Human Physiology Exam 5

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1. Which of the following is a role of chewing your food?

Explanation

Chewing your food serves multiple roles in the digestive process. Firstly, it helps to grind and break down the food into smaller, more manageable pieces, making it easier to swallow and digest. Secondly, chewing mixes the food with saliva, which contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down carbohydrates. Additionally, chewing stimulates the taste buds, allowing us to fully experience the flavors of our food. Lastly, by increasing the surface area of the food, chewing aids in the digestion process by exposing more of the food to digestive enzymes, facilitating nutrient absorption.

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About This Quiz
Human Physiology Exam 5 - Quiz

Human Physiology Exam 5 assesses understanding of reproductive mechanisms, focusing on gametogenesis, sex determination, and reproductive functions. It is essential for learners studying human biology, offering insights into... see morephysiological processes and reproductive health. see less

2. The stomach:

Explanation

The stomach performs multiple functions in the digestion process. It stores food after it is swallowed, allowing for controlled release into the small intestine. The stomach also uses muscular contractions to churn and mix the food, effectively liquefying it into a semi-solid mass called chyme. Additionally, the stomach secretes hydrochloric acid, which helps to break down food and kill bacteria. Lastly, the stomach chemically digests protein through the action of enzymes such as pepsin. Therefore, option e, "all of the above," is the correct answer as it encompasses all the functions performed by the stomach.

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3. Ovulation is triggered by the release of _______ from the anterior pituitary.

Explanation

Ovulation is triggered by the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary. LH is responsible for stimulating the release of the egg from the ovary during the menstrual cycle. Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, and oxytocin are all involved in various aspects of the reproductive system, but they do not directly trigger ovulation.

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4. Which of the following functions of the liver aids in lipid digestion? a. synthesis of clotting factors 

Explanation

The liver aids in lipid digestion through the synthesis and secretion of bile. Bile is a substance produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. It is released into the small intestine during digestion to help break down fats and facilitate their absorption. Bile contains bile salts, which emulsify fat droplets, making them easier to digest by enzymes called lipases. Therefore, the synthesis and secretion of bile by the liver play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of lipids.

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5. The kidneys?

Explanation

The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis within the body by regulating various aspects of plasma composition. They help regulate plasma ionic concentration by selectively reabsorbing or excreting ions such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and phosphate. The kidneys also regulate plasma osmolarity by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed or excreted. Additionally, they regulate plasma volume by adjusting the amount of water and solutes reabsorbed. Lastly, the kidneys help regulate plasma hydrogen concentration by excreting excess hydrogen ions. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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6. Secretion:

Explanation

Secretion refers to the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen. This process occurs in the kidneys during the filtration process, where certain substances are actively transported from the blood into the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.

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7. 1.      Gametes like eggs and sperm are ______ containing ____ of each 23 chromosomes while somatic cells are ______ containing _____ of each 23 chromosomes.

Explanation

Gametes like eggs and sperm are haploid, meaning they contain only one set of chromosomes (23 in humans). This is because during the process of meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved. On the other hand, somatic cells are diploid, meaning they contain two sets of chromosomes (23 pairs in humans). This is because somatic cells undergo mitosis, which results in the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

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8. The liquid mixture of food particles with gastric juice released from the stomach is called ________.

Explanation

Chyme is the correct answer because it refers to the liquid mixture of food particles and gastric juice that is released from the stomach. The other options are not correct: a. bolus refers to the chewed food before it enters the stomach, b. fundus is a part of the stomach, d. saliva is the fluid secreted by the salivary glands, and e. gastric secretions is a general term that includes gastric juice but does not specifically refer to the mixture with food particles.

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9. To increase the absorptive efficiency of the small intestine, the surface area of the mucosa is increased by the presence of folds in the wall called ________, and projections of the epithelial cells membranes called ________. 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. villi : microvilli. Villi are the folds in the wall of the small intestine that increase the surface area for absorption. Microvilli are projections on the epithelial cell membranes that further increase the surface area for absorption.

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10. The primary function of the colon is to ________. 

Explanation

The colon is responsible for absorbing water from the undigested food material that passes through the digestive system. This helps in the formation of solid waste and prevents dehydration.

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11. Which of the following statements concerning sex determination and sex differentiation is correct?

Explanation

Both statement (a) and (b) are correct. An XY combination of sex chromosomes is a genetic male, and the secretion of testosterone by the fetal gonads induces the development of male external genitalia and reproductive tract.

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12. The body's fastest line of defense against changes in pH is:

Explanation

Buffers are the body's fastest line of defense against changes in pH because they are able to quickly absorb or release hydrogen ions to maintain the pH within a narrow range. They work by neutralizing any excess acids or bases in the body, preventing drastic changes in pH that can disrupt normal cellular function. Buffers are present in various bodily fluids, such as blood and urine, and play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis. They are able to act rapidly to prevent pH imbalances and ensure the body's physiological processes can continue to function properly.

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13. Excretion:

Explanation

Excretion refers to the process of eliminating waste products from the body. It includes substances that are filtered or secreted by the kidneys and not reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This can include metabolic waste products, toxins, drugs, and excess water and electrolytes. Excretion plays a vital role in maintaining the body's homeostasis by removing harmful substances and maintaining the balance of essential nutrients and electrolytes.

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14. Reabsorption:

Explanation

The correct answer is c. "is the movement of a substance from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillary blood." Reabsorption refers to the process in which substances that were initially filtered or secreted into the tubular lumen are taken back up into the bloodstream through the peritubular capillaries. This helps to reclaim valuable substances such as water, glucose, and ions that were filtered out in the initial stages of urine formation.

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15. Carbohydrates are absorbed from the intestine as ______ and enter ______.

Explanation

Carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides during the process of digestion. Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates and can be easily absorbed by the intestine. Once absorbed, monosaccharides enter the blood stream and are transported to various cells in the body to be used as a source of energy. Therefore, the correct answer is e. monosaccharides: the blood stream.

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16. Which of the following is a component of acquired or specific immunity?

Explanation

Acquired or specific immunity refers to the immune response that is specifically targeted against a particular pathogen. Antibody production is a key component of this response. Antibodies are proteins produced by specialized immune cells called B cells, and they bind to specific antigens on the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. This process is crucial for the body's ability to recognize and eliminate specific pathogens, providing long-lasting protection against future infections. Inflammation, interferon, natural killer cells, and the complement system are all components of the immune system, but they are not specifically associated with acquired or specific immunity.

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17. Which of the following is a way that antibodies defend the body?

Explanation

Antibodies defend the body in multiple ways. They neutralize harmful chemicals by binding to them and preventing them from causing damage. They also bind foreign cells by agglutination, causing them to clump together and making it easier for other immune cells to destroy them. Additionally, antibodies enhance the activity of the complement system, which is a group of proteins that help to destroy pathogens. Lastly, antibodies enhance the activity of phagocytes, which are immune cells that engulf and destroy foreign substances. Therefore, all of the above options are ways that antibodies defend the body.

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18.  During the ovarian cycle after the secondary oocyte has been ovulated the follicle cells become the _______ which secretes estrogen and progesterone.

Explanation

After the secondary oocyte has been ovulated, the follicle cells transform into the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes hormones such as estrogen and progesterone. These hormones are important for preparing and maintaining the uterus for pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will eventually degenerate and be replaced by scar tissue.

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19. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a structure in the female reproductive system and its function?

Explanation

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20. Order the following nephron components and associated structures to indicate the flow of the filtrate through the tubular component of the nephron.1-descending limb of loop of Henle 2-Bowman's capsule 3-collecting tubule 4-ascending limb of loop of Henle 5-distal tubule 6-proximal tubule

Explanation

The correct order of the flow of filtrate through the tubular component of the nephron is as follows:
1. Bowman's capsule - where filtration of the blood occurs.
2. Proximal tubule - reabsorption of water, ions, and nutrients from the filtrate.
3. Descending limb of the loop of Henle - reabsorption of water.
4. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle - reabsorption of ions.
5. Distal tubule - reabsorption and secretion of ions.
6. Collecting tubule - final reabsorption of water and concentration of urine.

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21. Filtration:

Explanation

Filtration refers to the process by which substances are moved from the glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen. This process occurs in the kidneys and is an important step in the formation of urine. The glomerular capillaries have small pores that allow small molecules like water, ions, and waste products to pass through, while larger molecules like proteins are retained in the blood. This movement of substances from the blood into the tubular lumen is known as filtration.

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22. The number of primary oocytes in a female:

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The number of primary oocytes in a female is fixed prior to birth. This is because females are born with all the primary oocytes they will ever have, and no new ones are produced after birth. As females age, these primary oocytes gradually decrease in number through a process called atresia, where many of them degenerate and are reabsorbed by the body. Therefore, the number of primary oocytes in a female is determined before birth and does not change throughout her reproductive life.

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23. Which occurrence is characteristic of the inflammation response?

Explanation

The characteristic occurrence of the inflammation response is localized edema. Edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the tissues, which is a typical response to inflammation. Inflammation causes an increase in capillary permeability, allowing fluid and immune cells to move from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues. This accumulation of fluid leads to swelling and localized edema. The other options, such as decreased capillary permeability, decreased macrophage activity, decreased phagocytic activity, and localized vasoconstriction, are not characteristic of the inflammation response.

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24. The digestion of proteins begins in the ________ with the activation of ________.  a. small intestine : trypsinogen 

Explanation

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25. Afferent arteriole vasodilation_______blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to _____, leading to a(n) ______ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant ______in the glomuerular filtration rate.

Explanation

Afferent arteriole vasodilation increases blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to increase. This leads to an increase in the net filtration pressure and a resultant increase in the glomerular filtration rate.

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26. Spermatogenesis:

Explanation

Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production in males. It occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Option A correctly states that spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules, making it the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because spermatogonia undergo meiosis to form haploid sperm, not diploid sperm. Option C is incorrect because prolactin does not control spermatogenesis; it is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone. Option D is incorrect because spermatogenesis continues throughout the reproductive life of a male, not just prior to birth. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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27. T cells detect foreign antigens on cells of the body by their association with the ________ found on the surface body cells. 

Explanation

T cells detect foreign antigens on cells of the body by their association with the major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule found on the surface body cells. MHC molecules play a crucial role in presenting antigens to T cells, allowing them to recognize and respond to foreign substances. This interaction between antigens and MHC molecules is essential for the immune system to identify and eliminate pathogens or abnormal cells.

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28. Hyperventillation will cause ________ . 

Explanation

Hyperventilation is the rapid and deep breathing that leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This causes a decrease in the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in acidity. As a result, the pH of the blood increases, causing respiratory alkalosis.

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29. Interferon is a:

Explanation

Interferon is a family of proteins that defends against viruses. Interferons are produced by cells in response to viral infections and play a crucial role in the immune response against viruses. They help to inhibit viral replication, activate immune cells, and enhance the immune system's ability to clear viral infections. Interferons are an important part of the body's defense mechanism against viral diseases.

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30. Why is a secondary immune response stronger?

Explanation

During the primary immune response, memory cells are produced. These memory cells "remember" the specific antigen that triggered the immune response. When the body is exposed to the same antigen again, the memory cells quickly recognize it and initiate a rapid proliferation of effector cells. This leads to a stronger secondary immune response because there is a larger number of effector cells produced, which are responsible for the elimination of pathogens. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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31. ________ secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells, and cytotoxic T cells.

Explanation

Helper T cells secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. These cytokines play a crucial role in regulating the immune response by promoting the activation and proliferation of B cells, which produce antibodies, and cytotoxic T cells, which kill infected cells. This interaction between helper T cells and other immune cells is essential for an effective immune response against pathogens. Macrophages, B cells, and cytotoxic T cells do not secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. Suppressor T cells, on the other hand, suppress the activity of immune cells, rather than enhancing it.

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32. Which of the following is NOT a basic process of the gastrointestinal system?

Explanation

Filtration is not a basic process of the gastrointestinal system. The gastrointestinal system is responsible for the digestion, absorption, secretion, and motility of food. Filtration, on the other hand, is a process that occurs in the kidneys, where waste products and excess water are filtered out of the blood to form urine.

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33. If fertilization and subsequently implantation occur what hormone is produced by the embryo to prevent the corpus luteum from degenerating?

Explanation

After fertilization and implantation, the embryo produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to prevent the corpus luteum from degenerating. This hormone maintains the corpus luteum, which is responsible for producing progesterone. Progesterone is essential for maintaining the uterine lining and supporting the early stages of pregnancy. By preventing the corpus luteum from degenerating, hCG ensures a continuous supply of progesterone, which is crucial for the survival and development of the embryo.

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34. The vertical osmotic gradient in the kidney:

Explanation

The correct answer is d. both (b) and (c). The vertical osmotic gradient in the kidney is established and maintained by the countercurrent system in the loops of Henle in the corticol nephrons, which is found in the renal medulla. This gradient allows the kidney to produce urine of variable concentration depending on the needs of the body.

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35. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion:

Explanation

ADH secretion induces the kidneys to produce a small volume of concentrated urine by increasing water reabsorption from the collecting ducts. It is also stimulated when the body fluids are hypertonic, meaning there is a higher concentration of solutes in the fluids. Additionally, ADH secretion is stimulated when the arterial blood pressure is low, helping to regulate blood volume and maintain blood pressure. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for ADH secretion.

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36.  Which of the following is NOT an effect of progesterone?

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone that is primarily responsible for preparing the uterus for pregnancy and maintaining pregnancy. It promotes secretory-phase uterine conditions, meaning it prepares the uterus for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. It also promotes the growth of glandular tissue in the breasts and suppresses milk production. Additionally, progesterone suppresses uterine contractile activity, which helps to prevent premature labor. However, it does not trigger ovulation. Ovulation is triggered by luteinizing hormone (LH) which is released by the pituitary gland.

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37. Which of the following is NOT a function to the immune system?

Explanation

The immune system's main function is to defend against pathogenic microorganisms, remove worn-out cells and tissue debris, and identify and destroy abnormal or mutant cells. However, converting foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine is not a function of the immune system. This process is primarily carried out by the liver and kidneys, not by the immune system.

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38. Natural killer cells can kill infected or abnormal cells by the release of perforins, which form _______ in the target cell's membrane. 

Explanation

Natural killer cells can kill infected or abnormal cells by releasing perforins, which form pores in the target cell's membrane. These pores allow for the entry of toxic substances into the target cell, leading to its destruction.

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39. _____ produce antibodies.

Explanation

Plasma B-cells produce antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that are produced by B-cells in response to the presence of antigens. When B-cells encounter an antigen, they differentiate into plasma B-cells, which are responsible for producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies. These antibodies then bind to the antigens, marking them for destruction by other cells of the immune system. Therefore, plasma B-cells play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response by producing antibodies to fight against infections and other foreign substances.

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40. Allergies are immune reactions to ___________ mediated by _________ .

Explanation

Allergies are immune reactions to harmless substances mediated by mast cells. Mast cells are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response. When an allergen (a harmless substance) enters the body, it binds to IgE antibodies on the surface of mast cells, triggering the release of chemicals such as histamine. This release of chemicals leads to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Therefore, the correct answer is d. harmless substances : mast cells.

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41. Bicarbonate ions which neutralize the contents of the small intestine are secreted by: a. the small intestine

Explanation

The correct answer is c. the pancreas. The pancreas secretes bicarbonate ions to neutralize the acidic contents that enter the small intestine from the stomach. This helps create a more favorable environment for the digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine. The small intestine itself does not secrete bicarbonate ions. The stomach produces hydrochloric acid, not bicarbonate ions. The liver produces bile, which helps with the digestion of fats, but does not secrete bicarbonate ions. The gallbladder stores and releases bile, but does not secrete bicarbonate ions.

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42. Aldosterone causes an increase in ______ reabsorption from the _______.

Explanation

Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that plays a role in regulating sodium and potassium levels in the body. It causes an increase in sodium reabsorption from the distal tubule and collecting ducts. This means that more sodium is retained in the body, leading to increased water reabsorption and ultimately higher blood volume and blood pressure. This is why option b is the correct answer.

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43. In order to mount a response, particular B or T cells must express the appropriate ________ that will bind to the ________. 

Explanation

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44. The following ion is secreted into the distal and collecting tubules under the control of aldosterone. 

Explanation

Potassium is the correct answer because aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, stimulates the secretion of potassium into the distal and collecting tubules of the kidneys. This helps regulate the balance of potassium in the body and plays a role in maintaining proper nerve and muscle function.

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45. The _____ produce(s) ________ that converts angiotensinI into angiotensin II.

Explanation

The lungs produce angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II.

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46. Penile erection is under the control of the __________ while ejaculation is under the control of the_________________.

Explanation

Penile erection is under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system, which causes the release of nitric oxide and relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels of the penis, allowing for increased blood flow and erection. On the other hand, ejaculation is under the control of the sympathetic nervous system, which triggers the contraction of smooth muscles in the reproductive organs and the release of semen.

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47. Which of the following is TRUE concerning glucose reabsorption from the proximal tubule?

Explanation

Glucose reabsorption from the proximal tubule involves the active transport of glucose across the apical membrane by cotransport with sodium. This means that glucose is transported into the tubule cells alongside sodium ions. This process requires energy and is not passive. The other options are not true because glucose can be completely reabsorbed, and there is no specific glucose pump on the basolateral membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

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48. In response to being stretched the atria release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) which decreases blood pressure by _________ reabsorption in the kidneys.

Explanation

When the atria are stretched, they release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). This hormone acts on the kidneys to decrease the reabsorption of sodium. When sodium is not reabsorbed, it remains in the urine and is excreted from the body. This leads to a decrease in the overall sodium levels in the blood, which in turn decreases blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is c. decreasing sodium.

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49. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of saliva?

Explanation

Proteases are enzymes that break down proteins, and they are not found in saliva. Saliva is composed of bicarbonate ions, mucus, amylases (enzymes that break down carbohydrates), and lysozymes (enzymes that destroy bacteria). Proteases are typically found in the stomach and are involved in the digestion of proteins.

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50. What class of antibody can cross the placenta and is the most common in the blood and one of the most effective classes of antibody?

Explanation

IgG is the only class of antibody that can cross the placenta, making it important for providing passive immunity to the fetus during pregnancy. It is the most abundant class of antibody in the blood and plays a crucial role in immune defense by neutralizing pathogens, enhancing phagocytosis, and activating complement. IgG antibodies have a longer half-life compared to other antibody classes, allowing them to persist in the bloodstream for an extended period and provide long-term protection against infections. Overall, IgG is highly effective in immune responses and is considered one of the most important classes of antibodies.

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51. During the uterine cycle the endometrium thickens in response to the follicle cells producing and releasing ________.

Explanation

During the uterine cycle, the endometrium thickens in response to the follicle cells producing and releasing estrogen. Estrogen is a hormone that is primarily produced by the ovaries. It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of the female reproductive system. In the uterine cycle, estrogen stimulates the growth and proliferation of the endometrial lining, preparing it for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. It also helps to regulate the release of other hormones involved in the menstrual cycle. Therefore, estrogen is the correct answer in this context.

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52. In tubuloglomerular feedback  the macula densa in the distal tubule detect a(n) _______ in flow of tubular fluid and release a paracrine factor that causes to afferent arteriole to ________. 

Explanation

The correct answer is c. increase: constrict. In tubuloglomerular feedback, the macula densa in the distal tubule detects an increase in the flow of tubular fluid. As a response, it releases a paracrine factor that causes the afferent arteriole to constrict. This constriction helps to regulate the glomerular filtration rate and maintain proper fluid balance in the kidneys.

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53. Sodium reabsorption takes place in all of the tubular components except for the: a. proximal tubule.

Explanation

Sodium reabsorption occurs in all tubular components except for the descending limb of the loop of Henle. The descending limb is permeable to water but not to sodium, so sodium cannot be reabsorbed in this part of the tubule.

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54. During acidosis the kidneys will:

Explanation

During acidosis, the pH of the blood decreases, indicating an excess of hydrogen ions. To restore the pH balance, the kidneys increase the secretion of hydrogen ions into the urine. This helps to eliminate the excess hydrogen ions from the body and restore the pH to a normal level. Therefore, the correct answer is b. increase the secretion of hydrogen ions.

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55. Which of the following subclass of antibodies is found in the secretions of the digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary systems?

Explanation

IgA is the correct answer because it is the subclass of antibodies that is found in the secretions of the digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary systems. IgA plays a crucial role in defending these mucosal surfaces against pathogens by preventing their attachment and entry into the body. It is the most abundant antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk, providing localized immunity.

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56. Lipids are packaged into ________ in the epithelial cells lining the small intestine and enter ________. 

Explanation

Lipids are packaged into chylomicrons in the epithelial cells lining the small intestine and enter the lymph system.

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57. Which of the following is NOT a function of sertoli cells?

Explanation

Sertoli cells are located in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and have several important functions in the development and maturation of sperm. They secrete inhibin, a hormone that regulates the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in the pituitary gland. They also form the blood-testis barrier, which separates the developing sperm from the bloodstream and protects them from immune attack. Sertoli cells provide essential nutrients for the developing sperm and support their development and transport by secreting fluid into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. However, they do not secrete testosterone, which is primarily produced by the Leydig cells in the testes.

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58. The complement cascade can be activated by binding to ________. 

Explanation

The complement cascade is a part of the immune system that helps to destroy pathogens, including bacteria. It can be activated by binding to either carbohydrates or antibodies on bacterial cells. This activation triggers a series of reactions that lead to the destruction of the bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is d. either carbohydrates or antibodies on bacterial cells.

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59. . What class of antibody is found on B= Lymphocytes?

Explanation

IgD is the class of antibody found on B lymphocytes. IgD antibodies are membrane-bound and serve as antigen receptors on the surface of B cells. They play a crucial role in the activation and differentiation of B cells, helping to initiate the immune response. IgD antibodies are also involved in the regulation of immune responses and can act as co-receptors with IgM on B cells.

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60. Chief cells secrete ______. Parietal cells secrete ______ and ______. G cells secrete ______. Neck cells secrete ___.

Explanation

Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, which is an inactive form of the enzyme pepsin. Pepsinogen is converted into pepsin in the presence of acidic conditions in the stomach. Parietal cells secrete hydrogen ions, which are responsible for maintaining the acidic pH of the stomach. Parietal cells also secrete intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. G cells secrete gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid and increases gastric motility. Neck cells secrete mucus, which forms a protective layer on the stomach lining and helps to prevent damage from stomach acid.

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61. What 2 enzymes are important in digestion of starches?

Explanation

Salivary and pancreatic enzymes are important in the digestion of starches. Salivary amylase, produced in the salivary glands, begins the digestion process in the mouth by breaking down starch into smaller molecules. Pancreatic amylase, produced in the pancreas, continues the digestion of starch in the small intestine, further breaking it down into simple sugars that can be absorbed by the body. Both enzymes play a crucial role in breaking down complex carbohydrates into more easily digestible forms.

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62. Salivary Amylase begins digesting _________ in the mouth.

Explanation

Salivary amylase is an enzyme present in saliva that helps break down carbohydrates in the mouth. It specifically targets complex carbohydrates, such as starches, and begins the process of digestion by breaking them down into smaller sugar molecules. This process is important because it allows for easier absorption and utilization of carbohydrates by the body.

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63. ___________ released from the liver and stored in the gall bladder is important in the emulsification of fats. What does emulsify mean?

Explanation

The correct answer explains that emulsify means breaking big droplets into smaller droplets. This process is important in the emulsification of fats, where bile released from the liver and stored in the gall bladder helps to break down large fat droplets into smaller ones, increasing their surface area and making it easier for enzymes to digest them.

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64. Brush border enzymes complete the digestion of _______________ and _____________.

Explanation

Brush border enzymes are enzymes that are found on the surface of the small intestine's epithelial cells and are responsible for completing the digestion of carbohydrates and proteins. These enzymes include disaccharidases, such as sucrase, lactase, and maltase, which break down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars. They also include peptidases, such as aminopeptidase and dipeptidase, which break down proteins into amino acids. Therefore, brush border enzymes play a crucial role in the final stages of digestion, ensuring that carbohydrates and proteins are fully broken down and can be absorbed by the body.

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65. Fat is digested entirely in the small intestine by _______________.

Explanation

Pancreatic lipase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for breaking down fats into smaller molecules called fatty acids and glycerol. This process occurs in the small intestine, specifically in the duodenum, with the help of bile salts. Pancreatic lipase is produced by the pancreas and released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion and absorption of fats. Without pancreatic lipase, fats would not be efficiently broken down and absorbed, leading to difficulties in fat digestion and nutrient absorption.

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66. Lipids get packaged to chylomicrons  in the ____________.  They are then secreted by exocytosis into interstitial fluid and are absorbed into lymphatic system through ____________.

Explanation

Lipids are packaged into chylomicrons in the Golgi apparatus. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging lipids and other molecules before they are transported to their final destination. Once the lipids are packaged into chylomicrons, they are secreted by exocytosis into the interstitial fluid. From there, they are absorbed into the lymphatic system through the lacteal, which is a small lymphatic vessel found in the small intestine.

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Which of the following is a role of chewing your food?
The stomach:
Ovulation is triggered by the release of _______ from the anterior...
Which of the following functions of the liver aids in lipid digestion?...
The kidneys?
Secretion:
1.      Gametes like eggs and sperm are...
The liquid mixture of food particles with gastric juice released from...
To increase the absorptive efficiency of the small intestine, the...
The primary function of the colon is to ________. 
Which of the following statements concerning sex determination and sex...
The body's fastest line of defense against changes in pH is:
Excretion:
Reabsorption:
Carbohydrates are absorbed from the intestine as ______ and enter...
Which of the following is a component of acquired or specific...
Which of the following is a way that antibodies defend the body?
 During the ovarian cycle after the secondary oocyte has been...
Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a structure in the...
Order the following nephron components and associated structures to...
Filtration:
The number of primary oocytes in a female:
Which occurrence is characteristic of the inflammation response?
The digestion of proteins begins in the ________ with the activation...
Afferent arteriole vasodilation_______blood flow into the glomerulus,...
Spermatogenesis:
T cells detect foreign antigens on cells of the body by their...
Hyperventillation will cause ________ . 
Interferon is a:
Why is a secondary immune response stronger?
________ secrete cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells, and...
Which of the following is NOT a basic process of the gastrointestinal...
If fertilization and subsequently implantation occur what hormone is...
The vertical osmotic gradient in the kidney:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion:
 Which of the following is NOT an effect of progesterone?
Which of the following is NOT a function to the immune system?
Natural killer cells can kill infected or abnormal cells by the...
_____ produce antibodies.
Allergies are immune reactions to ___________ mediated by _________ .
Bicarbonate ions which neutralize the contents of the small intestine...
Aldosterone causes an increase in ______ reabsorption from the...
In order to mount a response, particular B or T cells must express the...
The following ion is secreted into the distal and collecting tubules...
The _____ produce(s) ________ that converts angiotensinI into...
Penile erection is under the control of the __________ while...
Which of the following is TRUE concerning glucose reabsorption from...
In response to being stretched the atria release atrial natriuretic...
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of saliva?
What class of antibody can cross the placenta and is the most common...
During the uterine cycle the endometrium thickens in response to the...
In tubuloglomerular feedback  the macula densa in the distal...
Sodium reabsorption takes place in all of the tubular components...
During acidosis the kidneys will:
Which of the following subclass of antibodies is found in the...
Lipids are packaged into ________ in the epithelial cells lining the...
Which of the following is NOT a function of sertoli cells?
The complement cascade can be activated by binding to ________. 
. What class of antibody is found on B= Lymphocytes?
Chief cells secrete ______. Parietal cells secrete ______ and ______....
What 2 enzymes are important in digestion of starches?
Salivary Amylase begins digesting _________ in the mouth.
___________ released from the liver and stored in the gall bladder is...
Brush border enzymes complete the digestion of _______________ and...
Fat is digested entirely in the small intestine by _______________.
Lipids get packaged to chylomicrons  in the ____________. ...
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