About Fire & Police Selection, Inc. (Fpsi) Quiz
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- 1.
What percantage of firefighting workers are employed by municipal or county fire departments?
- A.
60%
- B.
70%
- C.
80%
- D.
90%
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 90%Explanation
The correct answer is 90%. This means that the majority of firefighting workers are employed by municipal or county fire departments. This could be due to the fact that these departments are responsible for providing fire protection services to their respective communities, and therefore require a larger workforce. It is also possible that these departments offer more job opportunities and benefits compared to other types of firefighting organizations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In a 2002 analysis, the closest salary range for a Fire Captain position ranged from ______?
- A.
$45,000 to $55,000
- B.
$52,000 to $55,000
- C.
$55,000 to $62,000
- D.
$55,000 to $65,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. $45,000 to $55,000Explanation
Based on the given information, the closest salary range for a Fire Captain position in the 2002 analysis is $45,000 to $55,000.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In many fire departments, a(n) ____ degree is required for State chief officer certification.
- A.
Associate's
- B.
Bachelor's
- C.
Master's
- D.
Doctoral
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Master'sExplanation
In many fire departments, a Master's degree is required for State chief officer certification. This means that individuals who aspire to become chief officers in the fire department must have completed a Master's degree program. This higher level of education is likely necessary to ensure that chief officers have the knowledge and skills needed to effectively lead and manage the department. It also demonstrates a commitment to professional development and continuous learning in the field of fire safety and emergency management.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In a 2002 analysis, the closest salary range for a Fire Chief position ranged from ______.
- A.
$80,000 to $90,000
- B.
$60,000 to $80,000
- C.
$50,000 to $70,000
- D.
$90,000 to $100,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. $60,000 to $80,000Explanation
Based on the 2002 analysis, the closest salary range for a Fire Chief position was found to be between $60,000 and $80,000.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Some of the local and regional fire departments consolidate into public safety organizations in order to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
To reduce administrative staff
- B.
To lower certification requirements
- C.
To cut costs
- D.
To establish consistent training standards
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. To lower certification requirementsExplanation
Consolidating local and regional fire departments into public safety organizations can have several benefits, such as reducing administrative staff, cutting costs, and establishing consistent training standards. However, it is unlikely that one of the primary reasons for consolidation would be to lower certification requirements. In fact, consolidation may even lead to higher certification requirements as the organization aims to ensure a higher level of professionalism and competence among its members. Therefore, the correct answer is "to lower certification requirements".Rate this question:
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- 6.
In a 2002 analysis, hourly earnings for firefighters in the highest 10% was closest to _____ per hour.
- A.
$22.00
- B.
$25.00
- C.
$28.00
- D.
$32.00
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. $28.00Explanation
In a 2002 analysis, the hourly earnings for firefighters in the highest 10% was closest to $28.00 per hour.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Evidence suggests that atherosclerosis begins in the _____ for many people in developed contries of the Western world.
- A.
Late 20's
- B.
Early 20's
- C.
Late 30's
- D.
Early 30's
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Early 20'sExplanation
Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to narrowing and hardening of the arteries. Research has shown that the development of atherosclerosis typically begins in early adulthood, often in the early 20's. This is supported by studies that have found early signs of plaque formation in the arteries of young adults. Therefore, the correct answer is "Early 20's".Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease?
- A.
Females are more likely to suffer CVD at a younger age than males.
- B.
Being over 45 is considered a risk factor for females.
- C.
Being over 40 is considered a risk factor for males.
- D.
Being over 55 is considered a risk factor for females.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Being over 55 is considered a risk factor for females.Explanation
The correct answer is that being over 55 is considered a risk factor for females. This means that females who are over the age of 55 are more likely to be at risk for cardiovascular disease. This statement implies that age is a significant factor in determining the risk of CVD in females. The other statements in the options are not true according to the answer.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Young men who are in the upper quartile (highest 25%) for cholesterol compared to men in the lowest quartile (lowest 25%) are ____ times more likely to have a heart attack.
- A.
9
- B.
6
- C.
15
- D.
12
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 9Explanation
Young men who are in the upper quartile for cholesterol compared to men in the lowest quartile are 9 times more likely to have a heart attack. This means that the risk of having a heart attack is 9 times higher for young men with high cholesterol levels compared to those with low cholesterol levels.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Risk factors associated with the term METABOLIC SYNDROME X include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Abdominal obesity
- C.
Pysical inactivity
- D.
Inability to effectively use glucose
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Pysical inactivityExplanation
The term METABOLIC SYNDROME X is associated with several risk factors, including hypertension, abdominal obesity, and the inability to effectively use glucose. However, physical inactivity is not a risk factor for metabolic syndrome X. Therefore, the correct answer is physical inactivity.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The air chisel is commonly used _____.
- A.
To cut through sheathing and flooring
- B.
To remove the steering wheel and column from vehicles
- C.
To remove an automobile roof or roll up door
- D.
To open a large section of roof or roll up door
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. To remove an automobile roof or roll up doorExplanation
The correct answer is "To remove an automobile roof or roll up door". This is because an air chisel is a powerful tool that uses compressed air to create a hammering or cutting motion. It is commonly used in automotive repair and construction to remove parts such as roofs or roll up doors that are difficult to remove with other tools.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The actual force eserted at the timp of the Hurst tool is approximately ____ pounds p.s.i push and ____ pounds p.s.i. pull.
- A.
10,000 and 20,000
- B.
5,000 and 10,000
- C.
20,000 and 30,000
- D.
15,000 and 10,000
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 10,000 and 20,000Explanation
The correct answer is 10,000 and 20,000. This means that the actual force exerted at the time of the Hurst tool is approximately 10,000 pounds per square inch (p.s.i) push and 20,000 pounds per square inch (p.s.i) pull.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A _____ is a fire tool which features all metal construction.
- A.
Pry-axe
- B.
Pike pole
- C.
Pick-head axe
- D.
Rake axe
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Pry-axeExplanation
A pry-axe is a fire tool that is made entirely of metal. It is used for prying and breaking through obstacles during firefighting operations. The all-metal construction ensures durability and strength, making it suitable for heavy-duty tasks.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The Class C extinguisher is marked by a ____.
- A.
Red square
- B.
Green triangle
- C.
Yellow star
- D.
Blue circle
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Blue circleExplanation
The Class C extinguisher is marked by a blue circle. This marking system is used to identify the type of fire that the extinguisher is designed to combat. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, so the blue circle indicates that the extinguisher is suitable for use on electrical fires. The other options (red square, green triangle, yellow star) are used to mark different types of extinguishers for other classes of fires.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Wood, paper, and fabric should be extinguished by a _____ portable fire extinguisher.
- A.
Class I
- B.
Class A
- C.
Class III
- D.
Class B
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Class AExplanation
Wood, paper, and fabric are all common combustible materials. Class A fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires involving ordinary combustible materials. Therefore, a Class A portable fire extinguisher is the appropriate choice for extinguishing fires involving wood, paper, and fabric.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Maintenance of the carbon dioxide extinguisher consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Weighing the cylinder
- B.
Annual hydrostatic testing
- C.
Annual certification of contents
- D.
Checking the ability of the unit to function
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Annual hydrostatic testingExplanation
The maintenance of a carbon dioxide extinguisher includes weighing the cylinder, annual certification of contents, and checking the ability of the unit to function. However, it does not include annual hydrostatic testing.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Tabun, sarin, and soman are examples of which type of chemical agents?
- A.
Incapacitating agents
- B.
Riot-control agents
- C.
Nerve agents
- D.
Lung damaging
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Nerve agentsExplanation
Tabun, sarin, and soman are examples of nerve agents. Nerve agents are highly toxic chemical compounds that disrupt the transmission of nerve impulses in the body. They can cause paralysis, respiratory failure, and even death. These agents are typically used in chemical warfare or terrorist attacks due to their lethal effects.Rate this question:
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- 18.
All of the following are examples of chemical weapons EXCEPT:
- A.
Anthrax
- B.
BZ
- C.
Cyanide
- D.
Mace
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. AnthraxExplanation
Anthrax is not considered a chemical weapon because it is caused by a bacterium called Bacillus anthracis. It is a biological weapon rather than a chemical weapon. Chemical weapons, on the other hand, are substances that are specifically designed to cause harm or death through their toxic properties. Examples of chemical weapons include BZ, cyanide, and Mace.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Most electronic equipment within _____ miles of a high-altitude nuclear detonation could be affected following an electromagnetic pulse.
- A.
800
- B.
1,200
- C.
1,000
- D.
900
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 1,000Explanation
Most electronic equipment within 1,000 miles of a high-altitude nuclear detonation could be affected following an electromagnetic pulse. An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) is a burst of electromagnetic radiation that can disrupt or damage electronic devices. The range of the EMP's impact depends on various factors, including the altitude of the detonation. In this case, the question states that the high-altitude nuclear detonation could affect electronic equipment within 1,000 miles, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Fallout shelter signs are colored _____.
- A.
Red and black
- B.
Yellow and black
- C.
Blue and Black
- D.
Green and yellow
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Yellow and blackExplanation
Fallout shelter signs are colored yellow and black. This color combination is commonly used for safety signs and is highly visible, making it easy for people to identify and locate fallout shelters in emergency situations. The contrasting colors help draw attention and convey a sense of urgency, ensuring that individuals can quickly locate a safe place to seek shelter and protection.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The U.S. government has identified ____ threat conditions.
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
The U.S. government has identified multiple threat conditions, not just one or a few. Therefore, the correct answer is 5, which represents "None of the above" options.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The last naturally occuring case of smallpox in the world was in _____.
- A.
1947
- B.
1957
- C.
1967
- D.
1977
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 1977Explanation
The last naturally occurring case of smallpox in the world was in 1977. This means that after 1977, there have been no known cases of smallpox that were not caused by laboratory accidents or intentional release. It is a significant milestone in the history of medicine as it marks the near eradication of a highly contagious and deadly disease through vaccination efforts.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The smallpox vaccine is expected to be made available to the general public during which phase?
- A.
Phase I
- B.
Phase II
- C.
Phase III
- D.
Phase V
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Phase IIIExplanation
The smallpox vaccine is expected to be made available to the general public during Phase III. This phase is the final stage of clinical trials before a vaccine or drug can be approved by regulatory authorities for widespread use. Phase III trials involve a large number of participants and are designed to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the vaccine in real-world conditions. Once the vaccine successfully completes Phase III trials, it can be considered for approval and distribution to the general public.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following conditions, following the smallpox vaccination, is considered to be life-threatening?
- A.
A vaccinia rash
- B.
Widespread vaccinia
- C.
Progressive vaccinia
- D.
Erythema multiforme
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Progressive vacciniaExplanation
Progressive vaccinia is considered to be life-threatening following the smallpox vaccination. Progressive vaccinia is a rare but severe complication where the vaccinia virus spreads uncontrollably, causing extensive tissue damage and systemic illness. It can lead to severe complications such as organ failure and death if not treated promptly.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is NOT a typical mild reaction to the smallpox vaccine?
- A.
A lower grade fever
- B.
A vaccinia rash
- C.
Enlarged glands in the armpits
- D.
A red sore on the arm at the site of the vaccination
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. A vaccinia rashExplanation
A vaccinia rash is actually a typical mild reaction to the smallpox vaccine, so it is not the correct answer. Mild reactions to the smallpox vaccine can include a lower grade fever, enlarged glands in the armpits, and a red sore on the arm at the site of the vaccination.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The pike pole is invaluable in reaching fires to aid in extinguishment in which one of the following areas?
- A.
High roof line
- B.
Small Closets
- C.
Attic and crawl spaces
- D.
Inside automobiles
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Attic and crawl spacesExplanation
The pike pole is invaluable in reaching fires to aid in extinguishment in attic and crawl spaces. These areas are typically difficult to access due to their small and confined spaces. The pike pole, with its long handle and hook at the end, allows firefighters to reach and pull down burning materials, ventilate the area, and ensure that the fire is completely extinguished. This tool is especially useful in these areas where traditional firefighting methods may not be effective or safe to use.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which type of knot has a remaining strength of 90%?
- A.
The clove hitch knot
- B.
The square knot
- C.
The splice knot
- D.
The bowline knot
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. The splice knotExplanation
The splice knot has a remaining strength of 90%. This type of knot is known for its strength and durability, making it a reliable choice in various applications. The splice knot involves weaving two ropes together to create a strong, seamless connection. It is commonly used in sailing, climbing, and other activities that require secure and long-lasting knots.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The knot that allows for the tying of two ropes of equal or unequal sizes together is called the ____ knot.
- A.
Lark's foot
- B.
Sheet bend
- C.
Becket bend
- D.
Timber hitch
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Becket bendExplanation
The Becket bend is a knot that can be used to tie two ropes of equal or unequal sizes together. It is a secure knot that is easy to tie and untie, making it a versatile option for joining ropes. The other options listed (Lark's foot, Sheet bend, Timber hitch) are all different types of knots that serve different purposes, but they are not specifically designed for joining two ropes together. Therefore, the correct answer is Becket bend.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Alveoli serve the function of ____.
- A.
Breaking down sugar in the bloodstream
- B.
Transferring oxygen from air to the blood
- C.
Slowing down the heart rate
- D.
Keeping the lungs free of smoke
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Transferring oxygen from air to the bloodExplanation
Alveoli are small air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place. They are responsible for transferring oxygen from the inhaled air into the bloodstream and removing carbon dioxide from the bloodstream to be exhaled. Therefore, the correct answer is "Transferring oxygen from air to the blood."Rate this question:
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- 30.
The severity of a stroke is most dependent upon ____.
- A.
The portion and amount of brain damage
- B.
The level of cholesterol in the blood
- C.
The amount of damage to the heart
- D.
The amount of damage to the respiratory system
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The portion and amount of brain damageExplanation
The severity of a stroke is most dependent upon the portion and amount of brain damage. This is because a stroke occurs when the blood supply to the brain is interrupted, leading to brain cell damage and death. The extent of this damage will determine the severity of the stroke and the resulting symptoms and complications. Factors such as the size and location of the affected brain tissue will also play a role in determining the severity of the stroke.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Diabetes Mellitus is an inherited disease caused by ____.
- A.
Too much sugar in the blood stream
- B.
Too much alcohol in the blood stream
- C.
The inability of the pancreas to create insulin
- D.
Under-stimulation of the liver and spleen
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. The inability of the pancreas to create insulinExplanation
Diabetes Mellitus is a disease characterized by high levels of sugar in the blood. The pancreas is responsible for producing insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In Diabetes Mellitus, the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin or cannot use it effectively, leading to high blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "The inability of the pancreas to create insulin."Rate this question:
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- 32.
A resucer's first priority when dealing with an overdose of central nervous system depressants (e.g., heroin, mehtadone, etc.) should be to ____.
- A.
Protect himself/herself from patient outbursts
- B.
Maintain an adequate level of respiration
- C.
Pay constant attention to the patients heart rate
- D.
Allow law enforcement to restrain patient for EMS before treatment
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Maintain an adequate level of respirationExplanation
When dealing with an overdose of central nervous system depressants, the resucer's first priority should be to maintain an adequate level of respiration. Central nervous system depressants can slow down the respiratory system, potentially leading to respiratory arrest. Therefore, ensuring that the patient is able to breathe properly is crucial in order to prevent further complications or even death.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A drug overdose patient showing signs of sleepiness or sluggishness should be attended to by _____.
- A.
Explaining what drugs do to the body
- B.
Administering CPR
- C.
Constant stimulation
- D.
First checking for dialated pupils
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Constant stimulationExplanation
When a drug overdose patient shows signs of sleepiness or sluggishness, constant stimulation is necessary. This means that the person should be kept awake and engaged to prevent them from falling into a state of unconsciousness or experiencing respiratory depression. Constant stimulation can involve talking to the patient, shaking them gently, or providing other forms of sensory input to keep them alert and responsive. This is important in order to monitor their condition and ensure their safety until medical help arrives.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which one of the following statements describes an aneurysm?
- A.
An accumulation of fluid in the lungs
- B.
Pain of a squeezing nature in the center of the chest
- C.
A heart beat with irregular rhythm
- D.
A protrusion in the wall of a blood vessel
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. A protrusion in the wall of a blood vesselExplanation
An aneurysm is a medical condition characterized by a protrusion or bulge in the wall of a blood vessel. It occurs when the weakened area of the blood vessel expands and forms a balloon-like bulge. This bulge can occur in various parts of the body, but it is most commonly seen in the arteries that supply blood to the brain, aorta, or other major blood vessels. If left untreated, an aneurysm can rupture, leading to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and treat aneurysms promptly.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The average breathing rate is _____.
- A.
7 - 11 breaths per minute
- B.
12-20 breaths per minute
- C.
21-30 breaths per minute
- D.
Over 30 breaths per minute
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 12-20 breaths per minuteExplanation
The average breathing rate is commonly accepted to be between 12-20 breaths per minute. This range is considered normal for a healthy adult at rest. Breathing rates can vary depending on factors such as physical activity, emotional state, and overall health. However, a breathing rate outside of this range may indicate an underlying medical condition or abnormality.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which one of the following should NOT be done for a stroke victim?
- A.
Avoid comments that increase anxiety
- B.
Check breathing and pulse rate
- C.
Administer fluids
- D.
Administer oxygen when difficulty breathing exists
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Administer fluidsExplanation
Administering fluids should not be done for a stroke victim. Stroke patients may have difficulty swallowing or may have impaired swallowing reflexes, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia if fluids are given orally. It is important to assess the patient's ability to swallow before administering any fluids.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which one of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of smoke inhalation?
- A.
Labored breathing
- B.
Decreased heart rate
- C.
Frothy discharge of blood at the mouth
- D.
Acute cardiac failure
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Decreased heart rateExplanation
Decreased heart rate is not a sign or symptom of smoke inhalation. Smoke inhalation typically causes labored breathing, as the smoke irritates the airways and can lead to difficulty in breathing. It can also cause a frothy discharge of blood at the mouth, as the smoke damages the respiratory system. Acute cardiac failure can occur due to the toxic chemicals present in the smoke, but a decreased heart rate is not commonly associated with smoke inhalation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The appropriate treatment for heat exhaustion _____.
- A.
Consists of keeping the upper exremities elevated
- B.
Can only be carried out in a hospital
- C.
Is the same treatment used for shock
- D.
Involves giving the patient cool liquids to drink
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Is the same treatment used for shock -
- 39.
Generally, employees are required to to submit a request for unpaid leave of absence ____ prior to the anticipated start of the leave.
- A.
One week
- B.
Two weeks
- C.
30 days
- D.
60 days
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 30 daysExplanation
Employees are generally required to submit a request for unpaid leave of absence 30 days prior to the anticipated start of the leave. This allows the employer enough time to plan and make necessary arrangements to cover the employee's absence. It also gives the employee ample time to provide any required documentation or information related to their leave.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When an employee returns from an approved unpaid leave of absence, his/her benefits will resume ____.
- A.
On the first day they return to work
- B.
Two weeks after they return to work
- C.
On the first day of the month following their return to work
- D.
One month following their return to work
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. On the first day of the month following their return to workExplanation
When an employee returns from an approved unpaid leave of absence, their benefits will resume on the first day of the month following their return to work. This means that the employee will have to wait until the start of the next month after they return to work in order to regain their benefits.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the drop off of an infant?
- A.
The individual leaving the infant is not required to give any indentifying information regarding themselves or the infant
- B.
The individual leaving the infant is not required to leave any identifying information regarding him/herself, but must provide information about the infant.
- C.
The individual leaving the infant is not required to provide any information about the infant, but must provide information about him/herself.
- D.
The individual leaving the infant must provide basic information about him/herself and the infant
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The individual leaving the infant is not required to give any indentifying information regarding themselves or the infantExplanation
The correct answer is that the individual leaving the infant is not required to give any identifying information regarding themselves or the infant. This means that the person dropping off the infant does not have to provide any personal information or information about the infant's identity.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The fire chief must approve all leaves of absence which exceed _____.
- A.
30 days
- B.
90 days
- C.
120 days
- D.
200 days
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 90 daysExplanation
The fire chief must approve all leaves of absence which exceed 90 days. This suggests that any leave of absence that is longer than 90 days requires the approval of the fire chief. This policy is likely in place to ensure that there is sufficient staffing and coverage within the fire department during extended periods of absence.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The statement, "If I don't get a promotion, I'll get him back!" is an example of a(n) _____ threat.
- A.
Veiled
- B.
Direct
- C.
Conditional
- D.
Indirect
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. ConditionalExplanation
The statement, "If I don't get a promotion, I'll get him back!" is an example of a conditional threat. This is because the speaker is expressing a potential consequence (getting him back) that is dependent on a condition (not getting a promotion). The threat is contingent upon a specific outcome, making it a conditional threat.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The statement "I can't take this pressure anymore and don't know what I might do." is an example of a(n) _____ threat.
- A.
Conditional
- B.
Veiled
- C.
Indirect
- D.
Direct
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. VeiledExplanation
The statement "I can't take this pressure anymore and don't know what I might do" is an example of a veiled threat. A veiled threat is a statement that implies harm or negative consequences without explicitly stating it. In this statement, the speaker expresses their inability to handle the pressure and suggests that they might do something drastic or harmful, without directly stating what that might be.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding jury duty?
- A.
Employees required to attend jury duty will be granted time off with pay.
- B.
All pay for service on duty time, except mileage reimbursement, must be remitted to the fire department.
- C.
Day personnel will report for duty for the remainder of the day, if excused from jury service four or more hours before the end of their regular work day.
- D.
Shift personnel will report for the remainder of the shift upon completion of jury service for the day.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Day personnel will report for duty for the remainder of the day, if excused from jury service four or more hours before the end of their regular work day.Explanation
The correct answer is "Day personnel will report for duty for the remainder of the day, if excused from jury service four or more hours before the end of their regular work day." This statement is not true because if day personnel are excused from jury service four or more hours before the end of their regular work day, they will not be required to report for duty for the remainder of the day.Rate this question:
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- 46.
All of the following are true EXCEPT:
- A.
Friends and/or family over the age of 16 may be permitted to spend the night at the fire station
- B.
Oncoming personnel will be in uniform and ready for response at 7:00 a.m.
- C.
Off-going personnel are to be out of bed and prepared for shift change by 7:00 a.m.
- D.
Sexually oriented materials are prohibited in the Bellview Fire Department facilities.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Sexually oriented materials are prohibited in the Bellview Fire Department facilities.Explanation
The correct answer is "None of the above." This means that all of the statements provided are true, including the fact that sexually oriented materials are prohibited in the Bellview Fire Department facilities.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
- A.
Employees may use a Department-owned facility in connection with private employment if approved by the Fire Chief.
- B.
Employees may not use department tools to work on personal projects around the fire station
- C.
Employees may work on small personal projects that do not interfere with daily activities of the station
- D.
Employees may use tools from the apparatus to work on small personal projects if they have approval from the shift Captain.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Employees may work on small personal projects that do not interfere with daily activities of the station -
- 48.
All of the statements regarding grooming standards are true EXCEPT:
- A.
Men shall not wear their hair below the top of he uniform collar.
- B.
For women, hair cannot be longer than the shoulder blades
- C.
If a woman uses clips to pin her hair, the clips must be the same color as her hair.
- D.
For men who style their hair forward, the hair cannot be lower than 3/4" above the high point of the eyebrows.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Men shall not wear their hair below the top of he uniform collar.Explanation
The statement "Men shall not wear their hair below the top of the uniform collar" is incorrect because there is no mention of this requirement in the grooming standards.Rate this question:
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- 49.
_____ of fire companies are staffed by volunteer firefighters.
- A.
50%
- B.
60%
- C.
68%
- D.
70%
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 70%Explanation
70% of fire companies are staffed by volunteer firefighters.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Paid career fighfighters held about _____ jobs in 2002
- A.
168,000
- B.
216,000
- C.
249,000
- D.
282,000
- E.
296,000
Correct Answer
D. 282,000Explanation
In 2002, there were approximately 282,000 paid career firefighters.Rate this question:
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