Daily Updates Mock Test 127
MOCK TEST 127
SYLLABUS : INDIAN CONSTITUTION & INDIAN ECONOMY
TIME : 20 MINUTES FULL MARKS : 50*3 =150
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 3 MARKS , -VE MARKING = - 1 / WRONG ANSWER
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- 1.
The jurisdiction covering the Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under the supervision of __:
- A.
A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
- B.
A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
- C.
A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair
- D.
A circuit bench of Supreme Court of India at Port Blair
Correct Answer
C. A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair -
- 2.
How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?
- A.
10 Years
- B.
12 Years
- C.
15 Years
- D.
20 Years
Correct Answer
A. 10 Years -
- 3.
Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?
- A.
63rd Amendment Act
- B.
69th Amendment Act
- C.
74th Amendment Act
- D.
76th Amendment Act
Correct Answer
B. 69th Amendment Act -
- 4.
Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India?
- A.
It is an independent and statutory body.
- B.
It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
- C.
It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties.
- D.
Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram Panchayats and State Muncipalities.
Correct Answer
B. It consists of members having a tenure of six years. -
- 5.
Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament? 1) If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government. 2) If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State. 3) If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule. 4) If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law. Choose the correct option:
- A.
Only 2
- B.
Only 4
- C.
1 and 4
- D.
1,2 and 4
Correct Answer
B. Only 4Explanation
Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP: (1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament- (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State. (2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of
- A.
Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
- B.
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
- C.
Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
- D.
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Correct Answer
B. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and MizoramExplanation
The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which has been dealt separately in 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has to be amended to provide for the formation of a new State ?
- A.
First Schedule
- B.
Second Schedule
- C.
Third Schedule
- D.
Ninth Schedule
Correct Answer
A. First Schedule -
- 8.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the States through:
- A.
Appellate Jurisdiction
- B.
Original Jurisdiction
- C.
Advisory Jurisdiction
- D.
Writ Jurisdiction
Correct Answer
B. Original Jurisdiction -
- 9.
Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?
- A.
Lok Sabha
- B.
Rajya Sabha
- C.
State Legislative Assemblies
- D.
State Legislative Councils
Correct Answer
C. State Legislative Assemblies -
- 10.
The Swaran Singh Committee recommended :
- A.
The Constitution of State-Level Election Commissions.
- B.
Panchayati-Raj reforms.
- C.
Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
- D.
Interlinking of himalayan and peninsular rivers.
Correct Answer
C. Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.Explanation
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975-1977). The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution. It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well. The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The ” Bill of rights and Judicial Review” are borrowed from which of the following countries constitution ?
- A.
USA
- B.
UK
- C.
Germany
- D.
Australia
Correct Answer
A. USA -
- 12.
Civil cases, Criminal Cases and constitutional cases come under which of the following jurisdiction?
- A.
Appellate Jurisdiction
- B.
Advisory Jurisdiction
- C.
Miscellaneous Powers
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Appellate JurisdictionExplanation
Supreme Court is the Highest Court of appeal and the writs and decrees of Supreme Court run throughout the country. The cases come to the Supreme Court in the form of appeals against the judgments of the lower courts and this is called appellate jurisdiction. Appellate jurisdiction involves the Constitution, Civil and criminal matters.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which among the following committee related to backward Classes?
- A.
Rajamannar Committee
- B.
Sarkaria Commission
- C.
Kaka Kalelkar Commission
- D.
Rangarajan committee
Correct Answer
C. Kaka Kalelkar CommissionExplanation
In 1953, the central government established a Backwards Classes Commission under Kalelkar’s chairmanship with the charter to recommend reforms for removing inequities for underprivileged people. The Commission issued its report in 1955, recommending, among other things, that the government grant special privileges to untouchables and other underprivileged peopleRate this question:
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- 14.
Reservation of seats for scheduled tribes of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, & Arunanchal Pradesh in Lok Sabha was a broad subject of which of the following Amendment Acts?
- A.
52nd
- B.
57th
- C.
61st
- D.
65th
Correct Answer
B. 57th -
- 15.
Who among the following is related to ” Servants of India Society”?
- A.
Gopal Krishna Gokhle
- B.
Dadabhai Nauroji
- C.
Raja Ram Mohan roy
- D.
Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer
A. Gopal Krishna GokhleExplanation
Servants of India Society was founded in 1915 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale to build a dedicated group of people for social service and reforms. In the field of famine relief, union organisation, cooperatives and uplift of tribals and depressed, the Society did commendable work.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Arrange Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Kerala, Maharastra in correct chronological order of creation?
- A.
Maharastra, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
- B.
Kerala, Maharastra, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh
- C.
Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
- D.
Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, kerala
Correct Answer
C. Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, ManipurExplanation
Kerala (1956), Maharastra (1960), Himachal Pradesh (1970), Manipur (1971)Rate this question:
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- 17.
1.Consider the following statements: 1.The President is immune from any civil proceedings against him/her. 2.But after giving two months’ notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted againthe President. Which of the statement(s) given above is correct regarding the immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her ‘personal’ acts, during his/her ‘personal’ acts, during his/her tenure :
- A.
Only 1
- B.
Only 2
- C.
Both 1 and 2
- D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer
D. Neither 1 nor 2Explanation
The immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her personal acts, during his/her tenure is an exception to the fundamental right to equality (of treatment in similar circumstances and absence of any special privilege in favour of any individual) as mentioned in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. The President of India is immune from any criminal proceedings against him/her. But after giving 2 months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him/her.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of
- A.
Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
- B.
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
- C.
Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
- D.
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Correct Answer
B. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and MizoramExplanation
The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which has been dealt separately in 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament? 1.If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government. 2.If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State. 3.If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule. 4.If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law. Choose the correct option:
- A.
Only 2
- B.
Only 4
- C.
1 and 4
- D.
1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer
B. Only 4Explanation
Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP: (1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament- (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State. (2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.Rate this question:
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- 20.
.Consider the following Articles of the Constitution of India: 1. Article 72 – Pardoning power of the president 2. Article 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court 3. Article 360 – Provisions relating to Financial Emergency 4. Articles (148-151) – Powers and functions of the Attorney General of India Which among the above Articles are paired correctly with their respective provisions?
- A.
1 and 3
- B.
1, 2 and 3
- C.
1, 2 and 4
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
B. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
Article (148-151) are relating to the powers and functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India?
- A.
It is an independent and statutory body.
- B.
It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
- C.
It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties.
- D.
Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram Panchayats and State Muncipalities.
Correct Answer
B. It consists of members having a tenure of six years. -
- 22.
The highest body below the Parliament of India which is responsible for formulating policy matters regarding planning for social and economic welfare and development of our country is:
- A.
Planning Commission
- B.
Finance Commission
- C.
National Advisory Council
- D.
National Development Council
Correct Answer
D. National Development Council -
- 23.
Consider the following Indian Religious Communities: 1.Sikhs 2.Buddhists 3.Jains 4.Parsis Which among the above have been conferred the ‘minority’ status by the Government of India?
- A.
1 and 4
- B.
1, 2 and 4
- C.
2, 3 and 4
- D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer
B. 1, 2 and 4 -
- 24.
In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations?
- A.
1980
- B.
1983
- C.
1987
- D.
1992
Correct Answer
B. 1983 -
- 25.
Knesset is the name of the parliament of which country?
- A.
Israel
- B.
Lebanon
- C.
Tunisia
- D.
Egypt
Correct Answer
A. Israel -
- 26.
Which of the following schemes have been subsumed in the recently approved Ayushman Bharat – National Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM)?
- A.
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)
- B.
Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS)
- C.
National Life Insurance Scheme
- D.
1 & 2
Correct Answer
D. 1 & 2Explanation
Ayushman Bharat -National Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM) is a centrally sponsored scheme under Ayushman Bharat Mission. The scheme will provide insurance cover of Rs. 5 Lakh per family per year. The scheme will benefit more than 10 crore families belonging to poor and vulnerable population. AB-NHPM will subsume the on-going centrally sponsored schemes –Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS).Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is used to denote broad money?
- A.
M1
- B.
M2
- C.
M3
- D.
M4
Correct Answer
C. M3Explanation
Narrow Money M1 = Currency with the public + Demand Deposits of public in Banks When a third component viz. Post office Savings Deposits is also added to M1, it becomes M2. M2 = M1 + Post Office Savings.
Broad Money M3 = Narrow money + Time Deposits of public with banksRate this question:
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- 28.
Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI?
- A.
National Housing Bank
- B.
NABARD
- C.
Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited
- D.
SIDBI
Correct Answer
D. SIDBIExplanation
RBI has four subsidiaries viz. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation, DICGC; National Housing Bank; Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL) and NABARD.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which among the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy?
- A.
Bank Rate
- B.
Credit Ceiling
- C.
Credit rationing
- D.
Cash Reserve Ratio
Correct Answer
C. Credit rationingExplanation
The quantitative instruments are Open Market Operations, Liquidity Adjustment Facility (Repo and Reverse Repo), Marginal Standing Facility, SLR, CRR, Bank Rate, Credit Ceiling etc. On the other hand, qualitative instruments are: credit rationing, moral suasion and direct action (by RBI on banks).Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which among the following closest instrument to Gold ETF?
- A.
Debenture
- B.
G-Sec security
- C.
Mutual Fund
- D.
Commercial Paper
Correct Answer
C. Mutual FundExplanation
Gold ETFs (Paper Gold) are mutual fund schemes that invest in standard gold bullion (of 99.5% purity). The value of an ETF is based on price of gold. These are alternative to owning physical gold.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which among the following is NOT a pillar of Basel III?
- A.
Minimum capital standards
- B.
Supervisory review
- C.
Market discipline
- D.
Consolidation of assets
Correct Answer
D. Consolidation of assetsExplanation
The Basel III framework is based on 3 components called 3 pillars, which include:
Pillar 1 : Minimum capital standards,
Pillar 2 : Supervisory review and
Pillar 3 : Market discipline.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What term is used for maximum capital which the company can raise in its life time?
- A.
Authorized Capital
- B.
Registered Capital
- C.
Nominal Capital
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
D. All of them -
- 33.
Which among the following was the first bank purely managed by Indians?
- A.
Oudh Commercial Bank
- B.
Punjab National Bank
- C.
Bank of India
- D.
Allahabad bank
Correct Answer
B. Punjab National BankExplanation
The first Bank with Limited Liability to be managed by Indian Board was Oudh Commercial Bank. It was established in 1881 at Faizabad. This bank failed in 1958. The first bank purely managed by Indians was Punjab National Bank, established in Lahore in 1895Rate this question:
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- 34.
Inflation Indexed Bonds is pegged to ___?
- A.
WPI
- B.
CPI
- C.
Both WPI and CPI
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. WPI -
- 35.
Which of the following best defines a floating-rate bond?
- A.
A bond with a fixed interest rate and has better yield than varying interest rate bond
- B.
A bond with a fixed interest rate and has lower yield than varying interest rate bond
- C.
A bond with a varying interest rate and has better yield than fixed interest rate bond
- D.
A bond with a varying interest rate and has lower yield than fixed interest rate bond
Correct Answer
B. A bond with a fixed interest rate and has lower yield than varying interest rate bondExplanation
Floating rate bonds have variable interest rate and protect investors against a rise in interest rates (which have an inverse relationship with bond prices). They also carry lower yields than fixed notes of the same maturity.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In which among the following years, a new “Liberalized Industrial Policy” in India was announced for the first time?
- A.
1986
- B.
1991
- C.
1992
- D.
1993
Correct Answer
B. 1991 -
- 37.
In which among the following years, the MRTP act became effective?
- A.
1970
- B.
1972
- C.
1975
- D.
1978
Correct Answer
A. 1970Explanation
On the basis of recommendation of Dutt Committee, MRTP Act was enacted in 1969 to ensure that concentration of economic power in hands of few rich. The act was there to prohibit monopolistic and restrictive trade practices.
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP Act) was passed by Parliament of India on 18 December 1969 and got president’s assent on December 27, 1969. But it came into force from June 1, 1970.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In the Industrial Policy of 1991, how many industries were reserved only for Public Sector?
- A.
7
- B.
8
- C.
11
- D.
13
Correct Answer
B. 8Explanation
On July 24, 1991, Government of India announced its new industrial policy with an aim to correct the distortion and weakness of the Industrial Structure of the country that had developed in 4 decades; raise industrial efficiency to the international level; and accelerate industrial growth.
The number of industries reserved for public sector was reduced from 17 (as per 1956 policy) to only 8 industries viz. Arms and Ammunition, Atomic Energy, Coal, Mineral Oil, Mining of Iron Ore, Manganese Ore, Gold, Silver, Mining of Copper, Lead, Zinc, Atomic Minerals and Railways
Currently only two categories from the above viz. atomic energy and Railways are reserved for public sector.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In an oligopolistic or monopolistically competitive market, firms do not raise their prices because even a small price increase will lose many customers. Which among the following is the most suitable terms used for this concept ?
- A.
Supracompetitive pricing
- B.
Swing Demand
- C.
Kinked Demand
- D.
Imperfect competition
Correct Answer
C. Kinked Demand -
- 40.
Which among the following was NOT a reason behind India’s poverty as pointed out by Dadabhai Naoroji in his famous work “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” ?
- A.
Expenditure of the European Officials in England
- B.
Money sent by the British professionals to England
- C.
India’s Population growth
- D.
Bringing of British Capital in India
Correct Answer
C. India’s Population growthExplanation
In his work, Dadabhai did not accept that the Indian poverty was due to over population or the interplay of some economic laws as publicized by the British.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which among the following represents a decrease in the Owner’s equity?
- A.
Issue of Bonus Shares
- B.
Redemption of the Debentures
- C.
Redemption of the Preference Shares
- D.
Purchase of the Building
Correct Answer
B. Redemption of the Debentures -
- 42.
Which among the following will be a debit entry in India’s balance of payments?
- A.
Imports of goods by India
- B.
Income of Indian investments abroad
- C.
Receipts of transfer payments
- D.
Exports of services by India
Correct Answer
B. Income of Indian investments abroad -
- 43.
Which is not one of the salient features of ‘Annapurna Scheme’?
- A.
It was launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution in 2000-2001.
- B.
The beneficiaries of the Scheme are indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above.
- C.
10 kg of food grains per month are supplied free of cost to the target group.
- D.
From 2002-2003, the scheme has been transferred to State Plan along with the National Social Assistance Programme.
Correct Answer
A. It was launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution in 2000-2001. -
- 44.
Public Distribution System (PDS) means distribution of essential commodities to a large number of people through a network of Fair Price Shops on a recurring basis. The Commodities distributed under PDS are: (1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Sugar (4) Pulses (5) Kerosene Select the correct option:
- A.
1 ,2 and 4
- B.
1, 2, 3 and 4
- C.
1, 2, 3 and 5
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5Explanation
The commodities distributed under PDS are as follows :- • Wheat • Rice • Sugar • KeroseneRate this question:
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- 45.
Who operates the National Disaster Response Fund which was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
- A.
Prime Minister
- B.
Union Minister for Home Affairs
- C.
Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
- D.
Union Minister for Environment and Forests
Correct Answer
B. Union Minister for Home Affairs -
- 46.
The central nodal agency for implementing the price support operations for commercial crops is:
- A.
NAFED
- B.
NABARD
- C.
TRIFED
- D.
FCI
Correct Answer
A. NAFED -
- 47.
Which among the following decides the Saving Banks Account Interest Rate in India?
- A.
Ministry of Finance
- B.
RBI
- C.
Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
- D.
Banks themselves
Correct Answer
D. Banks themselves -
- 48.
Bring out the only statement, which is not fully correct:
- A.
An increase in the supply of money will always result in inflation
- B.
Inflation occurs when the value of money declines
- C.
Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover increased factor costs
- D.
Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes within a country
Correct Answer
A. An increase in the supply of money will always result in inflationExplanation
An increase in money supply will NOT Always result in inflation. An increase in the money supply can cause a sustained increase in real production instead of inflation in the aftermath of a recession, when many resources are underutilized.However, it should not be trapped in the financial system as excess reserves.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A Non-Resident Indian wants to get approval under Government Route for FDI in ‘Single Brand’ product retailing in India. Which among the following would be the appropriate agency to approach for this application?
- A.
Regional Office of Reserve Bank of India
- B.
Head Office of Reserve Bank of India
- C.
Department of Economic Affairs (Ministry of Finance)
- D.
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (Ministry of Commerce)
Correct Answer
D. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (Ministry of Commerce) -
- 50.
Tendulkar Committee report has revealed that in 2004-05, India’s poverty which was measured 27% at that time is actually increased more than 10% and actual poverty was 37% . Which among the following was the reason behind these two conflicting measures of poverty in India?
- A.
There was a discrepancy in the data’s collected at that time
- B.
The new poverty line measures poverty on a wider access to commodity and services like health and education and not calories
- C.
The calories definition of poverty has been changed by the world Bank
- D.
The government at that time misled the public on by showing the wrong figures
Correct Answer
B. The new poverty line measures poverty on a wider access to commodity and services like health and education and not calories -
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