High-risk Pregnancy

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  • 1/30 Questions

    What risk factors are included in Biophysical FactorsSATA

    • Alcohol
    • Genetic makeup
    • Parity
    • Medical and/or obstetric history
    • Nutritional status
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About This Quiz

OB--TEST 2. . . . If there are any incorrect answers, please feel free to correct it. . . . . GOOD LUCK

High-risk Pregnancy - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What risk factors are included in Environmental FactorsSATA

    • Hazardous chemicals

    • Ethnicity

    • Air quality

    • Radiation

    • Stress

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hazardous chemicals
    A. Air quality
    A. Radiation
    A. Stress
    Explanation
    The risk factors included in Environmental Factors are hazardous chemicals, air quality, radiation, and stress. These factors can all have a significant impact on the environment and can pose potential risks to human health. Hazardous chemicals can contaminate the environment and cause various health issues. Poor air quality can lead to respiratory problems and other health complications. Radiation exposure can have detrimental effects on human health, including an increased risk of cancer. Stress, whether caused by environmental factors or other sources, can also have negative impacts on overall well-being.

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  • 3. 

    What risk factors are included in Psychosocial FactorsSATA

    • Caffeine

    • Low income

    • Drugs

    • Smoking

    • Alcohol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Caffeine
    A. Drugs
    A. Smoking
    A. Alcohol
    Explanation
    Psychosocial factors refer to the social and psychological influences that can impact an individual's mental and emotional well-being. In this context, the risk factors included in Psychosocial Factors are caffeine, drugs, smoking, and alcohol. These substances can have negative effects on a person's mental health and contribute to psychosocial issues such as addiction, anxiety, depression, and social isolation. Low income is not typically considered a risk factor in the context of psychosocial factors, as it is more related to socioeconomic factors.

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  • 4. 

    What risk factors are included in Sociodemographic FactorsSATA

    • Parity

    • Marital status

    • Residence

    • Low income

    • Ethnicity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Parity
    A. Marital status
    A. Residence
    A. Low income
    A. Ethnicity
    Explanation
    The risk factors included in Sociodemographic Factors are parity, marital status, residence, low income, and ethnicity. These factors are considered to be sociodemographic because they are related to a person's social and economic characteristics. Parity refers to the number of times a woman has given birth, marital status refers to whether a person is married or not, residence refers to the location where a person lives, low income refers to having a low level of income, and ethnicity refers to a person's cultural or racial background. All of these factors can influence a person's health and well-being and are therefore important to consider in understanding sociodemographic risk factors.

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  • 5. 

    What age group is adolescents most at risk for pregnancy complicationSATA

    • 13

    • 16

    • 15

    • 14

    • 12

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 13
    A. 14
    A. 12
    Explanation
    Adolescents are most at risk for pregnancy complications during their early teenage years, typically between the ages of 12 to 14. At this age, their bodies are still developing and may not be fully prepared for the physical demands of pregnancy and childbirth. Additionally, young adolescents may lack access to proper healthcare and prenatal care, which can further increase the risk of complications. Therefore, it is crucial to provide comprehensive sexual education and access to reproductive healthcare services to this age group to minimize the potential risks.

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  • 6. 

    Most adolescents eating habits are very imbalanced, what are some complications can poor nutrition cause during pregnancy

    • Weight loss

    • Premature births

    • Urinary tract infections

    • Intrauterine growth restrictions

    • Increased death rate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Premature births
    A. Intrauterine growth restrictions
    A. Increased death rate
    Explanation
    Poor nutrition during pregnancy can lead to a range of complications. Premature births occur when the baby is born before completing the full term, and this can be a result of inadequate nutrition. Intrauterine growth restrictions refer to the baby not growing properly in the womb, which can also be caused by poor nutrition. Additionally, poor nutrition increases the risk of death for both the mother and the baby, leading to an increased death rate. These complications highlight the importance of maintaining a balanced and nutritious diet during pregnancy.

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  • 7. 

    In older women, previous pregnancies can cause complications because their bodies heal much quicker due to decreased estrogen in the body

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement in the question is incorrect. In older women, previous pregnancies can actually increase the risk of complications due to factors such as reduced fertility, increased prevalence of chronic conditions, and decreased physiological reserve. Estrogen levels do decrease with age, but this alone does not explain the potential complications associated with previous pregnancies in older women. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 8. 

    What vitamin assist in the body's absorption of iron supplements (FE)

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Vitamin C assists in the body's absorption of iron supplements. Vitamin C helps convert iron from non-heme sources, such as plant-based foods, into a form that is easier for the body to absorb. It also enhances the absorption of iron from heme sources, which are found in animal-based foods. Therefore, consuming foods rich in vitamin C or taking a vitamin C supplement along with iron supplements can improve iron absorption in the body.

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  • 9. 

    Which baseline lab test are obtained in the 1 prenatal visitSATA

    • Protein**UA

    • Occult blood

    • Vital signs

    • Glucose**UA

    • Weight

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Protein**UA
    A. Vital signs
    A. Glucose**UA
    A. Weight
    Explanation
    During the first prenatal visit, several baseline lab tests are obtained to assess the health of the mother and the developing fetus. These tests include checking for protein in the urine (protein**UA), measuring vital signs (such as blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature), testing for glucose in the urine (glucose**UA), and measuring the weight of the mother. These tests help in identifying any potential health issues or risks that may require further evaluation or monitoring throughout the pregnancy.

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  • 10. 

    Which gestational month does the care provider repeat the maternal hemoglobin test

    • 5

    • 4

    • 8

    • 7

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    The care provider repeats the maternal hemoglobin test in the 7th gestational month. This is because during pregnancy, the hemoglobin levels can fluctuate, and it is important to monitor them regularly to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby. By repeating the test in the 7th month, the care provider can assess if there are any changes or abnormalities in the maternal hemoglobin levels and take appropriate measures if necessary.

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  • 11. 

    What causes a physician to order a "indirect Coombs" test and when

    • Gestational DM, 25wks

    • Rh+, 25wks

    • Rh+, 28wks

    • Rh-, 28wks

    • Preeclampsia, 25wk

    Correct Answer
    A. Rh-, 28wks
    Explanation
    The physician orders an "indirect Coombs" test when the patient is Rh-negative at 28 weeks. This test is used to detect the presence of antibodies in the blood that could potentially cause harm to the fetus. In Rh-negative individuals, if the fetus is Rh-positive, there is a risk of the mother developing antibodies against the Rh factor. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to a condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn. Therefore, it is important to identify Rh-negative mothers who may have developed these antibodies and take necessary precautions to prevent harm to the fetus.

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  • 12. 

    If the indirect Coombs' test have a positive result, what is given as a prophylaxis

    • Intravenous iron (FE)

    • MSAFP

    • Penicillin

    • RhIgG

    • EDB

    Correct Answer
    A. RhIgG
    Explanation
    If the indirect Coombs' test has a positive result, it indicates the presence of antibodies in the blood that can potentially attack red blood cells. RhIgG, or Rh immune globulin, is given as a prophylaxis in this situation. RhIgG helps to prevent the development of antibodies in Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as during pregnancy or blood transfusions. It works by binding to any Rh-positive red blood cells that may have entered the bloodstream, preventing the person's immune system from recognizing and attacking them.

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  • 13. 

    What is associated with Down Syndrome

    • Low MSAFP

    • Low hCG

    • High inhibin-A

    • Low UE

    • High hCG

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Low MSAFP
    A. High inhibin-A
    A. Low UE
    A. High hCG
    Explanation
    Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is associated with certain prenatal screening markers. Low MSAFP (Maternal Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein) and low UE (Unconjugated Estriol) levels are commonly observed in pregnancies affected by Down Syndrome. Additionally, high inhibin-A and high hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) levels are also seen in these cases. These markers can be used to screen for the likelihood of Down Syndrome during pregnancy.

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  • 14. 

    What 1hr Glucose Screen value indicates gestational diabetes with the

    • 140 mg/dL

    • 135mg/dL

    • 145mg/dL

    • 115mg/dL

    • 125mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. 140 mg/dL
    Explanation
    A 1hr Glucose Screen value of 140 mg/dL indicates gestational diabetes. This value is above the normal range, suggesting that the body is not effectively processing glucose during pregnancy. Gestational diabetes can have various health implications for both the mother and the baby, so it is important for pregnant women to monitor their glucose levels and seek appropriate medical care if necessary.

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  • 15. 

    Some of the products are expelled, but the placenta remains attached. Heavy bleeding and cramping doesn't subside until entire placenta is removed

    • Habitual

    • Missed

    • Incomplete

    • Complete

    • Threatened

    Correct Answer
    A. Incomplete
    Explanation
    The given answer, "incomplete," is the most suitable explanation for the described situation. In an incomplete miscarriage, some of the products of conception are expelled, but the placenta remains attached to the uterine wall. This can lead to heavy bleeding and cramping that doesn't subside until the entire placenta is removed.

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  • 16. 

    Bleeding and cramping occur with the cervix closed and membranes intact

    • Habitual

    • Missed

    • Incomplete

    • Inevitable

    • Threatened

    Correct Answer
    A. Threatened
    Explanation
    In a threatened miscarriage, bleeding and cramping occur, but the cervix remains closed and the membranes are intact. This means that there is a possibility that the pregnancy may continue, as the cervix is not dilating and there is no rupture of the membranes. However, medical attention is still necessary to monitor the situation and ensure the health of the pregnancy.

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  • 17. 

    Embryo or fetus dies but isn't expelled. It's often discovered by the physician when no FHT is present. Fetus must be expelled within 6wks or DIC and/or infections can occur

    • Habitual

    • Missed

    • Incomplete

    • Inevitable

    • Threatened

    Correct Answer
    A. Missed
    Explanation
    The given explanation suggests that the correct answer is "missed". This term refers to a situation where the embryo or fetus dies but is not expelled from the uterus. In this case, the absence of fetal heart tones (FHT) is often detected by the physician. It is important for the fetus to be expelled within 6 weeks to avoid complications such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and infections.

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  • 18. 

    Any of the 5 spontaneous abortions occurring with 3 consecutive pregnancies.  This condition is a result of weakened cervix that dilates in the 2nd trimester, and expels the fetus. this condition is call INCOMPLETE CERVIX

    • Habitual

    • Missed

    • Incomplete

    • Complete

    • Threatened

    Correct Answer
    A. Habitual
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "habitual" because the given information states that there have been 5 spontaneous abortions occurring with 3 consecutive pregnancies. This indicates a pattern of recurrent miscarriages, which is known as habitual abortion.

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  • 19. 

    All of the products of conception are expelled

    • Inevitable

    • Complete

    • Threatened

    • Habitual

    • Missed

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete
    Explanation
    The term "complete" refers to a type of miscarriage in which all of the products of conception, including the fetus, placenta, and other tissues, are expelled from the uterus. This means that the miscarriage is not partial or incomplete, and there is no need for any further medical intervention or procedures to remove any remaining tissue.

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  • 20. 

    Which condition's manifestation is always results in a D&C or C section

    • Toxoplasmosis

    • Abruptio placentae

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Placenta previa

    • Gestational trophoblastic disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential complications during childbirth. This can result in heavy bleeding, which may necessitate a D&C (dilation and curettage) or C-section to safely deliver the baby and remove the placenta. Therefore, placenta previa is the condition that always results in a D&C or C-section.

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  • 21. 

    Painless, bright red bleeding

    • Placenta previa

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Preeclampsia

    • Abruptio placentae

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless, bright red bleeding during pregnancy. This occurs because the placenta is located in the lower part of the uterus, causing it to block the opening of the cervix. Placenta previa can be a serious complication and may require medical intervention, such as bed rest or a cesarean section, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 22. 

    Preeclampsia is most often seen in which poor nutritional, primigravidas ages SATA

    • 15

    • 34

    • 18

    • 25

    • 41

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 15
    A. 18
    A. 41
    Explanation
    Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, typically occurring during pregnancy. It is most often seen in women with poor nutritional status, as they may have deficiencies in essential nutrients needed for a healthy pregnancy. Primigravidas, or women who are pregnant for the first time, are also at higher risk for developing preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answers are 15, 18, and 41, as they represent poor nutritional status and primigravidas.

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  • 23. 

    Very painful bleeding

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Placenta previa

    • Abruptio placentae

    • Hydatiform

    • Preeclampsia

    Correct Answer
    A. Abruptio placentae
    Explanation
    Abruptio placentae refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition can cause severe abdominal pain and bleeding, making it a likely explanation for the symptom of "very painful bleeding" mentioned in the question. Ectopic pregnancy, placenta previa, hydatiform mole, and preeclampsia are all potential complications of pregnancy, but they may not necessarily present with the specific symptom described.

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  • 24. 

    The entire placenta separates resulting profuse bleeding...MEDICAL EMERGENCY

    • Marginal

    • Central

    • Complete

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete
    Explanation
    Complete placental separation refers to the detachment of the entire placenta from the uterine wall, leading to profuse bleeding. This is a medical emergency because it can result in severe hemorrhage and endanger the life of the mother.

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  • 25. 

    Edge of the placenta separates and bright red vaginal bleeding occurs

    • Central

    • Complete

    • Marginal

    Correct Answer
    A. Marginal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "marginal". In placenta previa, the edge of the placenta is located near the cervix and partially covers the opening of the uterus. This can cause separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, leading to bright red vaginal bleeding. The bleeding is typically painless and occurs in the later stages of pregnancy. Therefore, the term "marginal" accurately describes the location of the placenta in this condition.

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  • 26. 

    The center of te placenta separates, trapping blood between the placenta and the uterus. there's no vaginal bleeding, but the uterus becomes painful

    • Central

    • Complete

    • Marginal

    Correct Answer
    A. Central
    Explanation
    The term "central" in this context refers to the center of the placenta separating, which leads to the trapping of blood between the placenta and the uterus. This condition does not cause vaginal bleeding, but it does result in pain in the uterus. Therefore, "central" is the correct answer to describe this specific situation.

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  • 27. 

    GDM is best treated with oral medication

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    GDM, which stands for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus, is a form of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy. The most effective treatment for GDM is a combination of healthy eating, regular physical activity, and sometimes insulin therapy. While oral medications can be used to treat diabetes, they are generally not the first-line treatment for GDM. Therefore, the statement that GDM is best treated with oral medication is false.

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  • 28. 

    How often does the nurse do a BS check on a macrosomia fetus until stabilization occurs

    • Q4H

    • Q3H

    • Q1H

    • Q12H

    • Q 30min

    Correct Answer
    A. Q1H
    Explanation
    The nurse checks the blood sugar level of a macrosomia fetus every hour until stabilization occurs. This frequent monitoring is necessary to ensure that the baby's blood sugar remains within a safe range and to prevent any complications associated with high or low blood sugar levels.

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  • 29. 

    What medications are used to treat a infections patient during pregnancySATA

    • Sulfadiazine

    • Glucophage

    • Zovirax

    • Azidothymidine (AZT)

    • Zidovudine (ZDV)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Sulfadiazine
    A. Zovirax
    A. Azidothymidine (AZT)
    A. Zidovudine (ZDV)
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, certain medications may be used to treat infections. Sulfadiazine is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various types of infections. Zovirax is an antiviral medication that is often prescribed to treat viral infections such as herpes. Azidothymidine (AZT) and Zidovudine (ZDV) are both antiretroviral drugs that are used to treat HIV infections. These medications are important in managing infections during pregnancy to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 30. 

    Bleeding and cramping occur with the cervix closed and membranes intact

    • Complete

    • Inevitable

    • Habitual

    • Missed

    • Threatened

    Correct Answer
    A. Threatened
    Explanation
    A threatened abortion (or threatened miscarriage) is characterized by vaginal bleeding and cramping while the cervix remains closed and the fetal membranes are intact. It suggests that a miscarriage might occur, but it is not certain. In a complete abortion, all pregnancy tissues are expelled; in an inevitable abortion, the cervix is open; in a habitual abortion, there are recurrent miscarriages; and in a missed abortion, the fetus has died but the body has not expelled it.

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 06, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Renata9976

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