Fpsi Practice Trivia Questions
It is the fluid power safety quiz, Let's start and play this quiz!
- 1.
What percentage of firefighting workers are employed by municipal or county fire departments?
- A.
60%
- B.
70%
- C.
80%
- D.
90%
- E.
NONE OF THE ABOVE
Correct Answer
D. 90%Explanation
The correct answer is 90%. This suggests that the majority of firefighting workers are employed by municipal or county fire departments. This could be due to the fact that these departments are typically responsible for providing fire protection services to their respective communities. It is also possible that these departments have larger budgets and resources compared to other types of firefighting organizations, making them more likely to employ a higher number of firefighters.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Some local and regional fire departments consolidate into public safety organizations in order to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
To reduce administrative staff
- B.
To lower certification requirements
- C.
To cut costs
- D.
To establish consistent training standards
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. To lower certification requirementsExplanation
Consolidating local and regional fire departments into public safety organizations can have several benefits, such as reducing administrative staff, cutting costs, and establishing consistent training standards. However, it is unlikely that one of the main reasons for consolidation would be to lower certification requirements. In fact, consolidating fire departments may even lead to higher certification requirements as the organization aims to ensure a higher level of professionalism and expertise among its members. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower certification requirements.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In many fire departments, a(n) _____ degree is required for State chief officer certification.
- A.
Associate's
- B.
Bachelor's
- C.
Master's
- D.
Doctoral
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Master'sExplanation
In many fire departments, a master's degree is required for State chief officer certification. This indicates that individuals aspiring to become State chief officers in fire departments must have completed a master's degree in order to meet the certification requirements.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In a 2002 analysis, hourly earnings for firefighters in the highest 10% was closest to _____ per hour.
- A.
$22.00
- B.
$25.00
- C.
$28.00
- D.
$32.00
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. $28.00Explanation
In a 2002 analysis, the hourly earnings for firefighters in the highest 10% were closest to $28.00 per hour.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In a 2002 analysis, the closest salary range for a Fire Captain position ranged from _____.
- A.
$65,000 to $55,000
- B.
$62,000 to $55,000
- C.
$55,000 to $52,000
- D.
$55,000 to $45,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. $55,000 to $45,000 -
- 6.
Evidence suggests that atherosclerosis begins in the _____ for many people in developed countries of the Western world.
- A.
Early 20's
- B.
Late 20's
- C.
Early 30's
- D.
Late 30's
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Early 20'sExplanation
Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to narrowing and hardening of the blood vessels. Evidence suggests that this process starts in the early 20's for many individuals in developed countries of the Western world. This means that the development of atherosclerosis begins at a relatively young age, highlighting the importance of adopting healthy lifestyle habits early on to prevent or delay the progression of this condition.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In a 2002 analysis, the closest salary range for a Fire Chief position ranged from _____.
- A.
$100,000 to $90,000
- B.
$90,000 to $80,000
- C.
$80,000 to $60,000
- D.
$70,000 to $50,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. $80,000 to $60,000 -
- 8.
Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease?
- A.
Females are more likely to suffer CVD at a younger age than males.
- B.
Being over 40 is considered a risk factor for males
- C.
Being over 45 is a risk factor for females.
- D.
Being over 55 is a risk factor for females.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Being over 55 is a risk factor for females.Explanation
The given statement is true because being over 55 is considered a risk factor for females in relation to cardiovascular disease. This means that females who are over the age of 55 are more likely to develop cardiovascular disease compared to females who are younger. This age factor is specific to females and not applicable to males.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Young men who are in the upper quartile (highest 25%) for cholesterol compared to men in the lowest quartile (lowest 25%) are _____ times more likely to have a heart attack.
- A.
6
- B.
9
- C.
12
- D.
15
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 9Explanation
Young men who are in the upper quartile for cholesterol compared to men in the lowest quartile are 9 times more likely to have a heart attack. This means that the risk of having a heart attack is 9 times higher for young men with high cholesterol compared to those with low cholesterol levels.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Risk factors associated with the term METABOLIC SYNDROME X include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Abdominal obesity
- B.
Hypertension
- C.
Physical inactivity
- D.
Inability to effectively use glucose
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Physical inactivityExplanation
Physical inactivity is not a risk factor associated with metabolic syndrome X. Metabolic syndrome X is characterized by a cluster of conditions, including abdominal obesity, hypertension, and inability to effectively use glucose. Physical inactivity, although it can contribute to the development of other health issues, is not specifically linked to metabolic syndrome X.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The air chisel is commonly used _____.
- A.
To remove an automobile roof or roll up door
- B.
To open a large section of the roof or roll up door
- C.
To cut through sheathing and flooring
- D.
to remove steering wheels and columns from vehicles
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. To remove an automobile roof or roll up doorExplanation
The air chisel is commonly used to remove an automobile roof or roll up door. This tool is designed to provide high impact force, making it effective in breaking apart and removing these large and heavy components. It is not typically used for opening a large section of the roof or roll up door, cutting through sheathing and flooring, or removing steering wheels and columns from vehicles.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The actual force exerted at the tip of the Hurst tool is approximately _____ pounds p.s.i. push and _____ pounds p.s.i. pull.
- A.
5,000, 10,000
- B.
10,000, 20,000
- C.
20,000, 30,000
- D.
30,000, 40,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 10,000, 20,000Explanation
The correct answer is 10,000 pounds p.s.i. push and 20,000 pounds p.s.i. pull. This means that when the Hurst tool is being pushed, it exerts a force of approximately 10,000 pounds per square inch, and when it is being pulled, it exerts a force of approximately 20,000 pounds per square inch.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A _____ is a fire tool which features all metal construction.
- A.
Pry-axe
- B.
Pike pole
- C.
Pick-head axe
- D.
Rake axe
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Pry-axeExplanation
A pry-axe is a fire tool that is made entirely of metal. It is used for prying and chopping, making it a versatile tool for firefighters. The other options listed, such as pike pole, pick-head axe, and rake axe, may also be fire tools, but they may not necessarily have all metal construction. Therefore, the correct answer is pry-axe.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Wood, paper, and fabric should be extinguished by a _____ portable fire extinguisher.
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Class AExplanation
Wood, paper, and fabric are all common combustible materials. Class A fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as these. Class B extinguishers are used for flammable liquids, Class C extinguishers are used for electrical fires, and Class D extinguishers are used for combustible metals. Since none of these materials are mentioned in the question, the correct answer is Class A.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Class C extinguisher is marked by a _____.
- A.
Green triangle
- B.
Red square
- C.
Blue circle
- D.
Yellow star
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Blue circleExplanation
The Class C extinguisher is marked by a blue circle. This marking system is used to identify the type of fire that the extinguisher is suitable for. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, or circuit breakers. The blue circle marking helps users quickly identify the appropriate extinguisher to use in these situations, ensuring the safety of individuals and minimizing the risk of electrical shock or further damage.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Maintenance of the carbon dioxide extinguisher consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Annual certification of contents
- B.
Weighing the cylinder
- C.
Checking the ability of the unit to function
- D.
Annual hydrostatic testing
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Annual hydrostatic testingExplanation
The maintenance of a carbon dioxide extinguisher includes various tasks such as annual certification of contents, weighing the cylinder, and checking the ability of the unit to function. However, it does not involve annual hydrostatic testing. This testing is typically done on other types of fire extinguishers to ensure the integrity of the cylinder, but it is not necessary for carbon dioxide extinguishers. Therefore, the correct answer is annual hydrostatic testing.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The pike pole is invaluable in reaching fires to aid in extinguishment in which one of the following areas?
- A.
High roof line
- B.
Attic and crawl spaces
- C.
Small closets
- D.
Inside automobiles
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Attic and crawl spacesExplanation
The pike pole is a useful tool for firefighters to reach fires in high and hard-to-reach areas. Attic and crawl spaces are often tight and confined spaces, making it difficult for firefighters to access and extinguish fires. The pike pole's long handle allows firefighters to reach into these areas and break through walls or ceilings to access the fire and apply water or other extinguishing agents. This makes it an invaluable tool in extinguishing fires in attic and crawl spaces.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which type of knot has a remaining strength of 90%?
- A.
The splice knot
- B.
The clove hitch knot
- C.
The square knot
- D.
The bowline knot
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The splice knotExplanation
The splice knot has a remaining strength of 90%. This type of knot is known for its ability to maintain a high percentage of its original strength even after being tied. Unlike other knots that may weaken over time or under pressure, the splice knot is designed to withstand heavy loads and maintain its integrity. This makes it a reliable choice for various applications where strength is crucial, such as in sailing or rock climbing.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The knot that allows for the tying of two ropes of equal or unequal sizes together is called the _____ knot.
- A.
Becket bend
- B.
Lark's foot
- C.
Clove hitch
- D.
Timber hitch
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Becket bendExplanation
The correct answer is becket bend. The becket bend is a knot that is used to tie two ropes of equal or unequal sizes together. It is a secure and reliable knot that can be easily untied when needed. The other options, lark's foot, clove hitch, and timber hitch, are all different types of knots but they are not specifically used for tying two ropes together. Therefore, the becket bend is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 20.
All of the following are examples of chemical weapons EXCEPT:
- A.
Mace
- B.
BZ
- C.
Cyanide
- D.
Anthrax
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. AnthraxExplanation
Anthrax is not considered a chemical weapon because it is caused by a bacterium called Bacillus anthracis, rather than a chemical compound. Chemical weapons typically involve the use of toxic chemicals or chemical agents to harm or kill people. Mace, BZ, and cyanide are all examples of chemical weapons, as they are chemical compounds that can be used to incapacitate or cause harm to individuals.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Most electronic equipment within _____ miles of a high-altitude nuclear detonation could be affected following an electromagnetic pulse.
- A.
300
- B.
500
- C.
750
- D.
1,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 1,000Explanation
Most electronic equipment within 1,000 miles of a high-altitude nuclear detonation could be affected following an electromagnetic pulse. An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) is a burst of electromagnetic radiation that can disrupt or damage electronic devices. The range of the impact depends on the altitude and yield of the nuclear detonation. A high-altitude detonation can produce a larger EMP that can affect a wider area. Therefore, it is likely that electronic equipment within 1,000 miles of the detonation would be affected by the EMP.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Fallout shelter signs are colored _____.
- A.
Yellow and black
- B.
Red and black
- C.
Red and yellow
- D.
Green and yellow
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Yellow and blackExplanation
Fallout shelter signs are colored yellow and black. This color combination is widely recognized as the standard colors for indicating a fallout shelter. The use of yellow and black provides high visibility and easily catches people's attention, ensuring that the sign can be easily identified even in low light or emergency situations. The contrasting colors also help to convey a sense of caution and urgency, emphasizing the importance of seeking shelter in case of a nuclear fallout.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The U.S. government has identified ______ threat conditions.
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 5Explanation
The U.S. government has identified five threat conditions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The last naturally occurring case of smallpox in the world was in _____.
- A.
1949
- B.
1956
- C.
1977
- D.
1981
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 1977Explanation
In 1977, the last naturally occurring case of smallpox was reported. This means that after this date, there were no more cases of smallpox caused by natural transmission. This is a significant milestone in the history of medicine as it marked the successful eradication of smallpox through vaccination campaigns. The World Health Organization declared smallpox eradicated in 1980, making it the first disease to be eradicated by human effort.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The smallpox vaccine is expected to be made available to the general public during which phase?
- A.
Phase I
- B.
Phase II
- C.
Phase III
- D.
Phase IV
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Phase IIIExplanation
During Phase III of clinical trials, the smallpox vaccine is expected to be made available to the general public. This phase involves large-scale testing on thousands of individuals to evaluate the vaccine's safety and effectiveness. It is the final phase before seeking approval from regulatory authorities to distribute the vaccine to the general population. Therefore, Phase III is the most appropriate phase for making the vaccine available to the public.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following conditions, following the smallpox vaccination, is considered to be life-threatening?
- A.
A vaccinia rash
- B.
Progressive vaccinia
- C.
Widespread vaccinia
- D.
Erythema multiforme
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Progressive vacciniaExplanation
Progressive vaccinia is considered to be life-threatening following the smallpox vaccination. Progressive vaccinia is a rare complication where the vaccinia virus spreads beyond the vaccination site and causes extensive tissue damage. It can lead to severe systemic infection, organ failure, and death if not treated promptly. This condition requires immediate medical intervention and is considered a serious complication of smallpox vaccination.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is NOT a typical mild reaction to the smallpox vaccine?
- A.
Enlarged glands in the armpits
- B.
A low-grade fever
- C.
A vaccinia rash
- D.
A red sore on the arm at the site of vaccination
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. A vaccinia rashExplanation
A vaccinia rash is a typical mild reaction to the smallpox vaccine. It is characterized by a rash at the site of vaccination, which is a common response to the vaccine. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" because all the other options are typical mild reactions to the smallpox vaccine.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Alveoli serve the function of _____.
- A.
Breaking down sugar in the bloodstream
- B.
Slowing down the heart rate
- C.
Transferring oxygen from air to the blood
- D.
Keeping the lungs free of smoke
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Transferring oxygen from air to the bloodExplanation
The alveoli are tiny air sacs located in the lungs. Their main function is to facilitate the exchange of gases between the air and the bloodstream. When we breathe in, oxygen enters the alveoli and diffuses into the surrounding capillaries, where it binds to red blood cells and is transported throughout the body. At the same time, carbon dioxide, a waste product, is released from the blood into the alveoli and then exhaled. Therefore, the alveoli play a crucial role in transferring oxygen from the air we breathe to the blood, making this the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Diabetes Mellitus is an inherited disease caused by _____.
- A.
Too much sugar in the bloodstream
- B.
The inability of the pancreas to create insulin
- C.
Over-consumption of carbohydrate products
- D.
Under-stimulation of the liver and spleen
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. The inability of the pancreas to create insulinExplanation
Diabetes Mellitus is an inherited disease caused by the inability of the pancreas to create insulin. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates the amount of sugar in the bloodstream. In diabetes, the pancreas either produces little to no insulin, or the body is unable to effectively use the insulin that is produced. This leads to high levels of sugar in the bloodstream, which can result in various health complications. Too much sugar in the bloodstream, over-consumption of carbohydrate products, and under-stimulation of the liver and spleen are not the direct causes of diabetes mellitus.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The severity of a stroke is most dependent upon _____.
- A.
The portion and amount of brain damage
- B.
The damage done to the respiratory system
- C.
The level of cholesterol in the blood
- D.
The amount of damage to the heart
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The portion and amount of brain damageExplanation
The severity of a stroke is most dependent upon the portion and amount of brain damage. This is because a stroke occurs when there is a disruption of blood flow to the brain, leading to oxygen deprivation and subsequent brain cell death. The extent of brain damage directly affects the severity of the stroke and the resulting physical and cognitive impairments. The damage done to the respiratory system, the level of cholesterol in the blood, and the amount of damage to the heart may contribute to overall health but do not directly determine the severity of a stroke.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A rescuer's first priority when dealing with an overdose of central nervous system depressants (e.g., heroin, methadone, etc.) should be to _____.
- A.
Protect himself/herself from patient outbursts
- B.
Pay constant attention to patient heart rate
- C.
Maintain an adequate level of respiration
- D.
Administer counteractive medication
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Maintain an adequate level of respirationExplanation
The correct answer is to maintain an adequate level of respiration. When dealing with an overdose of central nervous system depressants, the person's breathing may become dangerously slow or even stop. Therefore, the rescuer's first priority should be to ensure that the person is breathing properly and to provide any necessary assistance to maintain a sufficient level of respiration. This is crucial for the person's survival and to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which one of the following statements describes an aneurysm?
- A.
An accumulation of fluid in the lungs
- B.
Pain of a squeezing nature in the center of the chest
- C.
A protrusion in the wall of a blood vessel
- D.
A heart beat with irregular rhythm
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. A protrusion in the wall of a blood vesselExplanation
An aneurysm is a condition characterized by a protrusion or bulge in the wall of a blood vessel. This can occur in any blood vessel in the body, but is most commonly seen in the arteries that supply blood to the brain, aorta, or the arteries in the legs. It is caused by weakening of the blood vessel wall, which can be due to factors such as high blood pressure, atherosclerosis, or genetic predisposition. If left untreated, an aneurysm can rupture, leading to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, early detection and appropriate management are crucial in preventing complications associated with an aneurysm.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A drug overdose patient showing signs of sleepiness or sluggishness should be attended to by _____.
- A.
Constant stimulation
- B.
Administering CPR
- C.
Letting him/her relax but not sleep
- D.
First checking for dilation of the pupils
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Constant stimulationExplanation
When a drug overdose patient is showing signs of sleepiness or sluggishness, constant stimulation is necessary. This means that the patient should be kept awake and engaged to prevent them from falling into a deep sleep or losing consciousness. This can be done by talking to the patient, gently shaking them, or using other methods to keep them alert and responsive. Administering CPR is not necessary unless the patient stops breathing or their heart stops. Checking for dilation of the pupils may be important in assessing the severity of the overdose, but constant stimulation is the immediate priority.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The average breathing rate is _____.
- A.
7-11 breaths per min.
- B.
12-20 breaths per min
- C.
21-30 breaths per min.
- D.
Over 30 breaths per minute
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 12-20 breaths per minExplanation
The average breathing rate is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. This range is considered normal for adults at rest. Breathing rate can vary depending on factors such as physical activity, stress levels, and overall health. A breathing rate below or above this range may indicate an underlying medical condition or physiological response.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which one of the following should NOT be done for a stroke victim?
- A.
Avoid comments that increase anxiety
- B.
Check breathing and pulse rate
- C.
Administer oxygen when difficulty in breathing exists
- D.
Administer fluids
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Administer fluidsExplanation
Administering fluids should not be done for a stroke victim. Stroke patients may have difficulty swallowing and may aspirate fluids, leading to pneumonia or other complications. Additionally, administering fluids may increase blood pressure, which can be harmful for stroke patients. Therefore, it is important to avoid administering fluids to stroke victims.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which one of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of smoke inhalation?
- A.
Decreased heart rate
- B.
Labored breathing
- C.
Frothy discharge of blood at the mouth
- D.
Acute cardiac failure
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Decreased heart rateExplanation
Decreased heart rate is not a sign or symptom of smoke inhalation. Smoke inhalation typically causes labored breathing, frothy discharge of blood at the mouth, and can lead to acute cardiac failure. However, it does not typically cause a decreased heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The appropriate treatment for heat exhaustion _____.
- A.
Involves giving the patient cool liquids to drink
- B.
Is the same treatment used for shock
- C.
Consists of keeping the upper extremities elevated
- D.
Can only be carried out in a hospital
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Is the same treatment used for shockExplanation
The appropriate treatment for heat exhaustion is the same treatment used for shock. This is because both conditions involve inadequate blood flow to the vital organs. The treatment for shock includes laying the patient flat, elevating the legs, and providing cool fluids to drink. These measures help to increase blood flow to the brain and other organs, which is essential in both heat exhaustion and shock. Therefore, the same treatment approach is used for both conditions.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Generally, employees are required to submit a request for unpaid leave of absence _____ prior to the anticipated start of the leave
- A.
One week
- B.
Two weeks
- C.
30 days
- D.
60 days
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 30 daysExplanation
Employees are generally required to submit a request for unpaid leave of absence 30 days prior to the anticipated start of the leave. This allows the employer enough time to review and approve the request, make necessary arrangements for the employee's absence, and ensure that the workflow is not disrupted. It also gives the employee enough time to plan their leave and make any necessary arrangements for their absence.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the drop off of an infant?
- A.
The individual leaving the infant is not required to give any identifying information regarding themselves or the infant.
- B.
The individual leaving the infant is not required to give any identifying information regarding him/herself, but must provide information about the infant
- C.
The individual leaving the infant is not required to provide any information about the infant, but must provide information about him/herself.
- D.
The individual leaving the infant must provide basic information about him/herself and the infant.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The individual leaving the infant is not required to give any identifying information regarding themselves or the infant.Explanation
The correct answer is that the individual leaving the infant is not required to give any identifying information regarding themselves or the infant. This means that the person dropping off the infant can remain anonymous and does not have to provide any information that could identify them or the baby. This could be to protect the privacy and safety of both the person leaving the infant and the child.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When an employee returns from an approved unpaid leave of absence, his/her benefits will resume _____.
- A.
On the first day they return to work
- B.
Two weeks after they return to work
- C.
One month following their return to work
- D.
On the first day of the month following their return to work
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. On the first day of the month following their return to workExplanation
When an employee returns from an approved unpaid leave of absence, their benefits will resume on the first day of the month following their return to work. This means that the employee will have to wait until the beginning of the next month after they come back to work in order for their benefits to start again.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The Fire Chief must approve all leaves of absence which exceed _____.
- A.
30 days
- B.
60 days
- C.
90 days
- D.
120 days
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 90 daysExplanation
The Fire Chief must approve all leaves of absence that exceed 90 days. This means that any leave of absence that is shorter than 90 days does not require the Fire Chief's approval. However, any leave of absence that exceeds 90 days must be approved by the Fire Chief.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding jury duty?
- A.
Employees required to attend jury duty will be granted time off with pay
- B.
All pay for service on duty time, except mileage reimbursement, must be remitted to the fire department.
- C.
Day personnel will report for duty for the remainder of the day, if excused from jury service four or more hours before the end of their regular work day.
- D.
Shift personnel will report for the remainder of the shift upon completion of jury service for the day.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Shift personnel will report for the remainder of the shift upon completion of jury service for the day.Explanation
The correct answer is "Shift personnel will report for the remainder of the shift upon completion of jury service for the day." This statement is not true because shift personnel are not required to report for the remainder of their shift after completing jury service for the day.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The statement, “I can’t take this pressure anymore and don’t know what I might do.” is an example of a(n) _____ threat.
- A.
Veiled
- B.
Conditional
- C.
Direct
- D.
Indirect
Correct Answer
A. VeiledExplanation
The statement, "I can't take this pressure anymore and don't know what I might do," is an example of a veiled threat. A veiled threat is a statement that implies harm or danger without explicitly stating it. In this case, the speaker is expressing their frustration and distress, hinting that they may resort to extreme actions due to the pressure they are experiencing. The threat is not directly stated, but it is implied through the speaker's words and tone.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The statement, “If I don’t get a promotion, I’ll get him back!” is an example of a(n) _____ threat.
- A.
Veiled
- B.
Direct
- C.
Indirect
- D.
Conditional
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. ConditionalExplanation
The statement, "If I don't get a promotion, I'll get him back!" is an example of a conditional threat. This is because the threat is dependent on a specific condition being met, in this case, not getting a promotion. The person is indicating that if they do not receive the desired outcome, they will take revenge on someone else.Rate this question:
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- 45.
All of the following are true EXCEPT:
- A.
Friends and/or family members over the age of 16 may be permitted to spend the night at the fire station.
- B.
Oncoming personnel will be in uniform and ready for response at 7:00 a.m.
- C.
Off-going personnel are to be out of bed and prepared for shift change by 7:00 a.m.
- D.
Sexually oriented materials are prohibited in the Bellview Fire Department facilities.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Sexually oriented materials are prohibited in the Bellview Fire Department facilities.Explanation
The given statement "Sexually oriented materials are prohibited in the Bellview Fire Department facilities" is the correct answer because it states that such materials are not allowed in the fire department facilities, while the other statements mention various rules and regulations related to personnel, shift changes, and overnight guests.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
- A.
Employees may use a Department-owned facility in connection with private employment if approved by the Fire Chief.
- B.
Employees may not use department tools to work on personal projects around the fire station.
- C.
Employees may work on small personal projects that do not interfere with daily activities of the station.
- D.
Employees may use tools from the apparatus to work on small personal projects if they have approval from the shift Captain.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Employees may work on small personal projects that do not interfere with daily activities of the station.Explanation
Employees may work on small personal projects that do not interfere with daily activities of the station. This statement is the most accurate because it allows employees to engage in personal projects as long as they do not disrupt the normal functioning of the station. It does not specify any requirement for approval from specific individuals or limit the use of department tools. Therefore, it provides the most flexible and inclusive guideline for employees to work on personal projects while ensuring that their activities do not negatively impact their work responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 47.
All of the statements regarding grooming standards are true EXCEPT:
- A.
Men shall not wear their hair below the top of the uniform collar.
- B.
For women, hair cannot be longer than the shoulder blades.
- C.
If a woman uses clips to pin her hair, the clips must be the same color as her hair.
- D.
For men who style their hair forward, the hair cannot be lower than ¾“ above the high point of the eyebrows.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Men shall not wear their hair below the top of the uniform collar.Explanation
The correct answer is "Men shall not wear their hair below the top of the uniform collar." This statement is false because there is no restriction on how long men can wear their hair as long as it does not exceed the top of the uniform collar. The other statements regarding grooming standards are true, such as the restriction on women's hair length and the requirement for women's hair clips to match the color of their hair.Rate this question:
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- 48.
_________ of fire companies are staffed by volunteer firefighters.
- A.
50%
- B.
65%
- C.
70%
- D.
80%
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 70%Explanation
70% of fire companies are staffed by volunteer firefighters. This means that the majority of fire companies rely on volunteers to provide their firefighting services. This could be due to various factors such as budget constraints, community involvement, or a lack of available professional firefighters. Having a significant percentage of volunteer firefighters highlights the dedication and commitment of individuals who are willing to serve and protect their communities without monetary compensation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Paid career firefighters held about ___________ jobs in 2002.
- A.
168,000
- B.
216,000
- C.
249,000
- D.
282,000
- E.
296,000
Correct Answer
D. 282,000Explanation
In 2002, there were approximately 282,000 jobs held by paid career firefighters.Rate this question:
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- 50.
In 2002 First Line supervisors/managers of firefighting and prevention workers held about ______ jobs.
- A.
63,000
- B.
54,000
- C.
68,000
- D.
74,000
- E.
58,000
Correct Answer
A. 63,000Explanation
In 2002, there were approximately 63,000 jobs held by First Line supervisors/managers of firefighting and prevention workers.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 31, 2009Quiz Created by
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