flow of the filtrate through the tubular component of the nephron.1-descending limb of loop of Henle 2-Bowman's capsule 3-collecting tubule 4-ascending limb of loop of Henle 5-distal tubule 6-proximal tubule

    • A.

      A. 4,6,5,3,2,1

    • B.

      B. 2,1,4,3,5,6

    • C.

      C. 2,5,6,3,1,4

    • D.

      D. 2,6,1,4,5,3

    • E.

      E. 3,2,6,1,4,5

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 2,6,1,4,5,3
    Explanation
    The correct order of the flow of filtrate through the tubular component of the nephron is as follows:
    1. Bowman's capsule - where filtration of the blood occurs.
    2. Proximal tubule - reabsorption of water, ions, and nutrients from the filtrate.
    3. Descending limb of the loop of Henle - reabsorption of water.
    4. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle - reabsorption of ions.
    5. Distal tubule - reabsorption and secretion of ions.
    6. Collecting tubule - final reabsorption of water and concentration of urine.

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  • 15. 

    Excretion:

    • A.

      A. is the movement of a substance from glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • B.

      B. is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • C.

      C. is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capilliary blood

    • D.

      D. is everything that is filtered or secreted and not subsequently absorbed

    Correct Answer
    D. D. is everything that is filtered or secreted and not subsequently absorbed
    Explanation
    Excretion refers to the process of eliminating waste products from the body. It includes substances that are filtered or secreted by the kidneys and not reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This can include metabolic waste products, toxins, drugs, and excess water and electrolytes. Excretion plays a vital role in maintaining the body's homeostasis by removing harmful substances and maintaining the balance of essential nutrients and electrolytes.

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  • 16. 

    Reabsorption:

    • A.

      A. is the movement of a substance from glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • B.

      B. is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • C.

      C. is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capilliary blood

    • D.

      D. is everything that is filtered or secreted and not subsequently absorbed

    Correct Answer
    C. C. is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capilliary blood
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. "is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillary blood." Reabsorption refers to the process in which substances that were initially filtered or secreted into the tubular lumen are taken back up into the bloodstream through the peritubular capillaries. This helps to reclaim valuable substances such as water, glucose, and ions that were filtered out in the initial stages of urine formation.

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  • 17. 

    Filtration:

    • A.

      A. is the movement of a substance from glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • B.

      B. is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • C.

      C. is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capilliary blood

    • D.

      D. is everything that is filtered or secreted and not subsequently absorbed

    Correct Answer
    A. A. is the movement of a substance from glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen
    Explanation
    Filtration refers to the process by which substances are moved from the glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen. This process occurs in the kidneys and is an important step in the formation of urine. The glomerular capillaries have small pores that allow small molecules like water, ions, and waste products to pass through, while larger molecules like proteins are retained in the blood. This movement of substances from the blood into the tubular lumen is known as filtration.

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  • 18. 

    Secretion:

    • A.

      A. is the movement of a substance from glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • B.

      B. is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen

    • C.

      C. is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capilliary blood

    • D.

      D. is everything that is filtered or secreted and not subsequently absorbed

    Correct Answer
    B. B. is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen
    Explanation
    Secretion refers to the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen. This process occurs in the kidneys during the filtration process, where certain substances are actively transported from the blood into the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.

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  • 19. 

    Afferent arteriole vasodilation_______blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to _____, leading to a(n) ______ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant ______in the glomuerular filtration rate.

    • A.

      A. increases, increase, increase, increase

    • B.

      B. increases, decrease, decrease, increase

    • C.

      C. increases, increase, decrease, decrease

    • D.

      D. decreases, decrease, increase, increase

    • E.

      E. decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease

    Correct Answer
    A. A. increases, increase, increase, increase
    Explanation
    Afferent arteriole vasodilation increases blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to increase. This leads to an increase in the net filtration pressure and a resultant increase in the glomerular filtration rate.

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  • 20. 

    In tubuloglomerular feedback  the macula densa in the distal tubule detect a(n) _______ in flow of tubular fluid and release a paracrine factor that causes to afferent arteriole to ________. 

    • A.

      A. decrease: constrict

    • B.

      B. increase: dilate

    • C.

      C. increase : constrict

    • D.

      D. decrease : dilate

    • E.

      E. increase: pulse

    Correct Answer
    C. C. increase : constrict
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. increase: constrict. In tubuloglomerular feedback, the macula densa in the distal tubule detects an increase in the flow of tubular fluid. As a response, it releases a paracrine factor that causes the afferent arteriole to constrict. This constriction helps to regulate the glomerular filtration rate and maintain proper fluid balance in the kidneys.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is TRUE concerning glucose reabsorption from the proximal tubule?

    • A.

      A. Glucose is never 100% reabsorbed.

    • B.

      B. Glucose is actively transported across the apical membrane by cotransport with sodium.

    • C.

      C. Glucose is actively transported across the basolatereal membrane by a glucose pump.

    • D.

      D. Glucose reabsorption is passive.

    • E.

      E. All of the above are true of glucose reabsorption.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Glucose is actively transported across the apical membrane by cotransport with sodium.
    Explanation
    Glucose reabsorption from the proximal tubule involves the active transport of glucose across the apical membrane by cotransport with sodium. This means that glucose is transported into the tubule cells alongside sodium ions. This process requires energy and is not passive. The other options are not true because glucose can be completely reabsorbed, and there is no specific glucose pump on the basolateral membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

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  • 22. 

    The following ion is secreted into the distal and collecting tubules under the control of aldosterone. 

    • A.

      A. potassium

    • B.

      B. chloride

    • C.

      C. sodium

    • D.

      D. hydrogen

    • E.

      E. calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. A. potassium
    Explanation
    Potassium is the correct answer because aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, stimulates the secretion of potassium into the distal and collecting tubules of the kidneys. This helps regulate the balance of potassium in the body and plays a role in maintaining proper nerve and muscle function.

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  • 23. 

    The vertical osmotic gradient in the kidney:

    • A.

      A. is established and maintained by the countercurrent system in the loops of Henle in the corticol nephrons

    • B.

      B. makes it possible to make urine of variable concentration depending on the needs of the body

    • C.

      C. is found in the renal medulla

    • D.

      D. both (b) and (c)

    • E.

      E. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. both (b) and (c)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. both (b) and (c). The vertical osmotic gradient in the kidney is established and maintained by the countercurrent system in the loops of Henle in the corticol nephrons, which is found in the renal medulla. This gradient allows the kidney to produce urine of variable concentration depending on the needs of the body.

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  • 24. 

    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion:

    • A.

      A. induces the kidneys to produce a small volume of concentrated urine.

    • B.

      B. is stimulated when the body fluids are hypertonic

    • C.

      C. is stimulated when the arterial blood pressure is low

    • D.

      D. increases water reabsorption from the collecting ducts

    • E.

      E. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. E. all of the above
    Explanation
    ADH secretion induces the kidneys to produce a small volume of concentrated urine by increasing water reabsorption from the collecting ducts. It is also stimulated when the body fluids are hypertonic, meaning there is a higher concentration of solutes in the fluids. Additionally, ADH secretion is stimulated when the arterial blood pressure is low, helping to regulate blood volume and maintain blood pressure. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for ADH secretion.

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  • 25. 

    Sodium reabsorption takes place in all of the tubular components except for the: a. proximal tubule.

    • A.

      A. proximal tubule.

    • B.

      B. descending limb of the loop of henle.

    • C.

      C. ascending limb of the loop of henle.

    • D.

      D. distal tubule

    • E.

      E. collecting duct.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. descending limb of the loop of henle.
    Explanation
    Sodium reabsorption occurs in all tubular components except for the descending limb of the loop of Henle. The descending limb is permeable to water but not to sodium, so sodium cannot be reabsorbed in this part of the tubule.

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  • 26. 

    The _____ produce(s) ________ that converts angiotensinI into angiotensin II.

    • A.

      A. Red blood cells : carbonic anhydrase

    • B.

      B. Atria : atrial natriuretic peptide

    • C.

      C. Lungs : angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

    • D.

      D. Kidneys : renin

    • E.

      E. Adrenal glands : aldosterone

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Lungs : angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
    Explanation
    The lungs produce angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II.

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  • 27. 

    Aldosterone causes an increase in ______ reabsorption from the _______.

    • A.

      A. sodium : proximal tubule

    • B.

      B. sodium : distal tubule and collecting ducts

    • C.

      C. sodium : ascending loop of henle

    • D.

      D. potassium : proximal tubule

    • E.

      E. potassium : distal tubule and collecting ducts

    Correct Answer
    B. B. sodium : distal tubule and collecting ducts
    Explanation
    Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that plays a role in regulating sodium and potassium levels in the body. It causes an increase in sodium reabsorption from the distal tubule and collecting ducts. This means that more sodium is retained in the body, leading to increased water reabsorption and ultimately higher blood volume and blood pressure. This is why option b is the correct answer.

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  • 28. 

    In response to being stretched the atria release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) which decreases blood pressure by _________ reabsorption in the kidneys.

    • A.

      A. increasing sodium

    • B.

      B. increasing water

    • C.

      C. decreasing sodium

    • D.

      D. increasing calcium

    • E.

      E. increasing water

    Correct Answer
    C. C. decreasing sodium
    Explanation
    When the atria are stretched, they release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). This hormone acts on the kidneys to decrease the reabsorption of sodium. When sodium is not reabsorbed, it remains in the urine and is excreted from the body. This leads to a decrease in the overall sodium levels in the blood, which in turn decreases blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is c. decreasing sodium.

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  • 29. 

    The body’s fastest line of defense against changes in pH is:

    • A.

      A.buffers

    • B.

      B.respiratory compensation

    • C.

      C.renal compensation

    • D.

      D.digestive compensation

    • E.

      E.death

    Correct Answer
    A. A.buffers
    Explanation
    Buffers are the body's fastest line of defense against changes in pH because they are able to quickly absorb or release hydrogen ions to maintain the pH within a narrow range. They work by neutralizing any excess acids or bases in the body, preventing drastic changes in pH that can disrupt normal cellular function. Buffers are present in various bodily fluids, such as blood and urine, and play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis. They are able to act rapidly to prevent pH imbalances and ensure the body's physiological processes can continue to function properly.

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  • 30. 

    Hyperventillation will cause ________ . 

    • A.

      A.metabolic acidosis

    • B.

      B.metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      C.respiratory acidosis

    • D.

      D.respiratory alkalosis

    • E.

      E.ketoacidosis

    Correct Answer
    D. D.respiratory alkalosis
    Explanation
    Hyperventilation is the rapid and deep breathing that leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This causes a decrease in the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in acidity. As a result, the pH of the blood increases, causing respiratory alkalosis.

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  • 31. 

    During acidosis the kidneys will:

    • A.

      A. increase the reabsorption of hydrogen ions.

    • B.

      B. increase the secretion of hydrogen ions.

    • C.

      C. increase the secretion of bicarbonate ions.

    • D.

      D. decrease the production of bicarbonate ions.

    • E.

      E. all of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. increase the secretion of hydrogen ions.
    Explanation
    During acidosis, the pH of the blood decreases, indicating an excess of hydrogen ions. To restore the pH balance, the kidneys increase the secretion of hydrogen ions into the urine. This helps to eliminate the excess hydrogen ions from the body and restore the pH to a normal level. Therefore, the correct answer is b. increase the secretion of hydrogen ions.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is NOT a function to the immune system?

    • A.

      A. defend against pathogenic microorganisms.

    • B.

      B. convert foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine.

    • C.

      C. remove worn-out cells and tissue debris.

    • D.

      D. identify and destroys abnormal or mutant cells.

    • E.

      E. all of the above are functions of the immune system.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. convert foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine.
    Explanation
    The immune system's main function is to defend against pathogenic microorganisms, remove worn-out cells and tissue debris, and identify and destroy abnormal or mutant cells. However, converting foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine is not a function of the immune system. This process is primarily carried out by the liver and kidneys, not by the immune system.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is a component of acquired or specific immunity?

    • A.

      A. inflammation.

    • B.

      B. antibody production.

    • C.

      C. interferon.

    • D.

      D. natural killer cells.

    • E.

      E. the complement system.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. antibody production.
    Explanation
    Acquired or specific immunity refers to the immune response that is specifically targeted against a particular pathogen. Antibody production is a key component of this response. Antibodies are proteins produced by specialized immune cells called B cells, and they bind to specific antigens on the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. This process is crucial for the body's ability to recognize and eliminate specific pathogens, providing long-lasting protection against future infections. Inflammation, interferon, natural killer cells, and the complement system are all components of the immune system, but they are not specifically associated with acquired or specific immunity.

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  • 34. 

    Which occurrence is characteristic of the inflammation response?

    • A.

      A. decreased capillary permeability.

    • B.

      B. decreased macrophage activity.

    • C.

      C. localized vasoconstriction.

    • D.

      D. localized edema.

    • E.

      E. decreased phagocytic activity.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. localized edema.
    Explanation
    The characteristic occurrence of the inflammation response is localized edema. Edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the tissues, which is a typical response to inflammation. Inflammation causes an increase in capillary permeability, allowing fluid and immune cells to move from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues. This accumulation of fluid leads to swelling and localized edema. The other options, such as decreased capillary permeability, decreased macrophage activity, decreased phagocytic activity, and localized vasoconstriction, are not characteristic of the inflammation response.

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  • 35. 

    Interferon is a:

    • A.

      A. family of proteins that defends against viruses.

    • B.

      B. natural killer cell.

    • C.

      C. specific bacterial surface receptor.

    • D.

      D. specialized type of white blood cell.

    • E.

      E. vasodilator agent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. family of proteins that defends against viruses.
    Explanation
    Interferon is a family of proteins that defends against viruses. Interferons are produced by cells in response to viral infections and play a crucial role in the immune response against viruses. They help to inhibit viral replication, activate immune cells, and enhance the immune system's ability to clear viral infections. Interferons are an important part of the body's defense mechanism against viral diseases.

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  • 36. 

    Natural killer cells can kill infected or abnormal cells by the release of perforins, which form _______ in the target cell's membrane. 

    • A.

      A. fragmentins

    • B.

      B. interferons

    • C.

      C. antibodies

    • D.

      D. pores

    • E.

      E. complement proteins

    Correct Answer
    D. D. pores
    Explanation
    Natural killer cells can kill infected or abnormal cells by releasing perforins, which form pores in the target cell's membrane. These pores allow for the entry of toxic substances into the target cell, leading to its destruction.

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  • 37. 

    The complement cascade can be activated by binding to ________. 

    • A.

      A. carbohydrates present on bacterial cells only

    • B.

      B. antibodies attached to bacterial cells only

    • C.

      C. natural killer cells only

    • D.

      D. either carbohydrates or antibiodies on bacterial cells

    • E.

      E. either natural killer cells or carbohydrates on bacterial cells

    Correct Answer
    D. D. either carbohydrates or antibiodies on bacterial cells
    Explanation
    The complement cascade is a part of the immune system that helps to destroy pathogens, including bacteria. It can be activated by binding to either carbohydrates or antibodies on bacterial cells. This activation triggers a series of reactions that lead to the destruction of the bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is d. either carbohydrates or antibodies on bacterial cells.

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  • 38. 

    In order to mount a response, particular B or T cells must express the appropriate ________ that will bind to the ________. 

    • A.

      A. antigen : antigen receptor

    • B.

      B. interferon : antigen

    • C.

      C. antigen receptor : antigen

    • D.

      D. antigen receptor : antibody

    • E.

      E. antigen : interferon

    Correct Answer
    C. C. antigen receptor : antigen
  • 39. 

    _____ produce antibodies.

    • A.

      A. Cytotoxic T-cells

    • B.

      B. Natural killer (NK) cells

    • C.

      C. Memory B-cells

    • D.

      D. Plasma B-cells

    • E.

      E. Helper T-cells

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Plasma B-cells
    Explanation
    Plasma B-cells produce antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that are produced by B-cells in response to the presence of antigens. When B-cells encounter an antigen, they differentiate into plasma B-cells, which are responsible for producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies. These antibodies then bind to the antigens, marking them for destruction by other cells of the immune system. Therefore, plasma B-cells play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response by producing antibodies to fight against infections and other foreign substances.

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  • 40. 

    Why is a secondary immune response stronger?

    • A.

      A. Effector cells, like plasma cells and cytotoxic T-cells, produced during the primary response are still present circulating in the blood.

    • B.

      B. Memory cells produced during the primary response lead to a rapid proliferation of effector cells on subsequent exposure to the antigen.

    • C.

      C. Antibodies produced during the primary response are still present circulating in the blood.

    • D.

      D. Body cells develop resistance to the pathogen.

    • E.

      E. Body cells are primed to produce antibodies against the pathogen.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Memory cells produced during the primary response lead to a rapid proliferation of effector cells on subsequent exposure to the antigen.
    Explanation
    During the primary immune response, memory cells are produced. These memory cells "remember" the specific antigen that triggered the immune response. When the body is exposed to the same antigen again, the memory cells quickly recognize it and initiate a rapid proliferation of effector cells. This leads to a stronger secondary immune response because there is a larger number of effector cells produced, which are responsible for the elimination of pathogens. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following subclass of antibodies is found in the secretions of the digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary systems?

    • A.

      A. IgA

    • B.

      B. IgD

    • C.

      C. IgE

    • D.

      D. IgG

    • E.

      E. IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. A. IgA
    Explanation
    IgA is the correct answer because it is the subclass of antibodies that is found in the secretions of the digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary systems. IgA plays a crucial role in defending these mucosal surfaces against pathogens by preventing their attachment and entry into the body. It is the most abundant antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk, providing localized immunity.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is a way that antibodies defend the body?

    • A.

      A. they neutralize harmful chemicals

    • B.

      B. they bind foreign cells by agglutination

    • C.

      C. they enhance the activity of the complement system

    • D.

      D. they enhance the activity of phagocytes

    • E.

      E. all of the above are ways that antibodies defend the body

    Correct Answer
    E. E. all of the above are ways that antibodies defend the body
    Explanation
    Antibodies defend the body in multiple ways. They neutralize harmful chemicals by binding to them and preventing them from causing damage. They also bind foreign cells by agglutination, causing them to clump together and making it easier for other immune cells to destroy them. Additionally, antibodies enhance the activity of the complement system, which is a group of proteins that help to destroy pathogens. Lastly, antibodies enhance the activity of phagocytes, which are immune cells that engulf and destroy foreign substances. Therefore, all of the above options are ways that antibodies defend the body.

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  • 43. 

    ________ secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells, and cytotoxic T cells.

    • A.

      A. Macrophages

    • B.

      B. B cells

    • C.

      C. Helper T cells

    • D.

      D. Cytotoxic T cells

    • E.

      E. Suppressor T cells

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Helper T cells
    Explanation
    Helper T cells secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. These cytokines play a crucial role in regulating the immune response by promoting the activation and proliferation of B cells, which produce antibodies, and cytotoxic T cells, which kill infected cells. This interaction between helper T cells and other immune cells is essential for an effective immune response against pathogens. Macrophages, B cells, and cytotoxic T cells do not secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. Suppressor T cells, on the other hand, suppress the activity of immune cells, rather than enhancing it.

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  • 44. 

    T cells detect foreign antigens on cells of the body by their association with the ________ found on the surface body cells. 

    • A.

      A. membrane attack complex

    • B.

      B. CD4

    • C.

      C. CD8

    • D.

      D. major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule

    • E.

      E. antibodies

    Correct Answer
    D. D. major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule
    Explanation
    T cells detect foreign antigens on cells of the body by their association with the major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule found on the surface body cells. MHC molecules play a crucial role in presenting antigens to T cells, allowing them to recognize and respond to foreign substances. This interaction between antigens and MHC molecules is essential for the immune system to identify and eliminate pathogens or abnormal cells.

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  • 45. 

    Allergies are immune reactions to ___________ mediated by _________ .

    • A.

      A. pathogenic bacteria : macrophages

    • B.

      B. harmless substances : cytotoxic T-cells

    • C.

      C. viruses : plasma cells

    • D.

      D. harmless substances : mast cells

    • E.

      E. viruses : cytotoxic T-cells

    Correct Answer
    D. D. harmless substances : mast cells
    Explanation
    Allergies are immune reactions to harmless substances mediated by mast cells. Mast cells are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response. When an allergen (a harmless substance) enters the body, it binds to IgE antibodies on the surface of mast cells, triggering the release of chemicals such as histamine. This release of chemicals leads to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Therefore, the correct answer is d. harmless substances : mast cells.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is NOT a basic process of the gastrointestinal system?

    • A.

      A. digestion

    • B.

      B. filtration

    • C.

      C. absorption

    • D.

      D. secretion

    • E.

      E. motility

    Correct Answer
    B. B. filtration
    Explanation
    Filtration is not a basic process of the gastrointestinal system. The gastrointestinal system is responsible for the digestion, absorption, secretion, and motility of food. Filtration, on the other hand, is a process that occurs in the kidneys, where waste products and excess water are filtered out of the blood to form urine.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is a role of chewing your food?

    • A.

      A. grind and break food into smaller pieces

    • B.

      B. mix food with saliva

    • C.

      C. stimulate taste buds

    • D.

      D. increase the surface area of food to aid in digestion

    • E.

      E. all of the above are roles of chewing your food

    Correct Answer
    E. E. all of the above are roles of chewing your food
    Explanation
    Chewing your food serves multiple roles in the digestive process. Firstly, it helps to grind and break down the food into smaller, more manageable pieces, making it easier to swallow and digest. Secondly, chewing mixes the food with saliva, which contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down carbohydrates. Additionally, chewing stimulates the taste buds, allowing us to fully experience the flavors of our food. Lastly, by increasing the surface area of the food, chewing aids in the digestion process by exposing more of the food to digestive enzymes, facilitating nutrient absorption.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the components of saliva?

    • A.

      A. bicarbonate ions

    • B.

      B. mucus

    • C.

      C. proteases

    • D.

      D. amylases

    • E.

      E. lysozymes

    Correct Answer
    C. C. proteases
    Explanation
    Proteases are enzymes that break down proteins, and they are not found in saliva. Saliva is composed of bicarbonate ions, mucus, amylases (enzymes that break down carbohydrates), and lysozymes (enzymes that destroy bacteria). Proteases are typically found in the stomach and are involved in the digestion of proteins.

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  • 49. 

    The stomach:

    • A.

      A. stores food

    • B.

      B. liquefies food

    • C.

      C. secretes hydrochloric acid

    • D.

      D. chemically digests protein

    • E.

      E. all of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. E. all of the above
    Explanation
    The stomach performs multiple functions in the digestion process. It stores food after it is swallowed, allowing for controlled release into the small intestine. The stomach also uses muscular contractions to churn and mix the food, effectively liquefying it into a semi-solid mass called chyme. Additionally, the stomach secretes hydrochloric acid, which helps to break down food and kill bacteria. Lastly, the stomach chemically digests protein through the action of enzymes such as pepsin. Therefore, option e, "all of the above," is the correct answer as it encompasses all the functions performed by the stomach.

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  • 50. 

    The liquid mixture of food particles with gastric juice released from the stomach is called ________.

    • A.

      A. bolus

    • B.

      B. fundus

    • C.

      C. chyme

    • D.

      D. saliva

    • E.

      E. gastric secretions

    Correct Answer
    C. C. chyme
    Explanation
    Chyme is the correct answer because it refers to the liquid mixture of food particles and gastric juice that is released from the stomach. The other options are not correct: a. bolus refers to the chewed food before it enters the stomach, b. fundus is a part of the stomach, d. saliva is the fluid secreted by the salivary glands, and e. gastric secretions is a general term that includes gastric juice but does not specifically refer to the mixture with food particles.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 12, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Soysauceninja
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