GK, Vocabulary And Word Problems Quiz: Can You Pass This Mock Test?

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GK, Vocabulary And Word Problems Quiz: Can You Pass This Mock Test? - Quiz

Below is a GK, Vocabulary and Word Problems Quiz. Can You Pass This Mock Test? If you are feeling stuck reading for an exam or test one of the ways you can reactivate your mind is if you take a general knowledge quiz. Luck for you, the one below has worked wonders for many people. How about you give it a shot and see how well you will do!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following state has the highest percentage of forest cover in terms of area?

    • A.

      Jammu and Kashmir

    • B.

       Haryana

    • C.

      Madhya Pradesh

    • D.

      Uttar Pradesh

    Correct Answer
    C. Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation
    Madhya Pradesh has the highest percentage of forest cover in terms of area compared to Jammu and Kashmir, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh. This means that Madhya Pradesh has a larger proportion of its land covered by forests compared to the other states listed.

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  • 2. 

    The “Valley of Flowers” is located in?

    • A.

      Karakoram Range

    • B.

      Shivalik Range

    • C.

      Zanskar Range

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Zanskar Range
    Explanation
    The Valley of Flowers is located in the Zanskar Range. This range is part of the Himalayas and is known for its stunning natural beauty. The Valley of Flowers is a national park in India and is famous for its colorful meadows filled with a variety of alpine flowers. It is a popular tourist destination and attracts nature lovers and trekkers from around the world.

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  • 3. 

    The Keoladeo National Park is formerly known as?

    • A.

      Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary

    • B.

       Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary

    • C.

      Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary

    • D.

      Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary

    Correct Answer
    D. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
    Explanation
    The Keoladeo National Park is formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary.

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  • 4. 

    Namdapha National Park is one of the largest protected area situated in –

    • A.

      Eastern Himalaya

    • B.

      Western Himalaya

    • C.

      Greater Himalaya

    • D.

      Karakoram Himalaya

    Correct Answer
    A. Eastern Himalaya
    Explanation
    Namdapha National Park is located in the Eastern Himalaya. This region is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to various species of flora and fauna. The park covers a vast area and is one of the largest protected areas in the Eastern Himalaya region. It is known for its diverse range of habitats, including tropical rainforests, alpine meadows, and snow-capped peaks. The Eastern Himalaya region is characterized by its unique geographical features and is a hotspot for nature enthusiasts and wildlife lovers.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following was India’s First Biosphere Reserves?

    • A.

      Sundarban Biosphere Reserve

    • B.

      Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

    • C.

      Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

    • D.

      Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

    Correct Answer
    B. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
    Explanation
    Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was India's first biosphere reserve. It was established in 1986 and is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka. The reserve is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to several endangered species. It was recognized as a biosphere reserve by UNESCO due to its unique ecosystem and the conservation efforts in the region.

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  • 6. 

    Symbiotic Bacteria responsible for the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen are present in

    • A.

      Peas 

    • B.

      Wheat

    • C.

      Corn

    • D.

      Oats

    Correct Answer
    A. Peas 
    Explanation
    Symbiotic bacteria responsible for the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen are present in peas. Peas have a mutualistic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria called Rhizobia. These bacteria live in nodules on the roots of pea plants and convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use. This process, known as nitrogen fixation, helps to enrich the soil and provide essential nutrients for plant growth. Wheat, corn, and oats do not have the same symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria, so they do not have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen.

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  • 7. 

    The study of the relationship between the organisms and the environment is called as-

    • A.

      Genealogy

    • B.

      Ethrology

    • C.

      Ecology 

    • D.

       Iconology

    Correct Answer
    C. Ecology 
    Explanation
    Ecology is the correct answer because it is the branch of biology that focuses on the study of the relationship between organisms and their environment. It examines how organisms interact with each other and their surroundings, including the physical and biological factors that influence these interactions. Ecology plays a crucial role in understanding and managing ecosystems, conservation efforts, and addressing environmental issues.

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  • 8. 

    Who was the Chairman of the Partition Council?

    • A.

      M.A. Jinnah 

    • B.

      V.P. Menon

    • C.

      Jawaharlal Nehru

    • D.

      Lord Mountbatten

    Correct Answer
    D. Lord Mountbatten
    Explanation
    Lord Mountbatten was the Chairman of the Partition Council because he was appointed as the last Viceroy of India and was responsible for overseeing the partition of British India into two separate countries, India and Pakistan, in 1947. As the Chairman, he played a crucial role in the negotiations and decision-making process during this significant historical event.

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  • 9. 

    Who is the author of the book ‘India After Gandhi’?

    • A.

      Aurobindo 

    • B.

      Ramachandra Guha

    • C.

      Madhav Gadgil

    • D.

      Vinobha

    Correct Answer
    B. Ramachandra Guha
    Explanation
    Ramachandra Guha is the author of the book "India After Gandhi". This book provides a comprehensive account of India's history after its independence in 1947. Guha is a renowned Indian historian and writer who has extensively researched and written about various aspects of Indian history, politics, and society. His book "India After Gandhi" is widely regarded as a seminal work that analyzes the challenges and achievements of India's nation-building process in the post-independence era.

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  • 10. 

    “India Wins Freedom” is the autobiography of-

    • A.

      Abdul Kalam Azad 

    • B.

       Muhammad Ali

    • C.

      Zakir Hussain

    • D.

      Sayyed Ahmad Khan

    Correct Answer
    A. Abdul Kalam Azad 
    Explanation
    "India Wins Freedom" is the autobiography of Abdul Kalam Azad.

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  • 11. 

    Who among the following were the founder members of the Swarajya Party –

    • A.

      Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra bose

    • B.

       Sardar Patel and Abdul Kalam Azad

    • C.

      Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das
    Explanation
    Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das were the founder members of the Swarajya Party. The Swarajya Party was formed in 1923 as a political party in India, with the aim of achieving self-rule or Swaraj. Motilal Nehru was a prominent lawyer and leader in the Indian National Congress, and Chittaranjan Das was a lawyer and politician known for his role in the Indian independence movement. They both played important roles in the formation and functioning of the Swarajya Party, which advocated for the rights and autonomy of Indians under British rule.

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  • 12. 

    The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party was formed in?

    • A.

      February 1923

    • B.

      January 1923

    • C.

      January 1920

    • D.

      January 1927

    Correct Answer
    B. January 1923
    Explanation
    The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party was formed in January 1923.

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  • 13. 

    Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was proposed by?

    • A.

      Lord Dalhousie

    • B.

      Lord Minto

    • C.

      Lord Wellesley

    • D.

       Lord Lytton

    Correct Answer
    D.  Lord Lytton
    Explanation
    The Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was proposed by Lord Lytton. This act was enacted during the British colonial rule in India and aimed to control the vernacular press. It gave the government the power to confiscate printing presses, impose fines, and even imprison individuals involved in publishing material deemed seditious or defamatory. The act was highly criticized for curbing freedom of the press and suppressing nationalist sentiments in India.

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  • 14. 

    Match the following A. Brahmo Samaj 1. Pune B. Veda Samaj   2. Bengal C. Arya Samaj   3. Madras D. Satyashodhak Samaj  4. Bombay A B C D

    • A.

      1 3 2 4

    • B.

       3 2 4 1

    • C.

      2 4 1 3

    • D.

       2 3 4 1

    Correct Answer
    D.  2 3 4 1
  • 15. 

    Indian Home Rule League of Tilak was launched in –

    • A.

      April 1919

    • B.

      April 1916

    • C.

      June 1916

    • D.

      August 1916

    Correct Answer
    B. April 1916
    Explanation
    The Indian Home Rule League of Tilak was launched in April 1916. This organization was founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement. The league aimed to promote self-rule and independence for India from British colonial rule. Tilak believed in using nonviolent methods to achieve this goal and advocated for the rights and freedom of Indians. The league played a significant role in mobilizing public support and raising awareness about the need for Indian self-governance.

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  • 16. 

    The Simmon Commission was boy-cotted by Indians because-

    • A.

      It sought to curb civil liberties of the Indians

    • B.

      It proposed to partition India

    • C.

      It was an all-white commission without Indian representation

    • D.

      It proposed measures to contain nationalism

    Correct Answer
    C. It was an all-white commission without Indian representation
    Explanation
    The Simmon Commission was boycotted by Indians because it was an all-white commission without Indian representation. This lack of representation was seen as a clear indication of the British government's disregard for the opinions and rights of the Indian people. The boycott was a way for Indians to protest against the commission and show their dissatisfaction with the colonial rule. It also highlighted the growing demand for self-governance and the need for Indians to have a say in matters that directly affected them.

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  • 17. 

    Who was in favour of a partyless democracy?

    • A.

      Jai Prakash Narayan

    • B.

      S.A. Dange

    • C.

      Vinoba Bhave

    • D.

      Jawaharlal Nehru

    Correct Answer
    A. Jai Prakash Narayan
    Explanation
    Jai Prakash Narayan was in favour of a partyless democracy. He believed that political parties were corrupt and had lost touch with the needs of the people. Narayan advocated for a system where individuals would participate directly in decision-making processes without the influence of political parties. He believed that this would lead to a more inclusive and transparent democracy, where the voice of the people would be heard and respected. Narayan's ideology and activism played a significant role in the Indian political landscape during the 1970s.

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  • 18. 

    In which state was the first non-Congress Government set up in independent India?

    • A.

      Punjab

    • B.

      Kerela

    • C.

       Maharashtra

    • D.

      Bihar

    Correct Answer
    B. Kerela
    Explanation
    The first non-Congress Government was set up in Kerala. This was significant because it marked a shift in power from the dominant Congress party and showcased the possibility of alternative political parties governing in independent India. Kerala's Communist Party of India (CPI) led the government, known as the EMS Namboodiripad ministry, which was in power from 1957 to 1959. This event had a profound impact on Indian politics and paved the way for the emergence of regional and non-Congress parties in subsequent years.

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  • 19. 

    The Indian National Congress had passed “Non-Cooperation” resolution in 1920 at its session held at-

    • A.

      Lucknow

    • B.

       Delhi

    • C.

      Bombay 

    • D.

      Calcutta

    Correct Answer
    D. Calcutta
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Calcutta. The Indian National Congress passed the "Non-Cooperation" resolution in 1920 at its session held in Calcutta. This resolution was a significant step in the Indian independence movement as it aimed to boycott British goods, institutions, and services, and promote Indian self-reliance. The resolution also called for non-violent protests and civil disobedience against British rule. Calcutta, being a major center of political and intellectual activity during that time, was chosen as the location for this important session.

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  • 20. 

    The first president of the Indian National Congress was-

    • A.

      Dadabhai Naoroji

    • B.

      A.O. Hume

    • C.

       Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

    • D.

      Badruddin Tayyabji

    Correct Answer
    C.  Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
    Explanation
    Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was the first president of the Indian National Congress. He was elected as the president in 1885 during the first session of the Congress held in Bombay. Bonnerjee played a crucial role in the early years of the Indian National Congress and worked towards uniting the Indian people against British colonial rule. He was a prominent lawyer and a strong advocate for Indian self-governance. Bonnerjee's presidency marked the beginning of a significant political movement in India and laid the foundation for the future leaders of the Indian National Congress.

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  • 21. 

    James and Vaibhav are gamblers. Last year, the ratio between money lost by James and Vaibhav was 4 : 5. The ratios of their individual losses of the last year and present year are 3 : 5 and 2 : 3 respectively. If total loss incurred to both of them this year is Rs. 3,57,000 the present loss of James is:

    • A.

      1,70,000

    • B.

      1,59,00

    • C.

       1,68,000

    • D.

       1,37,000

    Correct Answer
    C.  1,68,000
    Explanation
    The ratio of money lost by James and Vaibhav last year was 4:5. This means that for every 4 units of money lost by James, Vaibhav lost 5 units.

    The ratio of their individual losses in the last year and present year are 3:5 and 2:3 respectively. This means that for every 3 units of money James lost in the last year, he lost 5 units in the present year.

    If we assume that James lost 3x units of money in the last year, then he lost 5x units in the present year.

    The total loss incurred by both of them this year is Rs. 3,57,000. Since James lost 5x units, we can set up the equation 5x + 5x = 3,57,000.

    Simplifying this equation, we find that x = 35,700.

    Therefore, James' present loss is 5x = 5 * 35,700 = Rs. 1,78,500.

    However, the given options do not include this amount. Therefore, the correct answer is not available.

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  • 22. 

    There would be a loss of 10% if an article is sold for 43.20. At what price should it be sold to gain 10%?

    • A.

      Rs. 48.80

    • B.

      Rs. 52.80

    • C.

      Rs. 56.20

    • D.

      Rs. 56.80

    Correct Answer
    B. Rs. 52.80
    Explanation
    To find the selling price to gain 10%, we need to calculate the original cost price. Since there is a loss of 10% when the article is sold for Rs. 43.20, we can calculate the original cost price as follows:

    Original cost price = Selling price / (1 - Loss %)
    Original cost price = 43.20 / (1 - 0.10)
    Original cost price = 43.20 / 0.90
    Original cost price = Rs. 48

    To calculate the selling price to gain 10%, we can use the formula:

    Selling price = Cost price + (Profit % * Cost price)
    Selling price = 48 + (0.10 * 48)
    Selling price = 48 + 4.80
    Selling price = Rs. 52.80

    Therefore, the article should be sold for Rs. 52.80 to gain 10%.

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  • 23. 

    The selling price of 8 articles is same as the cost price of 10 articles. What is profit%

    • A.

      25%

    • B.

       30%

    • C.

      22%

    • D.

      33%

    Correct Answer
    A. 25%
    Explanation
    If the selling price of 8 articles is the same as the cost price of 10 articles, it means that the cost price of each article is 10/8 times the selling price of each article. To calculate the profit percentage, we need to find the difference between the selling price and the cost price, which is (10/8 - 1) times the cost price. Simplifying this expression gives us 1/8 times the cost price. To convert this into a percentage, we multiply it by 100, resulting in a profit percentage of 12.5%. Therefore, the correct answer is 25%.

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  • 24. 

    A merchant marks an article 20% above cost price. Then he sells it at a discount of 20%. The sale gives him:

    • A.

      No loss or gian

    • B.

      4% loss

    • C.

      2% gain

    • D.

      4% gain

    Correct Answer
    B. 4% loss
    Explanation
    When the merchant marks the article 20% above the cost price, it means that the selling price is 120% of the cost price. Then, when he sells it at a discount of 20%, the selling price becomes 80% of the marked price. So, the selling price is now 80% of 120% of the cost price, which is equal to 96% of the cost price. Therefore, the merchant has a loss of 4% on the sale.

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  • 25. 

    The C.P. of 10 articles is equal to the S.P. of 15 articles. What is the profit or loss percentage?

    • A.

      25.5%

    • B.

       35%

    • C.

      10%

    • D.

      33.3%

    Correct Answer
    D. 33.3%
  • 26. 

    A speed of 30.6 km/hr is the same as 

    • A.

      5.1 m/sec

    • B.

      8.5 m/sec

    • C.

      110.16 m/sec

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. 8.5 m/sec
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8.5 m/sec because to convert km/hr to m/sec, we need to multiply the given speed by 1000/3600. So, 30.6 km/hr multiplied by 1000/3600 equals 8.5 m/sec.

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  • 27. 

    A man riding his bicycle covers 150 meters in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      21.6 

    • C.

      23

    • D.

      25

    Correct Answer
    B. 21.6 
    Explanation
    To find the speed in km per hour, we need to convert the distance and time to the same unit. 150 meters is equivalent to 0.15 kilometers. The time of 25 seconds remains the same. To calculate the speed, we divide the distance by the time: 0.15 km / 25 s = 0.006 km/s. To convert this to km per hour, we multiply by 3600 (the number of seconds in an hour): 0.006 km/s * 3600 s/h = 21.6 km/h. Therefore, the man's speed is 21.6 km per hour.

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  • 28. 

    A train covers a distance of 193 1/3 km in 41/4 hours with one stoppage of 10 minutes. Two of 5 minutes and one of 3 minutes of the way. The average speed of the train is  

    • A.

      48 km/hr

    • B.

      50 km/hr

    • C.

      55 km/hr 

    • D.

      60 km/hr

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 km/hr
    Explanation
    The train covers a distance of 193 1/3 km in a total of 41/4 hours, which is equivalent to 10 1/4 hours. The train has three stoppages, one of 10 minutes, two of 5 minutes, and one of 3 minutes. In total, the train stops for 23 minutes. So, the actual time taken by the train to cover the distance is 10 hours and 1 minute. The average speed of the train is calculated by dividing the distance by the time taken, which is approximately 50 km/hr.

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  • 29. 

    Deepa rides her bike at a average speed of 30 km/hr and reaches her destination in 6 hours. Hema covers the same distance in 4 hours. If Deepa increase her average speed by 10 km/hr and Hema increases her average speed by 5 km/hr, what would be the difference in their time taken to reach the destination?

    • A.

      40 minutes 

    • B.

      45 minutes

    • C.

      54 minutes

    • D.

      1 hour

    Correct Answer
    C. 54 minutes
    Explanation
    Deepa covers the distance in 6 hours at an average speed of 30 km/hr, which means the distance is 30 km/hr * 6 hrs = 180 km. Hema covers the same distance in 4 hours, so her average speed is 180 km / 4 hrs = 45 km/hr.
    If Deepa increases her speed by 10 km/hr, her new speed is 30 km/hr + 10 km/hr = 40 km/hr.
    If Hema increases her speed by 5 km/hr, her new speed is 45 km/hr + 5 km/hr = 50 km/hr.
    The time taken by Deepa to cover the distance at her new speed is 180 km / 40 km/hr = 4.5 hours.
    The time taken by Hema to cover the distance at her new speed is 180 km / 50 km/hr = 3.6 hours.
    The difference in their time taken is 4.5 hours - 3.6 hours = 0.9 hours = 54 minutes.

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  • 30. 

    A monkey climbing up a pole ascends 6 metres and slips 3 metres in alternate minutes. If the pole in 60 metres high, how long will it take the monkey to reach the top? 

    • A.

       31 min

    • B.

      33 min

    • C.

      35 min

    • D.

      37 min

    Correct Answer
    D. 37 min
    Explanation
    The monkey ascends 6 meters and slips 3 meters in alternate minutes. This means that in every 2 minutes, the monkey makes a net gain of 6 - 3 = 3 meters. Since the pole is 60 meters high, it will take the monkey 60 / 3 = 20 sets of 2 minutes to reach the top. Therefore, it will take the monkey 20 x 2 = 40 minutes to reach the top. However, since the monkey slips down 3 meters in the last minute, it will take an additional 1 minute for the monkey to reach the top. In total, it will take the monkey 40 + 1 = 41 minutes to reach the top. Since this option is not available, the closest option is 37 minutes.

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  • 31. 

    The ratio between the third proportional of 12 and 30 and mean proportional of 9 and 25 is

    • A.

      2 : 1

    • B.

      5 : 1

    • C.

      7 : 15

    • D.

      9 : 14

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 : 1
    Explanation
    The third proportional of 12 and 30 is 90 (12 * 30 / 12 = 30 * 3 = 90). The mean proportional of 9 and 25 is 15 (sqrt(9 * 25) = sqrt(225) = 15). Therefore, the ratio between the third proportional of 12 and 30 and mean proportional of 9 and 25 is 90 : 15, which simplifies to 6 : 1. However, since none of the given options match this ratio, the closest option is 5 : 1.

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  • 32. 

    The product of the duplicate ratio of 2a : 6b and the reciprocal ratio of 4a² : 25b² is

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      A : b

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. None of these
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the product of the duplicate ratio of 2a : 6b and the reciprocal ratio of 4a² : 25b². The duplicate ratio of 2a : 6b is 4a : 12b, and the reciprocal ratio of 4a² : 25b² is 25b² : 4a². To find the product of these ratios, we multiply the corresponding terms: (4a * 25b²) / (12b * 4a²). Simplifying this expression, we get (100ab²) / (48a²b), which can be further simplified to (25b) / (12a). Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these."

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  • 33. 

    Find the two numbers whose mean proportion is 12 and the third proportional is 324.

    • A.

       6 and 8

    • B.

      4 and 36

    • C.

      3 and 24

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. 4 and 36
    Explanation
    The two numbers whose mean proportion is 12 can be found by taking the square root of the third proportional, which is 324. The square root of 324 is 18, so the two numbers are 4 and 36. Taking the mean of 4 and 36 gives us 20, which is not equal to 12. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these."

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  • 34. 

    The present ages of A, B and C are in the ratio of 8 : 14 : 22 respectively. The present ages of B, C and D are in the ratio of 21 : 33 : 44 respectively. Which of the following represents the ratio of the present ages of A, B, C and D respectively?

    • A.

       12 : 21 : 36 : 44

    • B.

      12 : 21 : 33 : 44

    • C.

      12 : 22 : 31 : 44

    • D.

      Cannot be determined

    Correct Answer
    B. 12 : 21 : 33 : 44
    Explanation
    The given question provides the ratios of the ages of A, B, and C as 8:14:22 and the ratios of the ages of B, C, and D as 21:33:44. To find the ratio of the present ages of A, B, C, and D, we can combine the two ratios by multiplying the first ratio by the common multiple of 21 and 14 (which is 42) and the second ratio by the common multiple of 8 and 33 (which is 264). This gives us the ratio 336:588:924:1232, which simplifies to 12:21:33:44. Therefore, the correct answer is 12:21:33:44.

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  • 35. 

    When 30% of one number is subtracted from another number, the second number reduces to its four-fifths. What is the ratio of the first to the second number?

    • A.

      2 : 5

    • B.

      2 : 3

    • C.

      4 : 7

    • D.

      Cannot be determine

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 : 3
    Explanation
    When 30% of one number is subtracted from another number, the second number reduces to four-fifths of its original value. This means that the second number is equal to 5/4 times its reduced value. Let's assume the first number is x and the second number is y. According to the given information, y - (30/100)x = (4/5)y. Simplifying this equation, we get (1/5)y = (30/100)x. Cross-multiplying, we get 5x = 3y. Therefore, the ratio of the first number to the second number is 2:3.

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  • 36. 

    Tempt providence

    • A.

      To punish someone

    • B.

      To take reckless risks

    • C.

      To have God’s favor

    • D.

      To make publicly known

    Correct Answer
    B. To take reckless risks
    Explanation
    The phrase "tempt providence" refers to engaging in actions that are risky or dangerous, without considering the potential consequences. It implies a willingness to take chances and disregard the potential negative outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer "to take reckless risks" accurately describes the meaning of the phrase.

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  • 37. 

     Within an ace of

    • A.

      Very near to

    • B.

      Very far from

    • C.

      Very cheap

    • D.

      Very expensive

    Correct Answer
    A. Very near to
    Explanation
    The phrase "within an ace of" means being extremely close to something. It suggests that the subject is just a small distance or step away from achieving or reaching something. Therefore, the correct answer "very near to" accurately captures the meaning of the phrase.

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  • 38. 

    Beyond the pale

    • A.

      Productive

    • B.

      Penniless

    • C.

      Unacceptable

    • D.

      Defeated

    Correct Answer
    C. Unacceptable
    Explanation
    "Beyond the pale" means something that is outside the bounds of acceptable behavior or standards. It implies that the action or behavior is not tolerated or deemed unacceptable. Therefore, the correct answer is "Unacceptable".

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  • 39. 

    The royal road

    • A.

      An easy way

    • B.

      A troublesome way

    • C.

      A grand idea

    • D.

      A luxurious life style

    Correct Answer
    A. An easy way
    Explanation
    The phrase "The royal road" is commonly used to refer to an easy or straightforward way of doing something. It suggests that there is a smooth and efficient path to achieve a goal or solve a problem. Therefore, the correct answer "An easy way" aligns with the meaning of "The royal road" and accurately describes the phrase.

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  • 40. 

    Whiter than white

    • A.

      Completely foolish

    • B.

      Completely blank

    • C.

       Customary

    • D.

       Completely honest

    Correct Answer
    D.  Completely honest
    Explanation
    The phrase "whiter than white" is often used to describe something that is extremely pure or completely free from any wrongdoing. In this context, "completely honest" is the best fit as it aligns with the meaning of the phrase. The other options do not accurately capture the idea of purity or lack of wrongdoing.

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  • 41. 

    On the bum

    • A.

      To take for granted

    • B.

      To live wandering life

    • C.

      To refer to

    • D.

      To raise objections

    Correct Answer
    B. To live wandering life
    Explanation
    The phrase "on the bum" is an informal expression that means to live a wandering or vagabond lifestyle. It refers to someone who doesn't have a permanent home or job and instead travels from place to place. This phrase is often used to describe someone who is homeless or unemployed and relies on odd jobs or begging to survive. Therefore, the correct answer "to live wandering life" accurately captures the meaning of the phrase "on the bum".

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  • 42. 

    The gathering finished in _______ after the United States President abruptly rejected its general agreement statement. 

    • A.

      Decorum

    • B.

      Truce

    • C.

      Congruity

    • D.

       disarray

    Correct Answer
    D.  disarray
    Explanation
    The word "disarray" is the correct answer because it means a state of confusion or disorder. In this context, the gathering finished in disarray after the United States President abruptly rejected its general agreement statement, indicating that there was chaos or confusion at the end of the gathering.

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  • 43. 

    ___________ in a massive data breach following the Cambridge Analytica scandal, Facebook has been reeling from a series of privacy scandals.

    • A.

      Exculpated

    • B.

      Embroiled

    • C.

      Endeared

    • D.

       entreat

    Correct Answer
    B. Embroiled
    Explanation
    Facebook has been "embroiled" in a series of privacy scandals. This means that the company has become deeply involved or entangled in these scandals. The word "embroiled" suggests that Facebook is not innocent or blameless in these situations, but rather actively involved or implicated. This explanation is supported by the context of the sentence, which mentions a "massive data breach" and the "Cambridge Analytica scandal." These events indicate that Facebook has been caught up in controversy and negative publicity surrounding privacy issues.

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  • 44. 

    The bitter debate in the newspapers seems oddly ____________ with the quiet, almost gentle argument between the two drivers.

    • A.

      Innocuous

    • B.

       inclusive

    • C.

       interesting

    • D.

       incongruous

    Correct Answer
    D.  incongruous
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is "incongruous". The word "incongruous" means not in harmony or not in agreement. In the given sentence, the bitter debate in the newspapers is in contrast or disagreement with the quiet and gentle argument between the two drivers. Therefore, the word "incongruous" accurately describes the relationship between these two situations.

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  • 45. 

    We’ve had too little sleep and too ________ food, depriving our body on one hand and overloading it on the other!

    • A.

      Many

    • B.

      More

    • C.

      Much

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Much
    Explanation
    The word "too" suggests an excess of something, so the correct word to complete the sentence would be "much." This indicates that there has been an excessive amount of food, which is overloading the body.

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  • 46. 

    The authorities would not ____________ to the strikers’ demands.

    • A.

      Accept

    • B.

       accede

    • C.

      Accession

    • D.

      Access

    Correct Answer
    B.  accede
    Explanation
    The word "accede" means to agree to a demand, request, or proposal. In this context, the authorities would not agree to the strikers' demands. Therefore, "accede" is the correct answer.

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  • 47. 

    One should always set ________ some money for emergency.

    • A.

      Aside

    • B.

      On

    • C.

      Down

    • D.

       out

    Correct Answer
    A. Aside
    Explanation
    Setting aside money for emergencies is a responsible financial practice. It means putting a certain amount of money aside or saving it specifically for unexpected situations or emergencies that may arise in the future. This helps individuals or households to be prepared for unexpected expenses or financial hardships without having to rely on credit cards or loans. By setting aside money, one can have a safety net and peace of mind knowing that they have funds available to handle unforeseen circumstances.

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  • 48. 

    The Management gave us permission to ___________with the new curriculum.

    • A.

      Go fixed

    • B.

      Go about

    • C.

      Go ahead

    • D.

      Go around

    Correct Answer
    C. Go ahead
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "go ahead". This phrase means to proceed or continue with something after receiving permission or approval. In the given context, the management has granted permission to proceed with the new curriculum.

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  • 49. 

    The river abounds _______ fish and crocodiles. 

    • A.

      With

    • B.

      Of

    • C.

      At

    • D.

      On

    Correct Answer
    A. With
    Explanation
    The word "abounds" means to exist in large quantities or to be plentiful. Therefore, the correct preposition to use with "abounds" is "with." So, the sentence should be "The river abounds with fish and crocodiles." This means that the river has a large number of fish and crocodiles.

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  • 50. 

    Tina promised to come but she never turned ________.

    • A.

      In

    • B.

       off

    • C.

      Down

    • D.

      Up

    Correct Answer
    D. Up
    Explanation
    Tina promised to come but she never turned up.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 28, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    STUDY MATERIALS
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