Fundamentals Of Nursing III- Www.Rnpedia.Com

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Fundamentals Of Nursing III- Www.Rnpedia.Com - Quiz

Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. You got 120 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck! Content Outline 1. Physical response to stress2. Psychological response to stress3. Spiritual response to stress4. Stress management5. Crisis and Crisis intervention6. Communication7. Recording8. Documentation9. Learning


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by

    • A.

      Vasoconstriction

    • B.

      Vasodilatation

    • C.

      Decreases force of contractility

    • D.

      Decreases cardiac output

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasodilatation
    Explanation
    The coronary vessels, which supply blood to the heart muscle, respond to sympathetic stimulation by vasodilatation. This means that when the sympathetic nervous system is activated, the coronary vessels widen or relax, allowing more blood to flow through them. This increased blood flow helps to meet the increased oxygen demand of the heart during times of stress or exercise. Vasodilatation of the coronary vessels ensures that the heart receives an adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly.

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  • 2. 

    What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?

    • A.

      Body will try to decrease the glucose level

    • B.

      There will be a halt in release of sex hormones

    • C.

      Client will appear restless

    • D.

      Blood pressure will increase

    Correct Answer
    D. Blood pressure will increase
    Explanation
    When a patient has a blood sugar level of 50 mg/dl, it indicates hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level. In response to this, the body activates the stress response known as the "fight-or-flight" response. This response triggers the release of stress hormones, such as adrenaline, which can cause an increase in blood pressure. This increase in blood pressure is a result of the body's attempt to restore glucose levels to normal by increasing the delivery of glucose to the brain and other vital organs.

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  • 3. 

    All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

    • A.

      Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis

    • B.

      Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability

    • C.

      Protect the issue from injury by producing pain

    • D.

      Prepare for tissue repair

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
    Explanation
    Inflammation serves several purposes in the body, including localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability, protecting the tissue from injury by producing pain, and preparing for tissue repair. However, increasing heat does not contribute to the abatement of phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a process by which cells engulf and destroy pathogens or debris, and increasing heat would not hinder this process.

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  • 4. 

    The initial response of tissue after injury is

    • A.

      Immediate Vasodilation

    • B.

      Transient Vasoconstriction

    • C.

      Immediate Vasoconstriction

    • D.

      Transient Vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    After tissue injury, the initial response is immediate vasoconstriction. This is a protective mechanism that helps to reduce blood flow to the injured area, preventing excessive bleeding and the spread of toxins. Vasoconstriction also helps to limit tissue damage and inflammation. This response is followed by vasodilation, which increases blood flow to the injured area, facilitating the delivery of oxygen and nutrients for tissue repair. However, the immediate vasoconstriction is the first response that occurs after tissue injury.

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  • 5. 

    The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

    • A.

      There will be sudden redness of the affected part

    • B.

      Heat will increase on the affected part

    • C.

      The affected part will loss its normal function

    • D.

      Exudates will flow from the injured site

    Correct Answer
    C. The affected part will loss its normal function
    Explanation
    The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is the loss of normal function in the affected part. This occurs as a result of the inflammation process, which includes the release of inflammatory mediators and the recruitment of immune cells to the site of injury or infection. The loss of normal function can be due to pain, swelling, or impaired movement in the affected area.

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  • 6. 

    What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?  

    • A.

      Serous

    • B.

      Serosanguinous

    • C.

      Purulent

    • D.

      Sanguinous

    Correct Answer
    C. Purulent
    Explanation
    When there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of a microorganism infection, purulent exudates are expected. Purulent exudates are characterized by a thick, yellowish fluid containing dead white blood cells, microorganisms, and tissue debris. This type of exudate is commonly seen in bacterial infections and indicates the presence of pus.

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  • 7. 

    The first manifestation of inflammation is

    • A.

      Redness on the affected area

    • B.

      Swelling of the affected area

    • C.

      Pain, which causes guarding of the area

    • D.

      Increase heat due to transient vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Redness on the affected area
    Explanation
    The first manifestation of inflammation is redness on the affected area. This occurs due to increased blood flow to the area, known as vasodilation. When tissues are inflamed, the blood vessels in the area widen, allowing more blood to flow to the site. This increased blood flow causes the area to appear red. Redness is a common sign of inflammation and is often accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, pain, and heat.

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  • 8. 

     The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that can differentiate into macrophages, which are specialized cells that engulf and digest cellular debris, pathogens, and other foreign substances. In chronic tissue injury, the immune response involves the recruitment of monocytes to the site of injury, where they can phagocytize and remove damaged tissue and pathogens, promoting the healing process. Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are also types of white blood cells, but they have different functions and are not primarily involved in phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophil

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Eosinophil
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that is involved in the immune response against parasitic infections and allergic reactions. In cases of anaphylaxis, which is a severe allergic reaction, there is a release of histamine and other chemicals that trigger an immune response. Eosinophils are known to increase in number during allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, as they play a role in combating the allergic response. Therefore, eosinophils proliferate in cases of anaphylaxis.

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  • 10. 

    Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are the first to arrive at the site of infection or injury. They play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and destroying bacteria and other pathogens. In the case of an injury, neutrophils are recruited to the site to help remove debris and initiate the healing process. They release enzymes and chemicals that promote inflammation and attract other immune cells to the site.

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  • 11. 

    Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:

    • A.

      Phagocytosis

    • B.

      Emigration

    • C.

      Pavementation

    • D.

      Chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    C. Pavementation
    Explanation
    Pavementation is the correct answer because it is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury. During pavementation, the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels become sticky and adhere to leukocytes, which helps to slow down their movement and allows them to migrate out of the blood vessels and into the injured tissue. This process is crucial for the recruitment of immune cells to the site of injury and the initiation of the inflammatory response.

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  • 12. 

      Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?

    • A.

      Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questions

    • B.

      It is Diapedesis

    • C.

      We call that Emigration

    • D.

      I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later

    Correct Answer
    D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later
  • 13. 

    This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound

    • A.

      First intention

    • B.

      Second intention

    • C.

      Third intention

    • D.

      Fourth intention

    Correct Answer
    C. Third intention
    Explanation
    Third intention healing, also known as delayed primary closure, occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of an infected wound. In this type of healing, the wound is initially left open to allow for drainage and removal of infected material. Once the infection has been controlled, the wound is then surgically closed. This method is typically used when the wound is contaminated or infected and cannot be immediately closed without an increased risk of complications. It allows for the wound to heal from the inside out, reducing the risk of infection and promoting better healing.

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  • 14. 

    Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing

    • A.

      First intention

    • B.

      Second intention

    • C.

      Third intention

    • D.

      Fourth intention

    Correct Answer
    A. First intention
    Explanation
    First intention healing refers to a type of healing where the surgical incision is carefully made and closed with minimal tissue damage. This allows for a faster and more efficient healing process, resulting in minimal scarring. It involves the precise alignment and closure of the wound edges, promoting primary union and reducing the risk of infection. This method is commonly used in surgeries where the wound is clean, well-approximated, and can be easily closed with sutures or staples.

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  • 15. 

      Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is

    • A.

      First intention

    • B.

      Second intention

    • C.

      Third intention

    • D.

      Fourth intention

    Correct Answer
    B. Second intention
    Explanation
    Second intention healing, also known as secondary intention healing, occurs when a wound is left open to heal naturally without surgical closure. In this case, since Miss Imelda suffered massive tissue loss and laceration, it is likely that her wounds will heal through second intention. This type of healing involves the formation of granulation tissue, contraction of the wound edges, and reepithelialization, resulting in the gradual closure of the wound over time.

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  • 16. 

      Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is

    • A.

      Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    • B.

      High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    • C.

      High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    • D.

      Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    Correct Answer
    B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
    Explanation
    During the recovery stage, it is important for the body to have an adequate intake of nutrients to support healing and regain strength. High protein is necessary for tissue repair and muscle rebuilding, while high calorie intake provides the necessary energy for the body to heal. Vitamin A and C are essential for immune function and tissue healing. Therefore, a diet that is high in protein, high in calories, and rich in Vitamin A and C is the most suitable for Imelda's recovery stage.

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  • 17. 

    Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is

    • A.

      It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues

    • B.

      It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissues

    • C.

      It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contamination

    • D.

      It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues
  • 18. 

    The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

    • A.

      Release of pain mediators

    • B.

      Injury to the nerve endings

    • C.

      Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids

    • D.

      Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient

    Correct Answer
    C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
    Explanation
    Inflammation can cause pain due to the compression of local nerve endings by the edema fluids. Edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the affected area, which can lead to swelling and increased pressure on the surrounding tissues, including the nerve endings. This compression stimulates the nerves and triggers pain signals to be sent to the brain, resulting in the sensation of pain.

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  • 19. 

     The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client? 1. Constipation 2. Urinary frequency 3. Hyperglycemia 4. Increased blood pressure

    • A.

      3,4

    • B.

      1,3,4

    • C.

      1,2,4

    • D.

      1,4

    Correct Answer
    B. 1,3,4
    Explanation
    The effects of the sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client include constipation, hyperglycemia, and increased blood pressure.

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  • 20. 

    The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?

    • A.

      Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M

    • B.

      Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M

    • C.

      Brush his teeth the morning before operation

    • D.

      Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M

    Correct Answer
    D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
  • 21. 

    The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?

    • A.

      Low BP

    • B.

      Decrease Urine output

    • C.

      Warm, flushed, dry skin

    • D.

      Low serum sodium levels

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease Urine output
    Explanation
    The activation of the adreno-cortical response typically leads to a decrease in urine output. This is because the release of hormones such as aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) during the adreno-cortical response promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys, resulting in a decrease in urine production.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

    • A.

      Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally

    • B.

      Bases on friendship and mutual trust

    • C.

      Goals are set by the solely nurse

    • D.

      Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
    Explanation
    A therapeutic relationship is directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally. This means that the focus of the relationship is to provide support and assistance in improving the person's overall well-being, addressing both their physical and emotional needs. The nurse plays a crucial role in facilitating this process by providing care, empathy, and understanding. The therapeutic relationship is not based on friendship and mutual trust, as it is a professional relationship. The goals are not set solely by the nurse, but rather collaboratively with the client. Additionally, the therapeutic relationship may not be maintained after the client no longer needs the nurse's help, as it is a temporary relationship based on the client's healthcare needs.

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  • 23. 

    According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification, Exploitation and Resolution

    • A.

      Roy

    • B.

      Peplau

    • C.

      Rogers

    • D.

      Travelbee

    Correct Answer
    B. Peplau
    Explanation
    Peplau is the correct answer because she is known for her theory of interpersonal relations in nursing. According to Peplau, the nurse-patient relationship goes through four stages: Orientation, where the nurse and patient establish trust and rapport; Identification, where the patient begins to rely on the nurse for support and guidance; Exploitation, where the patient takes full advantage of the nurse's expertise; and Resolution, where the patient becomes more independent and the relationship comes to an end. Peplau's theory emphasizes the importance of the therapeutic relationship between nurse and patient in promoting healing and growth.

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  • 24. 

    In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?

    • A.

      Pre Orientation

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Termination

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre Orientation
    Explanation
    In the pre-orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship, the nurse reviews the client's medical records to gather as much information as possible about the client. This phase occurs before the nurse and client meet face-to-face and allows the nurse to gain a comprehensive understanding of the client's medical history, current conditions, and any specific needs or concerns. By reviewing the medical records, the nurse can effectively prepare for the initial meeting and provide appropriate care and support to the client.

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  • 25. 

    Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?

    • A.

      Pre Orientation

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Termination

    Correct Answer
    B. Orientation
    Explanation
    Nurse Aida and Roger belong to the orientation phase of the Nursing Process (NPR). This phase involves the initial meeting between the nurse and the patient, where they establish a contract about the frequency of meetings and introduce the expected termination. Nurse Aida also starts taking baseline assessments and sets interventions and outcomes during this phase.

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  • 26. 

    Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?

    • A.

      Pre Orientation

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Termination

    Correct Answer
    C. Working
    Explanation
    The situation described indicates that Roger is exhibiting aggressive and inappropriate behavior towards Nurse Aida. Nurse Aida's response of reprimanding Roger and instructing him to go to his room suggests that they are currently in the working phase of the Nurse-Patient Relationship (NPR). In this phase, the nurse and patient work together to achieve mutually agreed-upon goals and address any issues or challenges that arise during the therapeutic process.

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  • 27. 

    Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?

    • A.

      Empathy

    • B.

      Positive regard

    • C.

      Comfortable sense of self

    • D.

      Self awareness

    Correct Answer
    B. Positive regard
    Explanation
    Nurse Aida's belief that Roger is worthwhile simply because he is a human being demonstrates her positive regard for him. Positive regard is a major ingredient in therapeutic communication, as it involves showing respect, acceptance, and non-judgment towards the patient. Despite the incident that may have occurred, Nurse Aida's positive regard allows her to maintain a compassionate and non-discriminatory approach towards Roger, which can enhance the therapeutic relationship and promote effective communication.

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  • 28. 

    Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?

    • A.

      Empathy

    • B.

      Positive regard

    • C.

      Comfortable sense of self

    • D.

      Self awareness

    Correct Answer
    B. Positive regard
    Explanation
    Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking positive regard. Positive regard refers to the ability to maintain a non-judgmental and accepting attitude towards others, regardless of their mental health condition. Nurse Irma's statement demonstrates a lack of empathy and understanding towards the patient, which goes against the principle of positive regard. By intervening and correcting Nurse Irma, Nurse Aida can promote a more compassionate and respectful approach towards the patient.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

    • A.

      It is a nervous energy

    • B.

      It is an essential aspect of existence

    • C.

      It has been always a part of human experience

    • D.

      It is something each person has to cope

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a nervous energy
    Explanation
    The statement "It is a nervous energy" is not true about stress. Stress is not a form of nervous energy, but rather a psychological and physiological response to a perceived threat or challenge. It is a natural reaction that triggers the release of stress hormones, such as cortisol, and can have both positive and negative effects on an individual's well-being.

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  • 30. 

    Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event. She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?

    • A.

      Martina is just stressed out

    • B.

      Martina is Anxious

    • C.

      Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS

    • D.

      Martina is in Crisis

    Correct Answer
    D. Martina is in Crisis
    Explanation
    Martina's devastated state, constant crying, and being outpaced by new competitors indicate that she is facing a significant and overwhelming challenge. This suggests that she is in a crisis situation, where she is experiencing extreme distress and difficulty in coping with the situation.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?

    • A.

      It has physiologic component

    • B.

      It has psychologic component

    • C.

      The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entity

    • D.

      The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity

    Correct Answer
    D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity
    Explanation
    Anxiety is a psychological condition that is characterized by feelings of fear, unease, and worry. It is often accompanied by physical symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. The statement "The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity" is not true with regards to anxiety. In many cases, individuals with anxiety may experience feelings of dread or uneasiness without being able to identify a specific cause or trigger. This can make it difficult to address and manage their anxiety effectively.

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  • 32. 

    Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?

    • A.

      Mild

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      Severe

    • D.

      Panic

    Correct Answer
    D. Panic
    Explanation
    The features described in the question, such as disorganized and unintelligible speech, indicate a high level of anxiety. Panic is characterized by extreme and overwhelming feelings of fear and anxiety, which can lead to physical and cognitive symptoms such as difficulty speaking coherently. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is Panic.

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  • 33. 

    Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?

    • A.

      Mild

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      Severe

    • D.

      Panic

    Correct Answer
    B. Moderate
    Explanation
    Elton is exemplifying a moderate anxiety level. This is indicated by his physical symptoms of sweating profusely and his decreased awareness of his environment. Additionally, his selective attentiveness, where he is purely focused on the exam questions, suggests a moderate level of anxiety. This level of anxiety falls between mild and severe, indicating that Elton is experiencing a moderate amount of stress and anxiety during the board examination.

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  • 34. 

    You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?

    • A.

      An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increased

    • B.

      Dilated pupils

    • C.

      Unable to communicate

    • D.

      Palliative Coping Mechanism

    Correct Answer
    B. Dilated pupils
    Explanation
    In patients with anxiety, it is common to observe dilated pupils. This physiological response occurs due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When a person is anxious, their body releases stress hormones, such as adrenaline, which can cause the pupils to dilate. This allows more light to enter the eyes, enhancing visual perception and alertness. Therefore, dilated pupils are an expected physical manifestation in a client with anxiety.

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  • 35. 

    When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?

    • A.

      When anxiety is +1

    • B.

      When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness

    • C.

      When problem solving is not possible

    • D.

      When the client is immobile and disorganized

    Correct Answer
    B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
    Explanation
    The nurse should start giving XANAX when the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness. This indicates that the client is experiencing symptoms of anxiety that are interfering with their ability to focus and process information. XANAX is a medication commonly used to treat anxiety and can help alleviate these symptoms, allowing the client to regain their ability to attend to their surroundings and engage in problem-solving.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?

    • A.

      Frequent hand movement

    • B.

      Somatization

    • C.

      The client asks a question

    • D.

      The client is acting out

    Correct Answer
    C. The client asks a question
    Explanation
    Asking a question is not a sign or symptom of anxiety. Anxiety is typically characterized by excessive worrying, restlessness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, and physical symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. While anxiety can sometimes cause individuals to hesitate or feel uncertain, it does not directly manifest as asking questions.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?  

    • A.

      Offer choices

    • B.

      Provide a quiet and calm environment

    • C.

      Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipments

    • D.

      Bring anxiety down to a controllable level

    Correct Answer
    A. Offer choices
    Explanation
    Offering choices may not be an appropriate intervention for clients with anxiety because having too many options can increase their feelings of uncertainty and overwhelm. Anxiety often stems from a fear of making the wrong decision, so offering choices may amplify this fear. It is better to provide a calm and supportive environment, offer clear explanations, and help the client reduce their anxiety to a manageable level.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?

    • A.

      “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”

    • B.

      “It must be awful to feel anxious.”

    • C.

      “How does it feel to be anxious?”

    • D.

      “What makes you feel anxious?”

    Correct Answer
    D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
    Explanation
    The statement "What makes you feel anxious?" is considered not therapeutic because it can be seen as intrusive and judgmental. It puts the responsibility on the patient to identify and justify the reasons behind their anxiety, which may make them feel defensive or uncomfortable. It is important for the nurse to create a safe and non-judgmental environment, allowing the patient to express their feelings without feeling pressured to provide explanations.

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  • 39. 

    Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?

    • A.

      Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing them

    • B.

      Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation

    • C.

      Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired change

    • D.

      Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity

    Correct Answer
    B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation
    Explanation
    Benson's relaxation technique involves concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscles. This is followed by letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation. This technique aims to promote relaxation and mental alacrity. By focusing on the breath and releasing tension in the muscles, individuals can achieve a state of calm and reduce stress. The repetition of a word or sound can further enhance the relaxation response.

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  • 40. 

    What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?

    • A.

      Biofeedback

    • B.

      Massage

    • C.

      Autogenic training

    • D.

      Visualization and Imagery

    Correct Answer
    A. Biofeedback
    Explanation
    Lyza uses biofeedback as a relaxation technique. Biofeedback involves using electronic sensors to monitor and provide feedback on physiological functions such as pulse rate, temperature, and muscle tension. By visualizing and assessing this feedback, individuals like Lyza can learn to control and regulate these bodily functions, leading to relaxation and stress reduction. Massage, autogenic training, and visualization and imagery are other relaxation techniques, but they do not involve the use of electronic sensors for feedback like biofeedback does.

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  • 41. 

    This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

    • A.

      Biofeedback

    • B.

      Meditation

    • C.

      Autogenic training

    • D.

      Visualization and Imagery

    Correct Answer
    C. Autogenic training
    Explanation
    Autogenic training refers to a relaxation technique that involves self-suggestion and self-hypnosis. It focuses on achieving a state of deep relaxation by repeating a series of specific phrases or visualizations that promote relaxation and reduce stress. This technique allows individuals to tap into their own innate ability to influence their physical and mental state, leading to improved well-being and self-regulation. Therefore, autogenic training aligns with the given description of being known as self-suggestion or self-hypnosis.

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  • 42. 

    Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

    • A.

      Valium

    • B.

      Ativan

    • C.

      Milltown

    • D.

      Luvox

    Correct Answer
    D. Luvox
    Explanation
    Luvox is not an anxiolytic because it is primarily used as an antidepressant and is classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Anxiolytics are drugs that are specifically designed to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, whereas Luvox is primarily used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and other mood disorders. Valium, Ativan, and Milltown, on the other hand, are all benzodiazepines which are commonly prescribed as anxiolytics due to their sedative and calming effects.

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  • 43. 

    Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing? 1. Spiritual Pain 2. Spiritual Anxiety 3. Spiritual Guilt 4. Spiritual Despair

    • A.

      1,2

    • B.

      2,3

    • C.

      3,4

    • D.

      1,4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,3
    Explanation
    Kenneth is experiencing both spiritual anxiety and spiritual guilt. He feels that he has not met God's expectations and fears punishment from God due to his illness, which indicates spiritual guilt. Additionally, his fear of God not being supportive during his illness demonstrates spiritual anxiety.

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  • 44. 

    Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?

    • A.

      Spiritual Pan

    • B.

      Spiritual Alienation

    • C.

      Spiritual Guilt

    • D.

      Spiritual Despair

    Correct Answer
    B. Spiritual Alienation
    Explanation
    Grace is experiencing spiritual alienation. This is evident from the fact that she believes her relationship with God is broken and she is trying to go to church every day to ask for forgiveness in order to remedy her feelings. Spiritual alienation refers to a sense of separation or disconnection from one's spiritual beliefs or higher power.

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  • 45. 

    Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?

    • A.

      Spiritual Anger

    • B.

      Spiritual Loss

    • C.

      Spiritual Despair

    • D.

      Spiritual Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    B. Spiritual Loss
    Explanation
    Remedios feeling "EMPTY" and believing that she has lost God's favor and love due to her sins indicates a sense of emptiness and lack in her spiritual life. This suggests that she is experiencing a spiritual loss, where she feels disconnected from her spiritual beliefs and experiences a void or absence of spiritual fulfillment.

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  • 46. 

    Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?

    • A.

      Offering general leads

    • B.

      Seeking clarification

    • C.

      Making observation

    • D.

      Encouraging description of perception

    Correct Answer
    C. Making observation
    Explanation
    Budek used the therapeutic technique of making observation. By stating "You appear restless," Budek is acknowledging and verbalizing the client's behavior and feelings. This technique helps to validate the client's experience and create a safe space for further exploration and understanding.

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  • 47. 

    Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    B. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the correct answer because Budek restated Rommel's statement to ensure understanding. Restating is a therapeutic communication technique where the listener repeats or paraphrases the client's words to confirm understanding and encourage further conversation. In this example, Budek restated Rommel's statement by asking "You see dead people?" This technique helps to clarify and validate the client's feelings and experiences.

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  • 48. 

    Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflecting
    Explanation
    Budek's response of "Do you think your crazy?" is an example of reflecting in therapeutic communication. Reflecting involves repeating or rephrasing the client's statement to show understanding and encourage further exploration of their thoughts and feelings. In this case, Budek reflects Rommel's question back to him, allowing Rommel to reflect on his own thoughts and feelings about his mental state.

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  • 49. 

    Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    B. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the therapeutic technique used in this situation. Restating involves repeating the client's words back to them in order to confirm understanding and to encourage further exploration of their thoughts and feelings. In this case, Nurse Budek restated Myra's statement about thinking a lot about her ex-boyfriend, which allows Myra to reflect on the connection between her thoughts and her difficulty sleeping.

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  • 50. 

    Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    B. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the correct answer because Budek is repeating Myra's statement back to her in order to clarify and confirm his understanding of what she said. Restating is a therapeutic communication technique that helps the speaker feel heard and understood, and it also allows the listener to check for accuracy and ensure effective communication.

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