Cosmetology Practice Exam Quiz: Trivia

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  • 1/49 Questions

    Most alkaline permanent waves have a pH between:

    • 4.5 and 5.5
    • 6.0 and 7.0
    • 9.0 and 9.6
    • 10.0 and 11.0
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About This Quiz


Welcome to the Cosmetology Practice Exam Quiz. People have different types of hair. A cosmetologist needs to know what can be done for the different kinds of hair, especially when it comes to chemical or relaxer applications. In this quiz, you will get to see just how skilled you are when it comes to different hair techniques. Do give it See morea shot and see how well you do!

Cosmetology Practice Exam Quiz: Trivia - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Exothermic waves create a chemical reaction that heats the solution and speeds up:

    • Processing

    • Conditioning

    • Neutralizing

    • Formulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Processing
    Explanation
    Exothermic waves refer to a type of chemical reaction that releases heat energy. This heat energy can be utilized in various processes, such as processing. Therefore, it can be inferred that exothermic waves create a chemical reaction that heats the solution and speeds up the processing of a substance or material.

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  • 3. 

    The process of rearranging the basic structure of extremely curly hair into a straighter or smoother form is:

    • Texturizing

    • Permanent waving

    • Chemical softening

    • Chemical hair relaxing

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemical hair relaxing
    Explanation
    Chemical hair relaxing is the process of rearranging the basic structure of extremely curly hair into a straighter or smoother form. This is achieved by using chemical products that break down the protein bonds in the hair, allowing it to be reshaped. Unlike permanent waving, which creates curls or waves, chemical hair relaxing aims to straighten the hair. Texturizing refers to adding texture to the hair, while chemical softening involves making the hair softer and more manageable. Therefore, chemical hair relaxing is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 4. 

    The application for chemical relaxers should be started in the most resistant are, usually the:

    • Back fo the head

    • Front hairline

    • Scalp area

    • Side area

    Correct Answer
    A. Back fo the head
    Explanation
    Chemical relaxers are used to straighten curly or wavy hair. The application process should be started in the most resistant area, which is usually the back of the head. This is because the back of the head tends to have tighter curls or more resistant hair texture compared to other areas. By starting in the most resistant area, the relaxer can be left on for a longer period to ensure that the desired straightening effect is achieved uniformly throughout the hair.

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  • 5. 

    A significant factor in the product selection used in the application of color is the client's hair:

    • Structure

    • Length

    • Strength

    • Density

    Correct Answer
    A. Structure
    Explanation
    The structure of the client's hair is a significant factor in the product selection for color application. Hair structure refers to the natural texture and condition of the hair, such as whether it is fine, medium, or coarse, and whether it is straight, wavy, or curly. Different hair structures react differently to color products, and certain products may be better suited for specific hair structures. Therefore, understanding the client's hair structure is crucial in selecting the right products to achieve the desired color result.

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  • 6. 

    Hair texture is determined by the diameter of individual hair:

    • Lengths

    • Color

    • Strands

    • Sections

    Correct Answer
    A. Strands
    Explanation
    Hair texture is determined by the diameter of individual hair strands. The thickness or thinness of each strand contributes to the overall texture of the hair. Hair can be classified as fine, medium, or coarse based on the diameter of the strands. Fine hair has a smaller diameter, while coarse hair has a larger diameter. The diameter of the strands affects how the hair feels, looks, and behaves, such as being smooth or rough, straight or curly. Therefore, the correct answer is "strands."

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  • 7. 

    The hair type with a large diameter that can take longer to process hair color is:

    • Fine-textured hair

    • Medium-textured hair

    • Coarse-textured hair

    • Long hair

    Correct Answer
    A. Coarse-textured hair
    Explanation
    Coarse-textured hair has a large diameter, which means that the individual hair strands are thicker compared to fine or medium-textured hair. When applying hair color, the larger diameter of coarse-textured hair can make it more resistant to color penetration and processing. As a result, it may take longer for the hair color to fully develop and achieve the desired result.

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  • 8. 

    Artificial hair colors are developed from the primary and secondary colors that form:

    • Tonal colors

    • Light energy

    • Base colors

    • Mixing colors

    Correct Answer
    A. Base colors
    Explanation
    Artificial hair colors are developed from base colors. Base colors are the primary and secondary colors that form the foundation for creating different shades and tones. These colors are mixed together in varying proportions to achieve the desired hair color. Tonal colors refer to the variations of a color, while light energy is not directly related to the development of artificial hair colors. Therefore, base colors are the correct answer.

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  • 9. 

    Adding the primary color red to yellow colors will cause them to appear:

    • Lighter

    • Darker

    • Softer

    • Equal

    Correct Answer
    A. Darker
    Explanation
    When the primary color red is added to yellow, it creates a mixture of colors that leans towards the darker side. This is because red is a darker color compared to yellow. The addition of red adds depth and intensity to the yellow, resulting in a darker overall appearance.

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  • 10. 

    Primary and secondary colors that are positioned opposite each on the color wheel are:

    • Complementary colors

    • Contrasting colors

    • Permanent colors

    • Tertiary colors

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary colors
    Explanation
    Complementary colors are positioned opposite each other on the color wheel. When these colors are placed together, they create a strong contrast and enhance each other's intensity. This is because complementary colors are made up of wavelengths that are far apart from each other, resulting in a vibrant visual effect. Examples of complementary colors include red and green, blue and orange, and yellow and purple.

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  • 11. 

    As part of their composition, all permanent hair coloring products and lighteners contain both a developer and a(n):

    • Oxidizing agent

    • Acidic agent

    • Alkalizing ingredient

    • Neutralizing ingredient

    Correct Answer
    A. Alkalizing ingredient
    Explanation
    Permanent hair coloring products and lighteners require an alkalizing ingredient to help open up the hair cuticles and allow the color to penetrate the hair shaft. This ingredient helps to raise the pH level of the hair, making it more receptive to the color molecules. Without an alkalizing ingredient, the color would not be able to effectively bond with the hair and provide long-lasting results.

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  • 12. 

    The most commonly used developer in hair color is:

    • Ammonia peroxide

    • Hrdrogen propitiator

    • Hydrogen peroxide

    • Potential activators

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrogen peroxide
    Explanation
    Hydrogen peroxide is the most commonly used developer in hair color. It is a chemical compound that acts as an oxidizing agent, helping to activate the hair dye and facilitate the color change process. Hydrogen peroxide is known for its ability to lighten the hair and open up the hair cuticles, allowing the color to penetrate and bond with the hair strands. It is widely used in various hair coloring products due to its effectiveness and versatility.

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  • 13. 

    When applying color using the brush-and-bowl method, the mixing bowl, should be:

    • Metal

    • Nonmetallic

    • Large

    • Nonbreakable

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonmetallic
    Explanation
    When applying color using the brush-and-bowl method, the mixing bowl should be nonmetallic. This is because metal bowls can react with certain chemicals in the color, causing a chemical reaction that may alter the color or texture of the mixture. Nonmetallic bowls, on the other hand, are less reactive and provide a safer and more consistent environment for mixing colors. Additionally, nonmetallic bowls are often easier to clean and maintain compared to metal bowls.

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  • 14. 

    Before performing a coloring service with an aniline derivative product, the client must have a(n):

    • Preliminary test

    • Application

    • Patch test

    • Insurance record

    Correct Answer
    A. Patch test
    Explanation
    Before performing a coloring service with an aniline derivative product, the client must have a patch test. This test is necessary to check for any potential allergic reactions or sensitivities to the product. It involves applying a small amount of the product on a small patch of skin and monitoring for any adverse reactions. This helps to ensure the safety and well-being of the client during the coloring service.

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  • 15. 

    A preliminary test performed to determine how the hair will react to  a color formula is a(n):

    • Color test

    • Patch test

    • Application test

    • Strand test

    Correct Answer
    A. Strand test
    Explanation
    A strand test is a preliminary test performed to determine how the hair will react to a color formula. This test involves applying the color formula to a small section or strand of hair and observing the results. It helps to determine the desired processing time, color intensity, and potential adverse reactions such as allergies or hair damage. By conducting a strand test, hair professionals can ensure that the chosen color formula will produce the desired results without causing any harm to the hair.

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  • 16. 

    For a virgin application with a single-process color, the application should be applied first to:

    • Roots and porous area

    • Hair shaft and ends

    • Mid-strand area

    • Scalp area

    Correct Answer
    A. Mid-strand area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mid-strand area. When applying a virgin color to the hair, it is important to start with the mid-strand area. This is because the mid-strand area is the part of the hair that is most resistant to color and takes longer to process. By starting with the mid-strand area, the color will have more time to develop and achieve the desired result. After applying the color to the mid-strand area, it can then be applied to the roots and porous areas, followed by the hair shaft and ends, and finally the scalp area.

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  • 17. 

    The technique of coloring strands of hair darker than the natural color is called the:

    • Lowlighting

    • Accelerating

    • Highlighting

    • Baliage

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowlighting
    Explanation
    Lowlighting is the technique of coloring strands of hair darker than the natural color. This technique is used to create depth and dimension in the hair by adding darker shades. It is the opposite of highlighting, where lighter shades are used. Accelerating and baliage are not related to coloring strands of hair darker than the natural color.

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  • 18. 

    Distended capilliaries caused by constant overdilation and weakening of the capillary walls are known as:

    • Fissures

    • Excoriation

    • Telangiectasias

    • Macula

    Correct Answer
    A. Telangiectasias
    Explanation
    Telangiectasias are distended capillaries caused by constant overdilation and weakening of the capillary walls. This condition is commonly seen in areas of the body where the skin is thin, such as the face and legs. Telangiectasias can appear as small, red or purple spider-like veins on the skin's surface. They are often harmless but can be a cosmetic concern for some individuals. Treatment options for telangiectasias include laser therapy, sclerotherapy, and topical creams.

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  • 19. 

    A small circumscribed elevation of the skin that contains no fluid but may develop pus is a:

    • Secondary

    • Papule

    • Freckle

    • Stain

    Correct Answer
    A. Papule
    Explanation
    A papule is a small raised area on the skin that does not contain any fluid but may develop pus. It is a type of skin lesion that can be caused by various factors such as acne, insect bites, or allergic reactions. Unlike a freckle or stain, which are discolorations of the skin, a papule is a distinct elevation that can be felt and seen on the surface of the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is papule.

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  • 20. 

    Acne, or common pimples, is also known as:

    • Acne milia

    • Acne vulgaris

    • Acne cortisone

    • Acne fissure

    Correct Answer
    A. Acne vulgaris
    Explanation
    Acne vulgaris is the correct answer because it is the most common form of acne that affects the majority of people. It is characterized by the presence of pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads on the skin, typically occurring on the face, chest, and back. Acne milia refers to small, white bumps that are not true acne, acne cortisone refers to acne caused by the use of cortisone medication, and acne fissure is not a recognized term in relation to acne.

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  • 21. 

    Chemicals released by the immune system that flood tissues to dilute a skin irritant are:

    • Hematite

    • Hypertrichosis

    • Histamines

    • Execration

    Correct Answer
    A. Histamines
    Explanation
    Histamines are chemicals released by the immune system in response to an irritant. They are responsible for dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the affected area, which leads to redness, swelling, and itching. This response is part of the body's defense mechanism against potential harm or infection.

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  • 22. 

    Facial waxing should not be performed on clients with the condition of:

    • Rosacea

    • Seborrhea

    • Hypertrichosis

    • Hirsutism

    Correct Answer
    A. Rosacea
    Explanation
    Facial waxing should not be performed on clients with rosacea because this skin condition is characterized by redness, flushing, and inflammation of the skin. Waxing can further irritate the skin and worsen the symptoms of rosacea. It is important to avoid any treatments that can aggravate the condition and instead opt for gentler skincare routines for clients with rosacea.

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  • 23. 

    The natural arch of the eyebrow or the curved line of the eye socket follows what bone?

    • Orbis

    • Orbital

    • Temporal

    • Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Orbital
    Explanation
    The natural arch of the eyebrow or the curved line of the eye socket follows the orbital bone. The orbital bone is responsible for forming the eye socket and protecting the eyeball. It is a complex structure that consists of several bones, including the frontal bone, which is located at the front of the skull. The orbital bone helps to maintain the shape and position of the eye, as well as providing support and protection to the surrounding structures.

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  • 24. 

    An effective epilator treatment that uses a thick paste easily remove with water is:

    • Sugaring

    • Pasting

    • Soaping

    • Waxing

    Correct Answer
    A. Sugaring
    Explanation
    Sugaring is an effective epilator treatment that uses a thick paste that can be easily removed with water. This method involves applying a sugar-based paste to the skin, which sticks to the hair and pulls it out from the root when removed. Sugaring is a popular alternative to waxing as it is less painful and causes less irritation to the skin. The paste can be easily washed off with water, making it a convenient option for hair removal.

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  • 25. 

    During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is applied to the skin using:

    • Downward circular movements

    • Rounded strong movements

    • Upward circular movements

    • Outward movements

    Correct Answer
    A. Upward circular movements
    Explanation
    During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is applied to the skin using upward circular movements. This technique helps to effectively remove dirt, oil, and impurities from the skin's surface. The upward motion helps to lift the impurities away from the skin and promotes better absorption of the cleansing milk. It also helps to stimulate blood circulation and lymphatic drainage, which can improve the overall health and appearance of the skin.

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  • 26. 

    The process of removing dead cells from the surface of the skin is:

    • Scrubbing

    • Modelage

    • Exfoliation

    • Superficial

    Correct Answer
    A. Exfoliation
    Explanation
    Exfoliation is the process of removing dead cells from the surface of the skin. This can be done through various methods such as using scrubs, chemical peels, or exfoliating brushes. Exfoliation helps to unclog pores, improve skin texture, and promote cell turnover, resulting in smoother and brighter skin. Modelage, on the other hand, refers to a type of facial massage technique, and superficial means something that is shallow or on the surface. Therefore, exfoliation is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the removal of dead skin cells.

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  • 27. 

    Chemical exfoliants that work by dissolving keratin protein in the surface cells are known as:

    • Face fresheners

    • Steaming peels

    • Enzyme peels

    • Emollient peels

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzyme peels
    Explanation
    Enzyme peels are chemical exfoliants that work by dissolving keratin protein in the surface cells. Unlike face fresheners, steaming peels, or emollient peels, enzyme peels specifically target the keratin protein, which helps to remove dead skin cells and improve the texture and appearance of the skin. This type of exfoliation is effective in promoting a smoother and more radiant complexion.

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  • 28. 

    Water-binding agents in moisturizers contain emollients or hydrators also know as:

    • Alipidic

    • Humectants

    • Acids

    • Peptides

    Correct Answer
    A. Humectants
    Explanation
    Water-binding agents in moisturizers are substances that help to attract and retain moisture in the skin. These agents can be either emollients or hydrators. Emollients are substances that help to soften and smooth the skin, while hydrators, also known as humectants, are substances that attract water from the environment and bind it to the skin, keeping it hydrated. Therefore, the correct answer is humectants.

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  • 29. 

    The manual or mechanical manipulation of the body by rubbing, kneading, or other movements is called:

    • Metabolism

    • Massage

    • Absorption

    • Physiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Massage
    Explanation
    Massage is the correct answer because it refers to the manual or mechanical manipulation of the body through rubbing, kneading, or other movements. This technique is commonly used for relaxation, stress relief, pain management, and improving overall well-being. It involves applying pressure to the muscles, tendons, ligaments, and other soft tissues of the body to promote circulation, release tension, and enhance flexibility.

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  • 30. 

    Color that is added to the cheeks to add a natural-looking glow is:

    • Concealer

    • Highlighter

    • Pigment

    • Blush

    Correct Answer
    A. Blush
    Explanation
    Blush is the correct answer because it is a cosmetic product specifically designed to add color to the cheeks and create a natural-looking glow. It is typically applied to the apples of the cheeks to mimic a flushed appearance, giving the face a healthy and radiant look. Concealer is used to cover imperfections, highlighter is used to add shimmer and highlight certain areas of the face, and pigment refers to the colorant used in cosmetics, but none of these options specifically serve the purpose of adding a natural-looking glow to the cheeks like blush does.

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  • 31. 

    According to the American Medical Association, eye pencils should never be used on the:

    • Eyelid area

    • Eyebrow area

    • Inner rim of eyes

    • Outer rim of eyes

    Correct Answer
    A. Inner rim of eyes
    Explanation
    According to the American Medical Association, eye pencils should never be used on the inner rim of eyes. This is because the inner rim, also known as the waterline, is a sensitive area that can easily come into contact with the eye and cause irritation or infection. Using eye pencils on the inner rim can also lead to the transfer of bacteria or other harmful substances into the eye, which can be harmful to eye health. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid using eye pencils on the inner rim of the eyes.

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  • 32. 

    Parasites that under some conditions may cause infections to the feet and hands are:

    • Pedis

    • Flagella

    • Fungi

    • Tinea

    Correct Answer
    A. Fungi
    Explanation
    Fungi are organisms that can cause infections to the feet and hands under certain conditions. Fungal infections, also known as tinea infections, can occur when fungi invade the skin, nails, or hair. These infections are commonly referred to as athlete's foot (tinea pedis) when they affect the feet and may cause itching, redness, and scaling. Similarly, infections on the hands caused by fungi can result in symptoms such as dryness, peeling, and discomfort. Therefore, fungi are the correct answer as they are the organisms responsible for causing these types of infections.

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  • 33. 

    Tiny pits or severe roughness on the surface of the nail plate is an indication of:

    • Local infection

    • Ingrown nails

    • Athlete's foot

    • Nail psoriasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Nail psoriasis
    Explanation
    Tiny pits or severe roughness on the surface of the nail plate are common symptoms of nail psoriasis. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that affects the skin, including the nails. Nail psoriasis can cause various changes in the nails, such as pitting, roughness, discoloration, crumbling, and separation from the nail bed. These symptoms are not typically associated with local infection, ingrown nails, or athlete's foot, making nail psoriasis the most likely explanation for the given symptoms.

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  • 34. 

    Products that cannot harbor the growth of pathogens have brushes that are considered to be:

    • Quickly rinsed

    • Unsanitary

    • Discarded

    • Self-disinfecting

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-disinfecting
    Explanation
    Brushes that are self-disinfecting are able to kill or inhibit the growth of pathogens on their own, without the need for external cleaning or disinfection methods. This means that they have built-in mechanisms or materials that have antimicrobial properties, allowing them to prevent the spread of pathogens and maintain a hygienic environment. By being self-disinfecting, these brushes eliminate the need for frequent cleaning or replacement, making them a more convenient and effective option for preventing the growth of pathogens.

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  • 35. 

    Pedicure stations should have a chair with armrests for the client, ergonomic chair for the nail professional, and a:

    • Footrest for the client

    • Foot scrub

    • Footstool for the professional

    • Retail display

    Correct Answer
    A. Footrest for the client
    Explanation
    A pedicure station should have a footrest for the client to provide comfort and support during the pedicure process. This allows the client to relax and maintain a comfortable position while their feet are being worked on. The footrest helps to elevate the client's feet, making it easier for the nail professional to access and work on the client's nails and feet. It also helps to prevent any strain or discomfort for the client during the pedicure treatment.

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  • 36. 

    In massage, a friction movement using the fist with thumb out and applying firm pressure up the heel toward the ball of the foot is:

    • Effleurage on the instep

    • Percussion movement

    • Thumb compression

    • Metatasal scissor

    Correct Answer
    A. Thumb compression
    Explanation
    Thumb compression is the correct answer because it describes a friction movement in massage where the therapist uses their fist with the thumb out to apply firm pressure up the heel toward the ball of the foot. This technique is often used to target specific areas of tension or to provide deep tissue massage to the foot.

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  • 37. 

    A metal file that is designed to file in one direction is a:

    • Rasp

    • Paddle

    • Curette

    • Scooper

    Correct Answer
    A. Rasp
    Explanation
    A rasp is a metal file that is specifically designed to file in one direction. It has a rough surface with raised teeth that are angled in one direction, allowing it to remove material efficiently when pushed in that direction. Unlike other files, a rasp is not suitable for filing in both directions as it may cause damage to the material being filed. Therefore, a rasp is the correct answer for a metal file that is designed to file in one direction.

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  • 38. 

    To avoid infections, important steps that must not be overlooked during pedicure procedures are:

    • Cleaning and disinfecting

    • Soaking and retailing

    • Cleaning and massage

    • Disinfection and effleurage

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning and disinfecting
    Explanation
    During pedicure procedures, it is important to clean and disinfect the tools and equipment used to prevent infections. Cleaning involves removing any dirt or debris from the tools, while disinfecting involves using chemicals or heat to kill any bacteria or pathogens that may be present. By ensuring that both cleaning and disinfecting steps are followed, the risk of infections can be significantly reduced, promoting the safety and well-being of the client.

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  • 39. 

    A lightweight rectangular block that is abrasive and used to buff nails is a:

    • Square buffer

    • Buffer block

    • Curette

    • Rasp

    Correct Answer
    A. Buffer block
    Explanation
    A buffer block is a lightweight rectangular block that is abrasive and used to buff nails. It is designed to smooth out rough edges and create a shiny, polished finish on the nails. Unlike a square buffer, which may have a different shape or purpose, a buffer block specifically refers to this type of nail care tool. A curette is a different type of tool used for cleaning and scraping, while a rasp is a coarse file used for shaping and removing material.

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  • 40. 

    The term used to describe the degree of thickness of various nail adhesives is:

    • Monomers

    • Volume

    • Gelled

    • Viscosity

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume
    Explanation
    The term "volume" is not typically used to describe the degree of thickness of nail adhesives. Instead, the term "viscosity" is commonly used to describe the thickness or consistency of a substance. Viscosity refers to the resistance of a liquid to flow, and in the context of nail adhesives, it would describe how thick or thin the adhesive is. Monomers are the building blocks of polymers, and gelled refers to a semi-solid state. Therefore, the most appropriate term to describe the degree of thickness of nail adhesives is "viscosity".

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  • 41. 

    Nail tips are softened with acetone or tip remover and are:

    • Slid off

    • Ripped off

    • Nipped off

    • Rubbed off

    Correct Answer
    A. Slid off
    Explanation
    Nail tips are typically made of plastic or acrylic and are attached to the natural nails using adhesive. In order to remove them, they need to be softened first. Acetone or tip remover is commonly used for this purpose. Once the tips are softened, they can be easily slid off from the natural nails without causing any damage. This method is preferred over ripping or nipping off the tips, as it ensures a safer and more gentle removal process. Rubbing off the tips is also not a suitable method as it may not effectively remove the adhesive and can cause discomfort.

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  • 42. 

    Liquid and powder artificial nail enhancements are based on a subcategory of acrylic called:

    • Polyacrylate

    • Methacrylate

    • Methyl

    • Monocyclic

    Correct Answer
    A. Methacrylate
    Explanation
    Liquid and powder artificial nail enhancements are based on a subcategory of acrylic called methacrylate. Methacrylate is a type of acrylic that is commonly used in the nail industry for creating artificial nails. It is a liquid and powder system that is mixed together to create a paste-like consistency, which is then applied to the natural nails and shaped into the desired length and shape. Methacrylate is known for its durability and strength, making it a popular choice for artificial nail enhancements.

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  • 43. 

    For natural looking nails, product application near the eponychium, sidewalls, and free edge must be:

    • Thin

    • Soft

    • Thick

    • Dry

    Correct Answer
    A. Thin
    Explanation
    To achieve natural looking nails, the product application near the eponychium, sidewalls, and free edge must be thin. Applying a thin layer of product ensures that the nails look more realistic and closely resemble natural nails. A thick application can make the nails appear bulky and unnatural. Additionally, a thin application allows for better control and precision while applying the product, resulting in a more professional and polished look.

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  • 44. 

    Although they are not traditionally thought of this way, nail enhancements based on UV curing chemistry are:

    • Gel-like

    • Acrylics

    • Enhancements

    • Durable

    Correct Answer
    A. Acrylics
    Explanation
    UV curing nail enhancements are typically associated with gel-like or acrylic-based products. While gel-like enhancements are known for their flexibility and natural appearance, acrylics are known for their durability and strength. Acrylics are created by mixing a liquid monomer with a powder polymer, which then hardens when exposed to UV light. This process creates a sturdy and long-lasting nail enhancement. Therefore, the correct answer is acrylics.

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  • 45. 

    A written summary of your education and work experience is a:

    • Plan

    • Portfolio

    • Resume

    • Goal

    Correct Answer
    A. Portfolio
    Explanation
    A written summary of your education and work experience is a portfolio. A portfolio is a collection of documents or samples that showcase an individual's skills, qualifications, and achievements. It typically includes items such as resumes, cover letters, transcripts, certifications, and work samples. A portfolio provides a comprehensive overview of a person's professional background and is often used for job applications, interviews, or career development purposes.

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  • 46. 

    Income in addition to your regular compensation that must be tracked and reported on tax returns is:

    • Evaluations

    • Travel

    • Tips

    • Gifts

    Correct Answer
    A. Tips
    Explanation
    Tips are income in addition to regular compensation that must be tracked and reported on tax returns. Tips are typically received by service industry workers, such as waitstaff or bartenders, and are considered taxable income. It is important to accurately track and report tips to ensure compliance with tax laws and avoid any potential penalties or audits.

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  • 47. 

    To be successful in sales, you need ambition, determination, and a:

    • Forceful personality

    • Client base

    • Shy demeanor

    • Good personality

    Correct Answer
    A. Good personality
    Explanation
    Having a good personality is essential for success in sales because it helps in building rapport and establishing trust with clients. A good personality enables salespeople to effectively communicate, listen attentively, and empathize with customers, which in turn helps in understanding their needs and providing appropriate solutions. Additionally, a good personality allows salespeople to maintain a positive attitude, handle rejection gracefully, and build long-term relationships with clients.

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  • 48. 

    One of the best ways to improve your performance is to:

    • Cut your clients's hair the way you prefer

    • Find a role model

    • Critique other coworkers

    • Spend mre time on every client

    Correct Answer
    A. Find a role model
    Explanation
    Finding a role model is one of the best ways to improve performance because it allows individuals to learn from someone who has already achieved success in their field. By observing and emulating the behaviors, skills, and strategies of a role model, individuals can gain valuable insights and guidance on how to excel in their own work. Role models can provide inspiration, motivation, and practical advice, helping individuals to set goals, develop new skills, and overcome challenges. Additionally, having a role model can also foster a sense of accountability and encourage continuous learning and improvement.

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  • 49. 

    Malpractice insurance is the responsibility of the:

    • Landlord

    • Stockholder

    • Employee

    • Salon owner

    Correct Answer
    A. Salon owner
    Explanation
    Malpractice insurance is a type of insurance that provides coverage for professionals in case they are sued for negligence or errors in their professional services. In the context of the question, it is implied that the salon owner is the one responsible for obtaining malpractice insurance. This is because the salon owner is the one who owns and operates the salon, and therefore has the responsibility to ensure that their employees are covered in case of any malpractice claims. The other options, such as the landlord, stockholder, or employee, do not have the same level of responsibility for obtaining malpractice insurance in this specific scenario.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 19, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Farrahlove

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