Hair care Quiz Questions And Answers

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 2,582
Questions: 37 | Attempts: 1,010

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Hair Care Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is ringed hair:

    • A.

      Split hair

    • B.

      Beaded hair

    • C.

      Knotted hair

    • D.

      Alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair

    Correct Answer
    D. Alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair
    Explanation
    Ringed hair refers to the presence of alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair. This condition occurs when the hair follicles produce pigmented hair in cycles, resulting in the appearance of rings or bands of different colors along the length of the hair shaft. This can be a natural occurrence or may be caused by certain medical conditions or treatments.

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  • 2. 

    The slender hair extension which moves bacteria is called:

    • A.

      Spores

    • B.

      Tail

    • C.

      Flagella

    • D.

      Shaft

    Correct Answer
    C. Flagella
    Explanation
    Flagella are slender, whip-like appendages that protrude from the surface of certain bacteria. They are responsible for the movement of bacteria by propelling them in a whip-like motion. This enables bacteria to move towards favorable environments and away from harmful ones. Spores, on the other hand, are dormant structures formed by certain bacteria and fungi to survive unfavorable conditions. Tails and shafts are not specific terms used to describe bacterial appendages involved in movement.

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  • 3. 

    What is characterized by the sudden falling out of hair in round patches?

    • A.

      Postpartum alopecia

    • B.

      Androgenetic alopecia

    • C.

      Alopecia areata

    • D.

      Alopecia senilis

    Correct Answer
    C. Alopecia areata
    Explanation
    Alopecia areata is characterized by the sudden falling out of hair in round patches. This condition is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the hair follicles, causing hair loss. It can affect both men and women of any age and may result in complete baldness in severe cases. Unlike other forms of hair loss, alopecia areata does not cause permanent hair loss, and hair may grow back on its own or with treatment.

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  • 4. 

    What is terminal hair?

    • A.

      Short, fine, downy hair

    • B.

      Hair without medulla

    • C.

      Not pigmented hair

    • D.

      Long, dark color

    Correct Answer
    D. Long, dark color
    Explanation
    Terminal hair refers to the long, dark-colored hair that grows on certain parts of the body, such as the scalp, eyebrows, and armpits. This type of hair is thicker and coarser compared to vellus hair, which is short, fine, and downy. Terminal hair is typically pigmented and contains a medulla, the innermost layer of the hair shaft. Therefore, the correct answer is "long, dark color."

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  • 5. 

    Permanent waving make physical and chemical changes in what kind of bonds?

    • A.

      Peptide

    • B.

      Salt

    • C.

      Disulfide

    • D.

      Hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    C. Disulfide
    Explanation
    Permanent waving involves the use of chemicals to break and reform disulfide bonds in the hair. Disulfide bonds are strong and stable, and they contribute to the hair's structure and shape. By breaking these bonds and reforming them in a new shape, permanent waving can alter the hair's structure and create a new, long-lasting curl or wave pattern. Therefore, the correct answer is disulfide.

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  • 6. 

    What is mean resting phase ?

    • A.

      Final phase in hair cycle

    • B.

      Growth phase

    • C.

      Transition period between growth and resting phase

    • D.

      Resting phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Final phase in hair cycle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "final phase in hair cycle." In the hair cycle, there are different phases, including the growth phase and the resting phase. The resting phase is the final phase in the hair cycle, where the hair follicle is no longer actively producing new hair. During this phase, the hair remains in the follicle but does not grow. Eventually, the hair will shed and a new hair will begin to grow, starting the cycle again.

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  • 7. 

    Total weight hair, it's elasticity, natural color comes from:

    • A.

      Papilla

    • B.

      Follicle

    • C.

      Cortex

    • D.

      Cuticle

    Correct Answer
    C. Cortex
    Explanation
    The cortex is responsible for the total weight of the hair, its elasticity, and its natural color. It is the middle layer of the hair shaft and contains keratin, which gives the hair its strength and structure. The cortex also contains melanin, which determines the hair's color. The papilla is responsible for supplying nutrients to the hair follicle, while the cuticle is the outermost layer that protects the hair.

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  • 8. 

    Nail stain can be remove with nail bleach or:

    • A.

      Peroxide (or lemon)

    • B.

      Acetone

    • C.

      An oil manicure

    • D.

      Polish remover

    Correct Answer
    A. Peroxide (or lemon)
    Explanation
    Nail stain can be removed with peroxide or lemon because both have bleaching properties that can help lighten the stain. Peroxide is a common household product that is known for its ability to remove stains and disinfect. Lemon, on the other hand, contains natural acids that can also act as a mild bleaching agent. Both options can be effective in removing nail stains, but it is important to test them on a small area of the nail first to ensure they do not cause any adverse reactions.

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  • 9. 

    Metallic salt leave a coating on the hair that may cause discoloration, breakage or:

    • A.

      Uneven curls

    • B.

      Mild odor

    • C.

      Hair straightening

    • D.

      Smooth curl

    Correct Answer
    A. Uneven curls
    Explanation
    Metallic salts, when left on the hair, can create an uneven curl pattern. This is because the salts can disrupt the natural structure of the hair, causing some sections to curl more tightly or loosely than others. Additionally, the coating left by metallic salts can weigh down the hair and make it harder for curls to form evenly. This can result in an overall uneven appearance and texture of the hair.

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  • 10. 

    The disulfide bonds that are broken by hydroxide relaxer can be:

    • A.

      Never reformed

    • B.

      Changed into hydrogen bonds

    • C.

      Reformed by lanthionization

    • D.

      Reformed by neutralizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Never reformed
    Explanation
    When hydroxide relaxer is applied to the hair, it breaks the disulfide bonds present in the hair. These disulfide bonds are strong and provide the hair with its natural shape and structure. Once these bonds are broken, they cannot be reformed. This means that the hair will permanently lose its natural shape and structure and cannot be reverted back to its original state. Therefore, the correct answer is that the disulfide bonds broken by hydroxide relaxer can never be reformed.

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  • 11. 

    How can you know your nail is infected ?

    • A.

      A broken free edge forms

    • B.

      A hang nail forms

    • C.

      Nail color will be pinkish

    • D.

      Natural nail color has changed

    Correct Answer
    D. Natural nail color has changed
    Explanation
    When a nail is infected, one of the common signs is a change in the natural color of the nail. This can include the nail becoming yellow, green, or even black. This change in color is often accompanied by other symptoms such as pain, swelling, and a foul odor. Therefore, if you notice that the color of your natural nail has changed, it may be an indication of an infection.

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  • 12. 

    When do you know you can use wax?

    • A.

      Testing on your wrist

    • B.

      Cosmetologist know by timing it heated

    • C.

      They have special terminology

    • D.

      On the client

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing on your wrist
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "testing on your wrist." This is because when using wax, it is important to test it on a small area of your skin, such as your wrist, before applying it to a larger area. This helps to ensure that you do not have any adverse reactions or allergies to the wax. By testing it on your wrist, you can determine if it is safe to use on your body without causing any harm or discomfort.

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  • 13. 

    After acrylic services, what must be done to all used material?

    • A.

      Put it back in container

    • B.

      Discard in the plastic bag

    • C.

      Discard with closed container

    • D.

      Reuse again

    Correct Answer
    C. Discard with closed container
    Explanation
    After acrylic services, it is important to discard all used material with a closed container. This is necessary to prevent any spillage or leakage of the chemicals used in the acrylic process, as they can be harmful if they come into contact with skin or eyes. Discarding the material in a closed container ensures proper containment and disposal of the waste, minimizing any potential risks or hazards.

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  • 14. 

    What is a hard press?

    • A.

      Comb once on each side

    • B.

      Comb twice on each side

    • C.

      Comb once on each side with more pressure

    • D.

      Comb with thermal comb, then with curling iron

    Correct Answer
    B. Comb twice on each side
    Explanation
    A hard press refers to combing the hair twice on each side. This technique is commonly used in hairstyling to create a sleek and smooth look. By combing the hair twice on each side, it helps to flatten and straighten the hair more effectively, resulting in a polished and well-groomed appearance.

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  • 15. 

    What is the thermal temperature for relaxed hair?

    • A.

      Light pressure and moderate heat

    • B.

      More pressure and more heat

    • C.

      Medium pressure and less heat

    • D.

      Light pressure and more heat

    Correct Answer
    A. Light pressure and moderate heat
    Explanation
    The thermal temperature for relaxed hair should be light pressure and moderate heat. This means that a gentle amount of pressure should be applied to the hair, while using a moderate level of heat. This is important because relaxed hair is chemically treated and can be more prone to damage. Applying too much pressure or heat can lead to further damage and breakage. Therefore, it is important to use a gentle touch and moderate heat when styling relaxed hair.

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  • 16. 

    The process on removing excess bulk without shortening the length is called:

    • A.

      Elevating

    • B.

      Over-direction

    • C.

      Texturizing

    • D.

      Trimming

    Correct Answer
    C. Texturizing
    Explanation
    Texturizing is the process of removing excess bulk from the hair without shortening its length. This technique involves creating texture and movement in the hair by using various cutting techniques, such as point cutting or thinning shears. By strategically removing certain sections of hair, the stylist can reduce bulk and create a lighter, more textured look without compromising the overall length of the hair.

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  • 17. 

    Which statement is true?

    • A.

      All pathogenic bacteria cause disease

    • B.

      Only cocci cause disease

    • C.

      All non-pathogenic bacteria cause disease

    • D.

      Some of pathogenic bacteria cause disease

    Correct Answer
    A. All pathogenic bacteria cause disease
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all pathogenic bacteria cause disease. This means that any bacteria that are classified as pathogenic have the ability to cause illness or disease in their host. It is important to note that not all bacteria are pathogenic, as there are many non-pathogenic bacteria that do not cause disease. However, among the bacteria that are pathogenic, they all have the potential to cause illness.

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  • 18. 

    The bone that protrudes at the base of skull is the:

    • A.

      Hyoid bone

    • B.

      Occipitalies bone

    • C.

      Apex

    • D.

      Parietal bone

    Correct Answer
    B. Occipitalies bone
    Explanation
    The correct answer is occipital bone. The occipital bone is a cranial bone that forms the back of the skull. It has a protrusion called the external occipital protuberance, which can be felt at the base of the skull. This bone provides attachment for muscles and ligaments, and also protects the brain and spinal cord. The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone in the neck, the apex refers to the topmost point of a structure, and the parietal bone is a cranial bone located on the sides and top of the skull.

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  • 19. 

    Fibrous protein that gives the skin form and strength is:

    • A.

      Lymph

    • B.

      Collagen and elastin

    • C.

      Epidermis

    • D.

      Subcutaneous tissue

    Correct Answer
    B. Collagen and elastin
    Explanation
    Collagen and elastin are fibrous proteins that provide the skin with structure and elasticity. Collagen is the main component of the skin's connective tissue, giving it strength and firmness. Elastin, on the other hand, allows the skin to stretch and recoil. Together, these proteins contribute to the overall form and strength of the skin.

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  • 20. 

    Who will be responsible for contaminated salon?

    • A.

      All patrons

    • B.

      All clients

    • C.

      All managers

    • D.

      All cosmetologists

    Correct Answer
    D. All cosmetologists
    Explanation
    All cosmetologists will be responsible for the contaminated salon because they are the ones who directly handle and perform beauty treatments on clients. It is their duty to ensure a clean and safe environment, follow proper hygiene protocols, and use sterilized tools and equipment. If the salon becomes contaminated, it is the responsibility of the cosmetologists to take necessary actions to rectify the situation and prevent any harm or infections to the clients.

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  • 21. 

    Communicable disease is a:

    • A.

      Disease of long duration

    • B.

      Disease that contagious

    • C.

      Disease having rapid onset

    • D.

      Disease that exists at birth

    Correct Answer
    B. Disease that contagious
    Explanation
    A communicable disease is a disease that can be transmitted from one person to another through direct or indirect contact. This means that the disease-causing agent, such as a virus or bacteria, can be passed on to others through various means like respiratory droplets, bodily fluids, or contaminated surfaces. The term "contagious" is often used interchangeably with "communicable" to describe diseases that can easily spread among individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is "disease that contagious."

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  • 22. 

    Permanent hair color breaks up or diffuses :

    • A.

      Disulfide bonds

    • B.

      Melanin

    • C.

      Cortex

    • D.

      Eumelanin

    Correct Answer
    B. Melanin
    Explanation
    Permanent hair color breaks up or diffuses melanin. Melanin is the pigment responsible for the color of our hair. Permanent hair color works by penetrating the hair shaft and breaking down the existing melanin molecules, allowing the new color to be deposited. This process permanently changes the color of the hair. Disulfide bonds are not broken or diffused by permanent hair color, as these bonds are responsible for the hair's structure and strength. The cortex is the middle layer of the hair shaft and eumelanin is a type of melanin found in the hair, both of which are not directly affected by permanent hair color.

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  • 23. 

    The type of canities (gray hair) that exists at or before birth is known as:

    • A.

      Common canities

    • B.

      Congenital canities

    • C.

      Infant canities

    • D.

      Acquired canities

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital canities
    Explanation
    Congenital canities refers to the type of gray hair that exists at or before birth. This term specifically describes the presence of gray hair from birth, distinguishing it from other types of canities that may develop later in life. Common canities, infant canities, and acquired canities all refer to gray hair that appears after birth, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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  • 24. 

    What can create clipper which sit very close to the hairline and gradually get longer as you move up head:

    • A.

      Tapers

    • B.

      Flat top

    • C.

      Square shape

    • D.

      Basic clipper cut

    Correct Answer
    A. Tapers
    Explanation
    Tapers can create a clipper cut that sits very close to the hairline and gradually gets longer as you move up the head. Tapering involves using a clipper to gradually blend the hair from shorter to longer lengths, creating a tapered effect. This technique is commonly used to create a clean and polished look, especially when styling fades or undercut hairstyles.

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  • 25. 

    Before application of aniline tint or toner you have to always give:

    • A.

      Release statement

    • B.

      Negative skin test

    • C.

      Patch test

    • D.

      Preliminary test

    Correct Answer
    C. Patch test
    Explanation
    Before applying aniline tint or toner, it is important to always conduct a patch test. This test involves applying a small amount of the product to a small area of the skin and monitoring for any adverse reactions or allergies. This is necessary to ensure that the product does not cause any harm or irritation to the client's skin. A patch test helps to identify any potential allergies or sensitivities and allows the stylist to make an informed decision about whether or not to proceed with the application.

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  • 26. 

    Dimensional hair color popularly referred to as:

    • A.

      Double process color

    • B.

      Color enhancement

    • C.

      Highlighting

    • D.

      Single process color

    Correct Answer
    C. Highlighting
    Explanation
    Dimensional hair color is a popular technique that involves adding different shades and tones to the hair to create depth and dimension. This is commonly achieved through highlighting, where lighter strands of hair are added to create contrast and enhance the overall color. Double process color refers to a two-step process involving bleaching and toning, color enhancement refers to intensifying the existing color, and single process color refers to a one-step process of coloring the hair. Therefore, highlighting is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the technique of adding lighter strands to create dimension.

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  • 27. 

    The major difference between a wet set and perm is the:

    • A.

      Size of wrapping tools

    • B.

      Type of wrapping tools

    • C.

      Type of end bonds broken

    • D.

      Type of side bonds broken

    Correct Answer
    D. Type of side bonds broken
    Explanation
    A wet set and a perm both involve the use of wrapping tools, but the major difference lies in the type of bonds that are broken. In a wet set, the hair is set using wet hair and heat, and the bonds broken are the hydrogen bonds. On the other hand, in a perm, the hair is set using chemicals and the bonds broken are the disulfide bonds, which are stronger and more permanent. Therefore, the correct answer is "type of side bonds broken".

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  • 28. 

    Removing pathogens (bacteria) and other substances from tools or surfaces is called:

    • A.

      Scrubbing

    • B.

      Autoclave sterilization

    • C.

      Decontamination

    • D.

      Cleaning

    Correct Answer
    C. Decontamination
    Explanation
    Decontamination refers to the process of removing pathogens (bacteria) and other substances from tools or surfaces. It involves the use of various methods and techniques to eliminate or reduce the presence of harmful microorganisms, making the area or objects safe and free from contamination. Scrubbing, autoclave sterilization, and cleaning are all related to the decontamination process, but decontamination specifically focuses on the removal of pathogens and other substances.

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  • 29. 

    When you are creating ____, you used a traveling guide, with no over direction, to create the same length throughout the haircut :

    • A.

      Blunt cut

    • B.

      Uniform layers

    • C.

      Graduated cut

    • D.

      Long layers

    Correct Answer
    A. Blunt cut
    Explanation
    When creating a blunt cut, a traveling guide is used to ensure that the hair is cut to the same length throughout the haircut. This means that the hair is cut straight across with no layering or graduation. The traveling guide helps to maintain consistency and create a clean, even look.

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  • 30. 

    The technique in which the ends of  the hair are cut at a slight taper, using diagonal lines is called:

    • A.

      Sectioning

    • B.

      Carving

    • C.

      Blunt cutting

    • D.

      Beveling

    Correct Answer
    D. Beveling
    Explanation
    Beveling is a technique in which the ends of the hair are cut at a slight taper, using diagonal lines. This creates a soft and blended effect, adding movement and texture to the hair. Sectioning refers to dividing the hair into smaller sections for easier manipulation. Carving is a technique used to create texture and remove bulk from the hair. Blunt cutting involves cutting the hair straight across with no taper or layers.

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  • 31. 

    The point at which the nail plate meets the nail tip before the tip is glued to the nail is known as:

    • A.

      Well

    • B.

      Position stop

    • C.

      Contact point

    • D.

      Tip stop

    Correct Answer
    B. Position stop
    Explanation
    The point at which the nail plate meets the nail tip before the tip is glued to the nail is known as the position stop. This is the point where the nail technician places the tip on the natural nail to ensure proper alignment and fit before applying glue. It helps in achieving a secure and accurate placement of the nail tip on the natural nail.

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  • 32. 

    Why you have always give predisposition test before application of aniline tint or toner ?

    • A.

      To identify an allergy in a client

    • B.

      To identify natural color

    • C.

      To protect owner from accidents

    • D.

      To protect cosmetologist from responsibility

    Correct Answer
    A. To identify an allergy in a client
    Explanation
    The reason why a predisposition test is always conducted before applying an aniline tint or toner is to identify any potential allergies that the client may have. This is important because aniline tints and toners can contain ingredients that may cause adverse reactions in some individuals. By conducting a predisposition test, the cosmetologist can determine if the client is allergic to any of the ingredients in the product, ensuring their safety and preventing any potential allergic reactions or complications during the treatment.

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  • 33. 

    A combination of equal parts of prepared tint and shampoo is applied to the hair like a regular shampoo and to avoid action will break line of demarcation is:

    • A.

      Tint back to natural color

    • B.

      Tint removal

    • C.

      Correcting unwanted tones

    • D.

      Soap cap

    Correct Answer
    D. Soap cap
    Explanation
    A soap cap is a mixture of equal parts of prepared tint and shampoo that is applied to the hair like a regular shampoo. It is used to lighten or remove unwanted tones from the hair without creating a harsh line of demarcation. This technique helps to blend the new color with the natural color, avoiding a noticeable difference between the two.

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  • 34. 

    Chemical reaction that heats up the solution and speeds up the processing is:

    • A.

      Endothermic

    • B.

      Exothermic

    • C.

      Alkaline

    • D.

      Acid balanced

    Correct Answer
    B. Exothermic
    Explanation
    An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases heat energy to its surroundings. In the context of the given question, an exothermic reaction would heat up the solution and speed up the processing. This is because the reaction releases energy in the form of heat, which increases the temperature of the solution and accelerates the reaction rate.

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  • 35. 

    Beneficial effect in reducing the production of sebum has:

    • A.

      Clay mask

    • B.

      Paraffin masks

    • C.

      Sulfur masks

    • D.

      Modulate masks

    Correct Answer
    C. Sulfur masks
    Explanation
    Sulfur masks have a beneficial effect in reducing the production of sebum. Sulfur is known for its ability to absorb excess oil on the skin's surface and deep within the pores. By reducing sebum production, sulfur masks can help control oiliness and prevent clogged pores, which can lead to acne breakouts.

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  • 36. 

    In the development of dreadlocks, the lock is closed at the end and the hair is tightly meshed into a ropelike cylinder during the:

    • A.

      Atrophy stage

    • B.

      Maturation stage

    • C.

      Sprouting stage

    • D.

      Growing stage

    Correct Answer
    B. Maturation stage
    Explanation
    During the maturation stage of dreadlock development, the hair is tightly meshed into a ropelike cylinder and the lock is closed at the end. This stage is characterized by the hair becoming more compact and tightly interwoven, resulting in the formation of mature dreadlocks.

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  • 37. 

    During their inactive stage, certain bacteria, such as the anthrax and tetanus bacilli, form:

    • A.

      Flagella

    • B.

      Daughter cells

    • C.

      Spores

    • D.

      Toxins

    Correct Answer
    C. Spores
    Explanation
    During their inactive stage, certain bacteria, such as the anthrax and tetanus bacilli, form spores. Spores are a dormant and highly resistant form of bacteria that can survive harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures, lack of nutrients, and exposure to chemicals or radiation. This allows the bacteria to remain viable for extended periods until conditions become favorable for growth and reproduction. Spore formation is a survival mechanism that enables bacteria to persist in the environment and potentially cause infections or diseases when conditions become suitable for their reactivation.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 09, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Matraimova
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