Dtf 1 E Gyan Test Nov

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Dtf 1 E Gyan Test Nov - Quiz

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Welcome to TE E-GYAN Test
Here is an opportunity to test your Product knowledge and Strategy.
You have 20 minutes to complete this test.
Please enter your Name , Emp. Code ,HQ and Select your state. Then press "Start" to begin the test. You can only attend the test once and hence make sure you have uninterrupted internet connectivity.
All the best
Micro Leadership Academy


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To be a successful TE which of these are right

    • A.

      Doctor selection and in clinic performance with call average of 12 per day.

    • B.

      Developing Relationship

    • C.

      Follow up and Implementation

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because being a successful TE requires a combination of factors. Doctor selection and in-clinic performance with a call average of 12 per day are important for providing quality healthcare services. Developing relationships with patients is crucial for building trust and ensuring patient satisfaction. Follow-up and implementation of treatment plans are necessary to monitor progress and achieve positive outcomes. Therefore, all of these factors are essential for a TE to be successful.

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  • 2. 

    RCPA comprises of which of the following actions

    • A.

      Doctor and Product Survey- Quantification is important.

    • B.

      Product Survey

    • C.

      Competitor’s data and use of personal relationship to influence

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that RCPA comprises all of the mentioned actions, which include Doctor and Product Survey- Quantification is important, Product Survey, and Competitor's data and use of personal relationship to influence.

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  • 3. 

    Good detailng includes

    • A.

      Verbatem of Detailng

    • B.

      Voice modulation, Body Language

    • C.

      VAF handling & proper usage of pointer

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Good detailing includes all of the mentioned factors - verbatim of detailing, voice modulation, body language, and VAF handling & proper usage of pointer. Verbatim of detailing refers to accurately presenting the information without any deviation. Voice modulation and body language help in effectively conveying the message and keeping the audience engaged. VAF handling and proper usage of pointer ensure smooth navigation and clear communication during the presentation. Therefore, all of these factors contribute to good detailing.

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  • 4. 

    Input should be Given to which Dr?

    • A.

      Any of the Dr of your list

    • B.

      As per organisation strategy

    • C.

      Core Dr only

    • D.

      Only for conversion call.

    Correct Answer
    B. As per organisation strategy
    Explanation
    The given answer suggests that the input should be given to a Dr based on the organization's strategy. This means that the decision of which Dr to choose depends on the organization's goals, objectives, and overall strategy. It implies that the organization has a specific plan in place for assigning tasks or responsibilities to different Drs based on their expertise or availability.

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  • 5. 

    Why does a TE needs to do a call closing?

    • A.

      To demand prescription

    • B.

      To remind the brand

    • C.

      To thank the Dr

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. To demand prescription
    Explanation
    A TE needs to do a call closing to demand prescription because it is an essential part of the sales process in the pharmaceutical industry. By requesting a prescription, the TE is ensuring that the doctor is aware of the specific medication and dosage that should be prescribed to patients. This helps in promoting the brand and increasing sales. Additionally, demanding a prescription also ensures that the medication is being used safely and appropriately, as it requires the professional judgment of a healthcare provider.

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  • 6. 

    Importance of post call analysis

    • A.

      Helps us to check Dr intrest, validate our Rcpa findings and helps us to check effectivness of the input and our communication

    • B.

      Helps us to meet Drs once in 2 months if we think the Dr will start prescribing our poduct

    • C.

      Generally it is Ams job, I need to just do field work

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Helps us to check Dr intrest, validate our Rcpa findings and helps us to check effectivness of the input and our communication
    Explanation
    The post-call analysis is important because it allows us to assess the interest of the doctors, validate our RCPA findings, and evaluate the effectiveness of our input and communication. This analysis helps us understand if the doctors are genuinely interested in our product, if our RCPA findings are accurate, and if our communication strategies are effective. It is crucial for ensuring that we are making progress in our interactions with doctors and improving our approach.

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  • 7. 

    How can a TE earn Incentives

    • A.

      Just by meeting Dr

    • B.

      Meeting the Dr , Tgt Acheivment

    • C.

      Meeting the Dr , Tgt Acheivment & Minimum Growth as per the oragnisation norms

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Meeting the Dr , Tgt Acheivment & Minimum Growth as per the oragnisation norms
    Explanation
    A TE (territory executive) can earn incentives by meeting the doctor, achieving the target, and also by achieving minimum growth as per the organization norms. This means that the TE must not only meet the doctor and achieve the target, but also show growth in their performance that meets the organization's set standards. By meeting all these criteria, the TE becomes eligible for earning incentives.

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  • 8. 

    Maxminum amount of money can be earned / month in Work Norm Incentive

    • A.

      1000

    • B.

      2000

    • C.

      1500

    • D.

      3000

    Correct Answer
    C. 1500
    Explanation
    The maximum amount of money that can be earned per month in the Work Norm Incentive is 1500. This means that no matter how much effort or work is put in, the maximum reward that can be received is 1500. It is possible that there are certain limitations or restrictions in place that prevent earning more than this amount.

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  • 9. 

    What is the full form of RCPA?

    • A.

      Retail Chemist Product Availablity

    • B.

      Retail Chemist Prescription Audit

    • C.

      Retail Counter product Audit

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    B. Retail Chemist Prescription Audit
    Explanation
    RCPA stands for Retail Chemist Prescription Audit. This term refers to the process of auditing and analyzing prescription data in retail pharmacies. It involves reviewing and evaluating the prescriptions filled at a pharmacy to ensure accuracy, compliance with regulations, and proper dispensing of medications. The RCPA helps identify any discrepancies or issues in prescription filling and provides valuable insights for improving the quality of pharmacy services.

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  • 10. 

    RCPA should be done

    • A.

      After Dr Call

    • B.

      At the end of the Day working

    • C.

      Both 1 & 2

    • D.

      Before Dr Call

    Correct Answer
    D. Before Dr Call
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Before Dr Call". RCPA, which stands for Routine Complete Physical Assessment, should be done before Dr Call. This implies that the physical assessment should be conducted prior to the doctor's consultation or examination. It is important to gather all necessary information about the patient's condition before the doctor's evaluation in order to provide accurate and comprehensive care.

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  • 11. 

    RCPA should start with

    • A.

      POB

    • B.

      Servicing

    • C.

      Taking information

    • D.

      Introduction & Rapport building

    Correct Answer
    D. Introduction & Rapport building
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Introduction & Rapport building. This is because when starting an RCPA (Request for Proposal and Cost Analysis) process, it is important to first introduce oneself and establish a rapport with the client. This helps in building trust and creating a positive relationship, which is crucial for effective communication and collaboration throughout the process. It sets the foundation for a successful partnership and ensures that both parties are on the same page.

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  • 12. 

    In rapport building we should do

    • A.

      Introduce ourself

    • B.

      Ask the name of the Retailer

    • C.

      Do not greet him

    • D.

      Both A & B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A & B
    Explanation
    In rapport building, it is important to introduce ourselves and ask the name of the retailer. These actions help create a friendly and personal connection with the retailer, which is essential for building a good rapport. By introducing ourselves, we establish our identity and show our willingness to engage in a conversation. Asking the retailer's name not only shows respect but also helps in addressing them correctly and creating a more personalized interaction. Therefore, both options A and B are necessary steps in rapport building.

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  • 13. 

    During RCPA need to ask about

    • A.

      Quantified information of our Brand

    • B.

      Quantified information of Competitor Brand

    • C.

      Pack & Price of Competitor Brand

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above
    Explanation
    During RCPA (Retail Chemist Prescription Audit), it is necessary to ask about the quantified information of our brand to understand its performance in the market. Additionally, quantified information of competitor brands is important to analyze their market share and compare it with our brand. Moreover, knowing the pack and price of competitor brands helps in understanding their pricing strategy and positioning in the market. Therefore, all of the mentioned options are essential during RCPA.

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  • 14. 

    RCPA is helpful to

    • A.

      Select a right customer for Right Brand

    • B.

      Know the habit of Presciption of Dr

    • C.

      Plan a Strategy

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above
    Explanation
    RCPA stands for Retail Customer Purchase Analysis. It is a tool that helps businesses in selecting the right customer for the right brand, understanding the prescription habits of doctors, and planning a strategy. By analyzing customer purchase data, businesses can identify their target audience, tailor their marketing efforts, and develop effective strategies to increase sales and customer satisfaction. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 15. 

    During Retail call we need to give information to retailer about

    • A.

      Mechanism of action of the Brand

    • B.

      USP's of the Brand

    • C.

      Bonus

    • D.

      Indications

    Correct Answer
    C. Bonus
    Explanation
    During a retail call, it is important to provide information to the retailer about various aspects of the brand. This includes explaining the mechanism of action of the brand, highlighting its unique selling points (USPs), and discussing the indications for its use. However, the given correct answer, "Bonus," does not fit within the context of the question. It is unclear what the bonus refers to and how it relates to providing information to the retailer. Therefore, an explanation for the correct answer is not available.

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  • 16. 

    If a brand is lying at chemist and not moving then we should

    • A.

      Ignore it

    • B.

      Liquidate it

    • C.

      Ask the chemist to return

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    B. Liquidate it
    Explanation
    If a brand is lying at a chemist and not moving, the best course of action would be to liquidate it. This means to sell off the brand or its assets in order to convert them into cash. This could be done to recover any investments made in the brand or to cut losses if the brand is not performing well. Ignoring the brand would not address the issue, and asking the chemist to return it may not be feasible or effective.

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  • 17. 

    To know the Potential of a Dr by RCPA we need to

    • A.

      Need to analyze the Rx wise and Value wise sales of our brand

    • B.

      Need to analyze the Rx wise and Value wise sales of our brand & Competitor Brand

    • C.

      Both A & B

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A & B
    Explanation
    To know the potential of a doctor by RCPA, we need to analyze the Rx wise and Value wise sales of our brand. This will give us insights into the sales performance of our brand and help us understand the market demand for our product. Additionally, we also need to analyze the Rx wise and Value wise sales of competitor brands. This comparison will allow us to assess our brand's performance in relation to the competition and identify any gaps or areas of improvement. Therefore, both options A and B are necessary to accurately determine the potential of a doctor by RCPA.

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  • 18. 

    If retailer is Busy with patient then

    • A.

      We should leave the chemist

    • B.

      We should continue to take Info.

    • C.

      We should wait untill he is free

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    C. We should wait untill he is free
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that we should wait until the retailer is free. This means that if the retailer is busy with a patient, we should patiently wait for our turn and not leave the chemist or continue to take information. Waiting until the retailer is free ensures that we can receive the necessary assistance or information from them.

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  • 19. 

    We should meet the Retailer

    • A.

      On our convenient time

    • B.

      Any Time

    • C.

      On his convenient time

    • D.

      None of Above

    Correct Answer
    C. On his convenient time
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "On his convenient time." This means that when meeting with the retailer, it should be scheduled based on their availability and convenience. This suggests that the retailer's schedule should be taken into consideration and the meeting should be arranged at a time that works best for them.

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  • 20. 

    During Retailer call Pob can ensure

    • A.

      Availablity of YourBrand

    • B.

      Prescription does not get bounced

    • C.

      Both A & B

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A & B
    Explanation
    During a retailer call, Pob can ensure both the availability of YourBrand and that prescriptions do not get bounced. This means that Pob can make sure that the retailer has sufficient stock of YourBrand products and can also provide assistance to prevent any issues with prescriptions being rejected or returned.

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  • 21. 

    After taking the POB we should ensure the

    • A.

      Hand over the order copy to stockist

    • B.

      Supply of goods

    • C.

      Follow-up for confirming if stocks received by chemist

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    After taking the POB (Purchase Order Book), it is important to ensure that the order copy is handed over to the stockist, the supply of goods is made, and follow-up is done to confirm if the stocks have been received by the chemist. All of these actions are necessary to complete the process and ensure that the order is successfully fulfilled.

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  • 22. 

    RCPA will help in

    • A.

      Post call analysis

    • B.

      Precall Planning

    • C.

      Day's planning

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Precall Planning
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Precall Planning." RCPA stands for "Remote Call Planning and Analysis," and it is a tool or process that aids in planning and analyzing sales calls remotely. It helps sales representatives prepare for their calls by providing them with information about the customer, their needs, and potential objections. This allows the salesperson to tailor their approach and increase the chances of a successful call. Therefore, RCPA is specifically designed for precall planning rather than post call analysis or day's planning.

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  • 23. 

    The only Sulphonyl Urea which is Cardioprotective

    • A.

      Glimepride

    • B.

      Glibenclamide

    • C.

      Gliclazide

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Glimepride
    Explanation
    Glimepride is the only Sulphonyl Urea that is cardioprotective. Cardioprotective means that it has the ability to protect the heart from damage and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Glibenclamide and Gliclazide, on the other hand, do not have this cardioprotective effect. Therefore, the correct answer is Glimepride.

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  • 24. 

    The Cardioprotective effect of  Sparing or not altering the normal protective effect which is called

    • A.

      Heart protection

    • B.

      Myocardial Infarction

    • C.

      Ischemia

    • D.

      Ischemic PreConditioning

    Correct Answer
    D. Ischemic PreConditioning
    Explanation
    Ischemic PreConditioning refers to the phenomenon where brief periods of ischemia (lack of blood flow) followed by reperfusion (restoration of blood flow) can protect the heart from subsequent prolonged ischemic injury. This process triggers a series of protective mechanisms within the heart, such as activation of signaling pathways and release of protective molecules, which help to reduce the damage caused by a heart attack or myocardial infarction. Therefore, Ischemic PreConditioning is the correct answer as it describes the process of sparing or not altering the normal protective effect of the heart during ischemia.

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  • 25. 

    Glimepride does not cause hypoglycemia episode 

    • A.

      Because its glycemia sensitive

    • B.

      Because it causes hyperglycemia

    • C.

      Because it has no insulin sensitiser action

    • D.

      Because it has insulin sensitive action

    Correct Answer
    A. Because its glycemia sensitive
    Explanation
    Glimepride does not cause hypoglycemia episodes because it is glycemia sensitive. This means that it helps regulate blood sugar levels by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas only when blood sugar levels are high. It does not have a direct insulin sensitizing action, but rather works by enhancing the body's own insulin production and release. Therefore, it does not cause a sudden drop in blood sugar levels that can lead to hypoglycemia.

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  • 26. 

    Metformin is a insulin sensitiser. Which are the other OHAs which are insulin sensitiser

    • A.

      Pioglitazone

    • B.

      Glinides

    • C.

      Acarbose

    • D.

      Miglitol

    Correct Answer
    A. Pioglitazone
    Explanation
    Pioglitazone is a type of oral hypoglycemic agent (OHA) that belongs to the class of drugs called thiazolidinediones. Thiazolidinediones, including pioglitazone, work by increasing the sensitivity of cells to insulin, thereby improving the body's ability to use insulin effectively. This helps to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Glinides, acarbose, and miglitol are not insulin sensitizers but rather work through different mechanisms to help control blood glucose levels.

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  • 27. 

    Glinides:  Repaglinide, Mitiglinide andNataglinide

    • A.

      These are short acting agents with a mechanism of action similar to sulphonylureas as insulin secretagogues. These agents are very effective in reducing postprandial blood glucose.

    • B.

      These are Drugs that reduce the insulin resistance at the cellular level.

    • C.

      These are Drugs that act on insulin resistance at peripheral cells & alos have a lipid lowering profile.

    • D.

      "These Reversibly inhibits the alpha glucosidase enzymes responsible for the breaking down and absorption of carbohydrates"

    Correct Answer
    A. These are short acting agents with a mechanism of action similar to sulphonylureas as insulin secretagogues. These agents are very effective in reducing postprandial blood glucose.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that Glinides are short acting agents with a mechanism of action similar to sulphonylureas as insulin secretagogues. This means that they stimulate the pancreas to release insulin, which helps to lower blood sugar levels. They are particularly effective in reducing postprandial (after meal) blood glucose levels.

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  • 28. 

    Alphaglucosidase inhibitors: Voglibose, Acarbose, Miglitol

    • A.

      These are short acting agents with a mechanism of action similar to sulphonylureas as insulin secretagogues. These agents are very effective in reducing postprandial blood glucose.

    • B.

      These are Drugs that reduce the insulin resistance at the cellular level.

    • C.

      These are Drugs that act on insulin resistance at peripheral cells & alos have a lipid lowering profile.

    • D.

      "These Reversibly & competitively inhibits the alpha glucosidase enzymes responsible for the breaking down and absorption of carbohydrates"

    Correct Answer
    D. "These Reversibly & competitively inhibits the alpha glucosidase enzymes responsible for the breaking down and absorption of carbohydrates"
    Explanation
    Alphaglucosidase inhibitors such as Voglibose, Acarbose, and Miglitol work by reversibly and competitively inhibiting the alpha glucosidase enzymes responsible for breaking down and absorbing carbohydrates. This mechanism of action prevents the rapid increase in blood glucose levels after a meal by delaying the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the gut. By inhibiting these enzymes, these drugs effectively reduce postprandial blood glucose levels.

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  • 29. 

    Glitazones

    • A.

      These are short acting agents with a mechanism of action similar to sulphonylureas as insulin secretagogues. These agents are very effective in reducing postprandial blood glucose.

    • B.

      These are Drugs that reduce the insulin resistance at the cellular level.

    • C.

      These are Drugs that act on insulin resistance at peripheral cells & alos have a lipid lowering profile.

    • D.

      "These Reversibly & competitively inhibits the alpha glucosidase enzymes responsible for the breaking down and absorption of carbohydrates"

    Correct Answer
    C. These are Drugs that act on insulin resistance at peripheral cells & alos have a lipid lowering profile.
    Explanation
    Glitazones are drugs that act on insulin resistance at peripheral cells and also have a lipid lowering profile. They work by improving the sensitivity of cells to insulin, allowing for better glucose uptake and utilization. Additionally, they can help lower levels of triglycerides and increase levels of HDL cholesterol, which contributes to their lipid lowering effects. This makes glitazones beneficial for individuals with insulin resistance and dyslipidemia.

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  • 30. 

    Dipeptidyl Peptidase: IV inhibitors (DPP-IV inhibitors):- - Sitagliptin,Saxagliptin, Vildagliptin & Linagliptin.

    • A.

      These are short acting agents with a mechanism of action similar to sulphonylureas as insulin secretagogues. These agents are very effective in reducing postprandial blood glucose.

    • B.

      These are Drugs that reduce the insulin resistance at the cellular level.

    • C.

      These are Drugs that act on insulin resistance at peripheral cells & alos have a lipid lowering profile.

    • D.

      "They act by decreasing the breakdown of GLP-1 (Glucagon like Peptide) by extending the half life of endogenous GLP – 1. "

    Correct Answer
    D. "They act by decreasing the breakdown of GLP-1 (Glucagon like Peptide) by extending the half life of endogenous GLP – 1. "
    Explanation
    Dipeptidyl Peptidase-IV (DPP-IV) inhibitors, such as Sitagliptin, Saxagliptin, Vildagliptin, and Linagliptin, work by reducing the breakdown of GLP-1 (Glucagon-like Peptide) in the body. GLP-1 is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by stimulating insulin release and reducing glucagon secretion. By extending the half-life of GLP-1, DPP-IV inhibitors enhance its effects, leading to improved blood glucose control. This mechanism of action is different from drugs that reduce insulin resistance or have a lipid-lowering profile.

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  • 31. 

    There are mainly two reasons for Type 2 diabetes

    • A.

      Micro and Macro Vascular Complications

    • B.

      ID & IR

    • C.

      Peripheral Arterial Disease and Stroke

    • D.

      Diet and Exercise

    Correct Answer
    B. ID & IR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ID & IR". This refers to Insulin Deficiency (ID) and Insulin Resistance (IR), which are the two main reasons for Type 2 diabetes. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels in the body. Insulin Deficiency occurs when the body does not produce enough insulin, while Insulin Resistance happens when the body's cells do not respond properly to insulin. Both of these factors contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes.

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  • 32. 

    Microvascular Complications 

    • A.

      Neuropathy

    • B.

      Retinopathy

    • C.

      Neuropathy

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Above" because microvascular complications can lead to various conditions such as neuropathy and retinopathy. Neuropathy refers to nerve damage, which can cause symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and pain in the affected areas. Retinopathy, on the other hand, refers to damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision problems and even blindness. Therefore, all of these conditions are potential complications of microvascular issues.

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  • 33. 

    Macrovascular Complications 

    • A.

      Peripheral Arterial Disease

    • B.

      Stroke

    • C.

      All of the Above

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Above" because macrovascular complications refer to the complications that occur in the large blood vessels, such as peripheral arterial disease and stroke. Peripheral arterial disease is a condition where there is a narrowing or blockage of the blood vessels that supply blood to the legs, arms, stomach, or kidneys. Stroke is a condition where there is a disruption of blood supply to the brain, leading to brain damage. Therefore, all of these conditions are considered macrovascular complications.

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  • 34. 

    Peripheral Resistance is dependent

    • A.

      Size of the lumen of blood vessel

    • B.

      Elasticity of the lumen

    • C.

      Velocity and Viscosity of the blood

    • D.

      Velocity and Viscosity of the blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Velocity and Viscosity of the blood
    Explanation
    Peripheral resistance refers to the resistance that the blood encounters as it flows through the blood vessels. It is dependent on factors such as the size of the lumen of the blood vessel, the elasticity of the lumen, and the velocity and viscosity of the blood. However, the correct answer is velocity and viscosity of the blood. This is because the velocity of the blood affects the pressure exerted on the blood vessel walls, while the viscosity of the blood affects the friction between the blood and the blood vessel walls. Both of these factors contribute to the overall resistance encountered by the blood as it flows through the vessels.

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  • 35. 

    Blood Pressure is 

    • A.

      BP = CO X PR

    • B.

      BP= CO X SV

    • C.

      BP= CO X HR

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. BP = CO X PR
    Explanation
    Blood Pressure (BP) is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. It is influenced by two main factors: cardiac output (CO) and peripheral resistance (PR). Cardiac output refers to the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, while peripheral resistance refers to the resistance encountered by the blood flow in the blood vessels. The correct answer, BP = CO X PR, represents the relationship between these two factors in determining blood pressure.

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  • 36. 

    Cardiac Output 

    • A.

      CO = SV X HR

    • B.

      CO = BP X PR

    • C.

      CO= PR/ BP

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CO = SV X HR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CO = SV X HR. Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped by the heart with each beat) by the heart rate (the number of beats per minute). This formula accurately represents the relationship between stroke volume and heart rate in determining cardiac output. The other options, CO = BP X PR and CO = PR/ BP, do not accurately represent the relationship between stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output.

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  • 37. 

    Arteriosclerosis, 

    • A.

      "is the reduction in blood flow through the arteries caused by greasy deposits called plaque that form on the insides of arteries and partially restrict the flow of blood."

    • B.

      "commonly known as hardening of the arteries, the walls of the arteries thicken, harden, and lose their elasticity. The heart must work harder than normal to deliver"

    • C.

      Both of above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. "commonly known as hardening of the arteries, the walls of the arteries thicken, harden, and lose their elasticity. The heart must work harder than normal to deliver"
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly explains arteriosclerosis as the condition where the walls of the arteries thicken, harden, and lose their elasticity, commonly known as hardening of the arteries. This leads to the heart having to work harder than normal to deliver blood. The answer accurately describes the characteristics and effects of arteriosclerosis.

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  • 38. 

    Atherosclerosis, a form of arteriosclerosis, 

    • A.

      "is the reduction in blood flow through the arteries caused by greasy deposits called plaque that form on the insides of arteries and partially restrict the flow of blood."

    • B.

      "commonly known as hardening of the arteries, the walls of the arteries thicken, harden, and lose their elasticity. The heart must work harder than normal to deliver"

    • C.

      Both of above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. "is the reduction in blood flow through the arteries caused by greasy deposits called plaque that form on the insides of arteries and partially restrict the flow of blood."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the reduction in blood flow through the arteries caused by greasy deposits called plaque that form on the insides of arteries and partially restrict the flow of blood." This answer accurately describes atherosclerosis, which is a specific type of arteriosclerosis characterized by the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow. The other statement about hardening of the arteries is a general description of arteriosclerosis, but it does not specifically address the reduction in blood flow caused by plaque buildup. Therefore, the correct answer is the one that specifically mentions the reduction in blood flow caused by plaque.

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  • 39. 

    Causes of CHF

    • A.

      HTN & CAD

    • B.

      Cardiomyopathy

    • C.

      Valvular Heart Disease / Adult Congenital Heart Disease

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Above" because all of the listed causes are known to contribute to the development of congestive heart failure (CHF). Hypertension (HTN) and coronary artery disease (CAD) can lead to the weakening of the heart muscle and impaired pumping function, which can eventually result in CHF. Cardiomyopathy is a condition that directly affects the heart muscle and can cause it to become weak and unable to effectively pump blood. Valvular heart disease and adult congenital heart disease can also lead to CHF by causing abnormalities in the heart valves or the structure of the heart.

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  • 40. 

    Symptoms of LVH

    • A.

      Increasing shortness of breath with activity and while lying flat

    • B.

      " cough, palpitations, fatigue"

    • C.

      "decreased urine production and waking in the middle of the nigh with difficulty breathing"

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The symptoms listed in the question are common signs of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). LVH is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the walls of the left ventricle of the heart. This can lead to symptoms such as increasing shortness of breath with activity and while lying flat, cough, palpitations, fatigue, decreased urine production, and waking in the middle of the night with difficulty breathing. Therefore, all of the above symptoms are associated with LVH.

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  • 41. 

    Causes of MI or Heart Attack

    • A.

      Extreme stress or physical exertion

    • B.

      Gradual buildup of fat-containing substances (plaque) in the walls of the arteries can erupt and cause a blood clot (thrombus) which causes a sudden clogging of the coronary arteries.

    • C.

      All of the Above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The given answer "All of the Above" is correct because both extreme stress or physical exertion and the gradual buildup of plaque in the arteries can cause a heart attack. Extreme stress or physical exertion can lead to a sudden increase in heart rate and blood pressure, which can trigger a heart attack. On the other hand, the gradual buildup of plaque in the arteries can eventually rupture and form a blood clot, leading to a sudden blockage of the coronary arteries and causing a heart attack. Therefore, both factors can contribute to the occurrence of a heart attack.

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  • 42. 

    What is the changed perspective in management of T2DM in Indian patients?

    • A.

      The Glycemic Pentad :- Addition of Glycemic Variability & QoL alongwith HbA1c , PPBG, FBG

    • B.

      HbA1c, PPBG, FBG

    • C.

      Quality of Life

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The Glycemic Pentad :- Addition of Glycemic Variability & QoL alongwith HbA1c , PPBG, FBG
    Explanation
    The changed perspective in the management of T2DM in Indian patients is the addition of Glycemic Variability and Quality of Life (QoL) along with the traditional markers, HbA1c, PPBG, and FBG. This means that healthcare professionals now consider not only the blood sugar levels but also the variability in those levels and the impact on the patient's quality of life. This holistic approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the disease and better management strategies.

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  • 43. 

    What is Glycemic Variability we talk with doctors this cycle in Tripride HV & Tripride LV communication?

    • A.

      The acute fluctuations of Blood Glucose (Hyperglycemia and Hypoglycemia episodes intra day and interday)

    • B.

      Uncontrolled PPBG only

    • C.

      Starchy diet only

    • D.

      Dual Therapy Failure

    Correct Answer
    A. The acute fluctuations of Blood Glucose (Hyperglycemia and Hypoglycemia episodes intra day and interday)
    Explanation
    Glycemic Variability refers to the acute fluctuations of blood glucose levels, including episodes of both hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) that occur throughout the day and from day to day. This can be a concern in patients with uncontrolled postprandial blood glucose levels, as well as those who consume a starchy diet or have experienced dual therapy failure.

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  • 44. 

    What is Quality of Life impacted by as we discuss in The Glycemic Pentad - concept of Tripride HV & Tripride LV ?

    • A.

      Lifestyle restrictions

    • B.

      Multiple Pill Burden & Side Effects

    • C.

      Complications (Micro & Macrovascular)

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The quality of life is impacted by lifestyle restrictions, multiple pill burden and side effects, as well as complications (micro and macrovascular) in the context of the Glycemic Pentad - concept of Tripride HV & Tripride LV. These factors can affect a person's ability to engage in activities they enjoy, their overall well-being, and their physical health. Therefore, all of the above options contribute to the impact on quality of life.

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  • 45. 

    'Tripride HV & Tripride LV , a Fixed Dose Combination of Glimepride Metformin & Voglibose 

    • A.

      Addresses HbA1c , PPBG, FBG

    • B.

      Address all criterias of Glycemic Pentad: GV, QoL, HbA1c , PPBG, FBG

    • C.

      Addresses Quality of Life and Glycemic Variability

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Address all criterias of Glycemic Pentad: GV, QoL, HbA1c , PPBG, FBG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Address all criterias of Glycemic Pentad: GV, QoL, HbA1c , PPBG, FBG." This answer is correct because the given statement mentions that Tripride HV & Tripride LV address HbA1c, PPBG, and FBG, which are three out of the five criteria of the Glycemic Pentad. The Glycemic Pentad includes glycemic variability (GV), quality of life (QoL), HbA1c, postprandial blood glucose (PPBG), and fasting blood glucose (FBG). Since the statement mentions three out of the five criteria, it can be inferred that Tripride HV & Tripride LV address all the criteria of the Glycemic Pentad.

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  • 46. 

    Diapride M brand promise 

    • A.

      Glycemic Sensitive

    • B.

      Glycemic Durability

    • C.

      Matchless

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Matchless
    Explanation
    The brand promise of Diapride M is "Matchless". This suggests that the product is unparalleled or incomparable to other similar products in the market. It implies that Diapride M offers unique features, benefits, or qualities that set it apart from its competitors. The brand aims to convey that choosing Diapride M will provide consumers with an exceptional experience that cannot be found elsewhere.

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  • 47. 

    Diapride (VA Opener page) theme for New VA 

    • A.

      3S : Superior, Smarter, Safer

    • B.

      4S: Superior , Smarter, Sensible, Sensitive

    • C.

      4S: Superior , Smarter, Sensible, Safer

    • D.

      5S: Superior, Smarter, Safer, Sensitive, Sensible

    Correct Answer
    A. 3S : Superior, Smarter, Safer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3S: Superior, Smarter, Safer. This answer aligns with the theme of the Diapride (VA Opener page) by emphasizing the qualities of being superior, smarter, and safer. These traits suggest that the product or service being offered is of high quality, intelligent, and prioritizes safety.

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  • 48. 

    Brand Promise of Tripride HV & Tripride LV , a Fixed Dose Combination of Glimepride Metformin & Voglibose 

    • A.

      For Glycemic Pentad On Target

    • B.

      For Glycemic Variability

    • C.

      For Quality of Life

    • D.

      For HbA1c, PPBG, FBG, GV, QoL goals

    Correct Answer
    A. For Glycemic Pentad On Target
    Explanation
    The brand promise of Tripride HV & Tripride LV, a fixed dose combination of Glimepride Metformin & Voglibose, is to achieve glycemic pentad on target. This means that the medication aims to effectively control five key aspects of glycemic management, including HbA1c, postprandial blood glucose (PPBG), fasting blood glucose (FBG), glycemic variability (GV), and overall quality of life (QoL). By addressing these parameters, Tripride HV & Tripride LV aims to provide comprehensive glycemic control and improve the overall well-being of individuals with diabetes.

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  • 49. 

    Brand Promise of Telrose  

    • A.

      CardioProtection

    • B.

      Renal Protection

    • C.

      A promise to Protect

    • D.

      Cardiorenal protection

    Correct Answer
    C. A promise to Protect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A promise to Protect." This answer suggests that Telrose offers a guarantee or assurance to protect something, possibly referring to the cardiovascular and renal systems. It implies that Telrose is committed to safeguarding the health and well-being of these organs.

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  • 50. 

    'Brand Promise of Pregator 

    • A.

      Scores on Total Neuropathy Care

    • B.

      Total Neuropathy care

    • C.

      Total 360 care

    • D.

      Complete care

    Correct Answer
    A. Scores on Total Neuropathy Care
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Scores on Total Neuropathy Care" because it aligns with the concept of a brand promise. A brand promise is a statement that communicates the unique value and benefits that a brand offers to its customers. In this case, the brand promise of Pregator is to provide comprehensive care for neuropathy. The phrase "Scores on Total Neuropathy Care" suggests that the brand measures and evaluates the effectiveness of their care in improving the condition of neuropathy. This aligns with the idea of providing complete care and reflects the brand's commitment to delivering high-quality services.

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