Quiz On NAAC Assessment Framework! Trivia

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Quiz On NAAC Assessment Framework! Trivia - Quiz


How much do you know about NAAC? The National Assessment and Accreditation Council is a government organization in India that assesses and accredits higher education institutions. It is an autonomous entity supported by the University Grants Commission. It was founded in 1994 in response to the proposal of National Policy in Education. It was created to tackle the issue of ineffective education. This quiz will tell you about NAAC work. Don’t forget to take your certificate after the quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Functions of NAAC

    • A.

      Assessment and Accreditation

    • B.

      Accounting and Adminitration

    Correct Answer
    A. Assessment and Accreditation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Assessment and Accreditation. NAAC stands for the National Assessment and Accreditation Council, which is an autonomous body that assesses and accredits higher education institutions in India. The primary functions of NAAC include conducting assessments of institutions based on various criteria and parameters, and granting accreditation to institutions that meet the required standards. This process helps in ensuring quality assurance and improvement in the higher education system.

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  • 2. 

    NAAC is concerned about

    • A.

      Quality in Higher Education

    • B.

      Quantity in Higher Education

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality in Higher Education
    Explanation
    NAAC, the National Assessment and Accreditation Council, is primarily concerned with ensuring quality in higher education. This means that their main focus is on evaluating and assessing the overall quality of educational institutions and programs, including factors such as teaching and learning processes, infrastructure, research output, student support services, and overall academic environment. NAAC aims to promote excellence in higher education by setting standards and benchmarks for institutions to meet, and by providing accreditation based on their evaluation. Their emphasis on quality indicates that they prioritize the overall educational experience and outcomes for students, rather than just the quantity or number of educational institutions or programs available.

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  • 3. 

    SSR means

    • A.

      Self Study Report

    • B.

      Student Study Report

    Correct Answer
    A. Self Study Report
    Explanation
    SSR stands for Self Study Report. This report is a comprehensive document prepared by educational institutions to evaluate their own performance and quality. It includes information about the institution's mission, objectives, curriculum, facilities, faculty, and overall effectiveness. The Self Study Report plays a crucial role in the accreditation process as it provides evidence of the institution's compliance with standards and criteria set by accrediting bodies.

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  • 4. 

    RAAF means

    • A.

      Revised Assessment and Accreditation Framework

    • B.

      Revised Administrative Advance Framework

    Correct Answer
    A. Revised Assessment and Accreditation Framework
    Explanation
    RAAF stands for Revised Assessment and Accreditation Framework. This framework is used to evaluate and assess the quality and standards of educational institutions. It helps in determining whether an institution meets the required criteria for accreditation and provides a framework for continuous improvement. The RAAF process involves a thorough assessment of various aspects such as curriculum, faculty, infrastructure, and governance to ensure that the institution maintains high standards of education.

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  • 5. 

    RAAF came into force from

    • A.

      2017 July

    • B.

      2019 September

    Correct Answer
    A. 2017 July
    Explanation
    RAAF stands for Royal Australian Air Force. The given answer states that RAAF came into force from July 2017. This means that the Royal Australian Air Force was established and began its operations in July 2017.

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  • 6. 

    Number of criteria in quality indicator framework

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 7 because the quality indicator framework is composed of 7 criteria. These criteria are used to assess and evaluate the quality of a particular system, process, or product. Each criterion represents a specific aspect that is important for determining the overall quality. By considering these 7 criteria, one can gain a comprehensive understanding of the quality of the subject being assessed.

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  • 7. 

    Each criteria is further divided into

    • A.

      Key Indicators

    • B.

      Key Parameters

    Correct Answer
    A. Key Indicators
    Explanation
    The question is asking for an explanation of the term "Key Indicators." Key Indicators are specific factors or measurements that are used to assess or evaluate the performance or progress of a particular criteria. They provide a clear and measurable way to determine if the criteria is being met or if adjustments need to be made. Key Indicators are often used in various fields such as business, education, and healthcare to track and analyze important data and make informed decisions based on the results.

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  • 8. 

    Re-assessment is for

    • A.

      Improvement in the status

    • B.

      Revision of status

    Correct Answer
    A. Improvement in the status
    Explanation
    The answer "Improvement in the status" suggests that re-assessment is conducted to enhance or upgrade the current condition or situation. It implies that the purpose of re-assessment is to identify areas of improvement and implement changes to achieve a better status or outcome. This could be applicable in various contexts such as performance evaluations, academic assessments, or organizational reviews, where re-assessment is necessary to enhance the existing state or bring about positive changes.

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  • 9. 

    Subsequent cycle is for

    • A.

      Continuation of assessment

    • B.

      Change in the assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuation of assessment
    Explanation
    The subsequent cycle is for the continuation of assessment. This means that it is the next phase or stage in the assessment process. It suggests that the assessment is ongoing and will be continued in the subsequent cycle, rather than being completed or changed.

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  • 10. 

    Time limit for applying for subsequent cycles

    • A.

      During the last 6 months of the existing validity

    • B.

      During the last one year of the exiting validity

    Correct Answer
    A. During the last 6 months of the existing validity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "During the last 6 months of the existing validity." This means that the time limit for applying for subsequent cycles is within the last 6 months of the current validity period. This suggests that there is a specific timeframe in which individuals can apply for subsequent cycles, and it is limited to the final 6 months of the existing validity.

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  • 11. 

    NAAC SSR Metrics are

    • A.

      Qualitative and Quantitative

    • B.

      Verbal and Non Verbal

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualitative and Quantitative
    Explanation
    The NAAC SSR Metrics are both qualitative and quantitative. This means that they include both subjective and objective measures in assessing the quality and performance of educational institutions. Qualitative metrics involve gathering information through observations, interviews, and surveys to evaluate the overall quality and effectiveness of various aspects of the institution. On the other hand, quantitative metrics involve collecting and analyzing numerical data to measure specific indicators such as student enrollment, faculty-student ratio, research output, and infrastructure facilities. By using a combination of qualitative and quantitative metrics, the NAAC can obtain a comprehensive and balanced assessment of an institution's performance.

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  • 12. 

    No of metrics for autonomous colleges

    • A.

      107

    • B.

      115

    Correct Answer
    A. 107
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 107. This suggests that there are 107 metrics for autonomous colleges.

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  • 13. 

    Correct sequence

    • A.

      Citerion - Key Indicator - Metric

    • B.

      Citerion - Metric - Key Indicator

    Correct Answer
    A. Citerion - Key Indicator - Metric
    Explanation
    The correct sequence is "Criterion - Key Indicator - Metric." A criterion is a standard or principle used to evaluate or judge something. A key indicator is a specific measure or factor used to assess or determine the performance or success of a criterion. A metric is a quantifiable measurement or data point used to track or analyze the key indicators related to a criterion. Therefore, the correct order is to first establish the criterion, then identify the key indicators, and finally measure them using metrics.

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  • 14. 

    Criterion with highest weightage

    • A.

      Teaching, Learning and Evaluation

    • B.

      Curricular Aspects

    Correct Answer
    A. Teaching, Learning and Evaluation
    Explanation
    The criterion with the highest weightage is Teaching, Learning and Evaluation. This means that in the given context, the importance is placed on the effectiveness of the teaching methods, the quality of the learning experience, and the evaluation process used to assess the students' progress. This criterion likely holds the most significance in determining the overall success and quality of the educational system or program being evaluated.

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  • 15. 

    IIQA is

    • A.

      Institutional Information for Quality Assessment

    • B.

      Institutional Information for Quality Accreditation

    Correct Answer
    A. Institutional Information for Quality Assessment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Institutional Information for Quality Assessment" because IIQA stands for Institutional Information for Quality Assessment. This suggests that IIQA is a process or system used to gather and evaluate information about an institution's quality standards and performance. It is likely used to assess and improve the quality of an institution's programs, services, and overall operations.

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  • 16. 

    Ratio of Qualitative and Quantitative metrics is

    • A.

      30% and 70%

    • B.

      70% and 30%

    Correct Answer
    A. 30% and 70%
    Explanation
    The ratio of qualitative and quantitative metrics is 30% and 70%. This means that 30% of the metrics used are qualitative, while 70% are quantitative. Qualitative metrics are subjective and rely on observations, opinions, and interpretations, while quantitative metrics are objective and measurable. This ratio suggests that a larger emphasis is placed on using quantitative metrics to evaluate and analyze data, while qualitative metrics are used to provide additional context and insights.

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  • 17. 

    Data submitted for Quantitative Metrics are subjected to

    • A.

      Data Validation and Verification

    • B.

      Peer Team Review

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Validation and Verification
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Validation and Verification. When data is submitted for quantitative metrics, it undergoes a process of validation and verification. This means that the data is checked for accuracy, completeness, and consistency. Validation ensures that the data is reliable and meets the required standards, while verification involves cross-checking the data against other sources or conducting audits to ensure its accuracy. These processes are crucial to ensure the quality and reliability of the data used for quantitative metrics.

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  • 18. 

    Data submitted for Qualitative Metrics are subjected to

    • A.

      Peer Team Review

    • B.

      Third Party Review

    Correct Answer
    A. Peer Team Review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Peer Team Review. Qualitative metrics are subjective measures that assess the quality or characteristics of a product, process, or service. Peer Team Review involves a group of individuals with similar expertise and knowledge evaluating the submitted data. This process ensures that the data is reviewed by professionals who can provide valuable insights and feedback based on their experience and expertise in the field. Third Party Review, on the other hand, involves external individuals or organizations reviewing the data, which may or may not include peers.

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  • 19. 

    Short forms for Quantitative and Qualitative Metrics are

    • A.

      QnM, QlM

    • B.

      QmM,QnM

    Correct Answer
    A. QnM, QlM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QnM, QlM. This means that the short forms for Quantitative and Qualitative Metrics are QnM and QlM respectively.

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  • 20. 

    Peer Team Visit happens only when

    • A.

      The Institution clears the prequalifier stage

    • B.

      The institution clears the review stage

    Correct Answer
    A. The Institution clears the prequalifier stage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Peer Team Visit happens only when the institution clears the prequalifier stage. This means that before a Peer Team Visit can take place, the institution must first pass the prequalifier stage. This stage likely involves meeting certain criteria or requirements set by the accrediting body or organization. Once the institution successfully clears this stage, they are then eligible for a Peer Team Visit, which is a crucial step in the accreditation process.

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  • 21. 

    Pre Qualifier is

    • A.

      Minimum 25% of QnM Score

    • B.

      Minimum 40% of QnM Score

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum 25% of QnM Score
    Explanation
    The pre qualifier refers to the minimum requirement that needs to be met in order to proceed further. In this case, the pre qualifier is set at a minimum of 25% of the QnM score. This means that in order to qualify, the individual or entity must achieve a score that is at least 25% of the total QnM score.

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  • 22. 

    Peer Team reviews the

    • A.

      QnM

    • B.

      QlM

    Correct Answer
    A. QnM
  • 23. 

    SSS Questionnaire is

    • A.

      Student Satisfaction Survey

    • B.

      Student Study Survey

    Correct Answer
    A. Student Satisfaction Survey
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Student Satisfaction Survey" because SSS stands for Student Satisfaction Survey. This survey is conducted to gather feedback from students regarding their satisfaction with various aspects of their educational experience. It helps institutions identify areas of improvement and make necessary changes to enhance student satisfaction and overall quality of education.

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  • 24. 

    Minimum response to SSS Questionnaire is

    • A.

      10% of student population or 100 whichever is lesser

    • B.

      10% of student population or 100 whichever is more

    Correct Answer
    A. 10% of student population or 100 whichever is lesser
    Explanation
    The minimum response to the SSS Questionnaire is determined by taking either 10% of the student population or 100, whichever is smaller. This means that if the student population is less than 100, the minimum response would be equal to the student population. However, if the student population is greater than 100, the minimum response would be 10% of the student population.

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  • 25. 

    SSS activity is done by

    • A.

      NAAC

    • B.

      College

    Correct Answer
    A. NAAC
  • 26. 

    SSS minimum student population

    • A.

      50% of currently enrolled student population

    • B.

      75% of currently enrolled population

    Correct Answer
    A. 50% of currently enrolled student population
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50% of the currently enrolled student population. This means that the minimum student population for SSS is half of the number of students currently enrolled. It suggests that SSS requires a significant number of students to be enrolled in order to meet the minimum population requirement.

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  • 27. 

    Time limit for SSS activity

    • A.

      One month from it' s initiation

    • B.

      Two months from it's initiation

    Correct Answer
    A. One month from it' s initiation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "One month from its initiation." This means that the time limit for the SSS activity is one month starting from when it is initiated.

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  • 28. 

    Score of QnM is generated by

    • A.

      System

    • B.

      Humans

    Correct Answer
    A. System
    Explanation
    The score of QnM is generated by the system.

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  • 29. 

    CGPA Range of A+ Grade

    • A.

      3.26 to 3.50

    • B.

      3.01 to 3.25

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.26 to 3.50
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3.26 to 3.50. This range represents the CGPA required to achieve an A+ grade. Students who have a CGPA between 3.26 and 3.50 will be awarded an A+ grade, indicating that they have performed exceptionally well in their academic studies.

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  • 30. 

    SWOC means

    • A.

      Strenghths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Challenges

    • B.

      Strenghths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Criticals

    Correct Answer
    A. Strenghths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Challenges
    Explanation
    SWOC is an acronym that stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Challenges. This framework is commonly used in strategic planning and analysis to assess an organization's internal strengths and weaknesses, as well as external opportunities and challenges. By evaluating these factors, organizations can identify areas where they excel, areas where they need improvement, potential opportunities for growth, and potential obstacles or risks they may face.

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  • 31. 

    Qualitative metrics data submitted by

    • A.

      Description not exceeding the max words given

    • B.

      Numerical data

    Correct Answer
    A. Description not exceeding the max words given
    Explanation
    The answer suggests that the qualitative metrics data that is being submitted should not exceed the maximum word limit for the description. This means that there is a specific word limit set for the description of the qualitative metrics data and it should not be exceeded. It is important to adhere to this limit in order to ensure that the data is concise and focused.

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  • 32. 

    IQAC means

    • A.

      Internal Quality Assurance Cell

    • B.

      Internal Quality Administration Cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal Quality Assurance Cell
    Explanation
    IQAC stands for Internal Quality Assurance Cell. This cell is responsible for ensuring and enhancing the quality of education and academic activities within an institution. It monitors and evaluates various aspects such as teaching-learning processes, curriculum development, research activities, infrastructure facilities, and student support services. The purpose of IQAC is to establish a system for continuous improvement in the overall functioning of the institution and to promote a culture of quality consciousness among all stakeholders.

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  • 33. 

    AQAR means

    • A.

      Annual Quality Assurance Report

    • B.

      Administrative Quality Assurance Report

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual Quality Assurance Report
    Explanation
    AQAR stands for Annual Quality Assurance Report. This report is a comprehensive document that provides an overview of the quality assurance measures and activities undertaken by an organization or institution over the course of a year. It includes information on various aspects such as academic programs, infrastructure, faculty development, student support services, research activities, and community engagement. The AQAR serves as a tool for self-assessment, evaluation, and improvement, helping organizations to maintain and enhance their quality standards.

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  • 34. 

    All the NAAC information such as SSR, IQAR etc are to be placed on

    • A.

      College Website with separate tabs for each metric/indicator

    • B.

      Notice Board in printed format

    Correct Answer
    A. College Website with separate tabs for each metric/indicator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is College Website with separate tabs for each metric/indicator. This option is the most efficient and accessible way to provide all the NAAC information such as SSR, IQAR, etc to the stakeholders. By placing them on the college website with separate tabs for each metric/indicator, it ensures that the information is organized and easily navigable for anyone who wants to access it. Additionally, it allows for easy updates and revisions to the information, ensuring that it is always up to date.

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  • 35. 

    Programme outcomes (POs), Programme Specific outcomes (PSOs) and Course Outcomes (CO's) have relevance to

    • A.

      Curriculam Design and Development

    • B.

      Institutional Governance

    Correct Answer
    A. Curriculam Design and Development
    Explanation
    Programme outcomes (POs), Programme Specific outcomes (PSOs), and Course Outcomes (CO's) are all related to curriculum design and development. These outcomes are used to define the goals and objectives of a program or course, and they help in planning and organizing the curriculum. By clearly stating the expected outcomes, educators can design appropriate learning activities and assessments to ensure that students achieve these outcomes. Additionally, these outcomes also guide the evaluation and improvement of the curriculum, as they provide a framework for assessing the effectiveness of the program or course in meeting its intended goals. Therefore, curriculum design and development are directly linked to the establishment and implementation of POs, PSOs, and CO's.

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  • 36. 

    POs, PSOs and CO's are

    • A.

      QlM

    • B.

      QnM

    Correct Answer
    A. QlM
    Explanation
    The answer "QlM" refers to Program Outcomes (POs), Program Specific Outcomes (PSOs), and Course Outcomes (COs). These are terms commonly used in educational institutions to define the expected learning outcomes for students. POs are broad statements that describe what students should be able to do after completing a program of study. PSOs are more specific outcomes that are tailored to a particular program or specialization within a program. COs are even more specific outcomes that are tied to individual courses within a program. Therefore, "QlM" is a concise way of referring to these three types of outcomes.

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  • 37. 

    How many years is taken for calculating percentage of syllabus revision

    • A.

      Last 5 years

    • B.

      Last 10 years

    Correct Answer
    A. Last 5 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Last 5 years" because the question is asking for the time period used to calculate the percentage of syllabus revision. By specifying "Last 5 years," it indicates that the calculation is based on the changes made to the syllabus in the most recent 5-year period. This answer suggests that the focus is on recent revisions rather than considering a longer time frame like the last 10 years.

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  • 38. 

    Documents required for courses with employability/entrepreneurship/skill development

    • A.

      Syllabus, BoS Resolutions and MoUs

    • B.

      MoUs only

    Correct Answer
    A. Syllabus, BoS Resolutions and MoUs
    Explanation
    The documents required for courses with employability/entrepreneurship/skill development include syllabus, Board of Studies (BoS) Resolutions, and Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs). These documents are essential for designing and implementing courses that focus on developing employability skills and entrepreneurship abilities. The syllabus outlines the topics and learning objectives of the course, while the BoS Resolutions provide guidelines and decisions made by the Board of Studies. MoUs are important for establishing partnerships and collaborations with industry or other institutions, which can enhance the practical training and employment prospects for students.

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  • 39. 

    Percentage of new courses introduced in the last 5 years is

    • A.

      No of new courses introduced/ Number of courses offered (both in the last 5 years)

    • B.

      No of new courses introduced in the current year/ Number of courses offered in the current year

    Correct Answer
    A. No of new courses introduced/ Number of courses offered (both in the last 5 years)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the ratio of the number of new courses introduced in the last 5 years to the total number of courses offered in the last 5 years. This ratio gives the percentage of new courses introduced in relation to the total number of courses available during that period. It provides a measure of the rate of course introduction and helps assess the level of innovation and growth in the curriculum over time.

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  • 40. 

    100% implementation of CBCS improves the score

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that implementing the Credit Based Choice System (CBCS) in its entirety will lead to an improvement in scores. This implies that the CBCS system is designed to enhance the scoring process and potentially provide students with a fairer and more accurate evaluation. Therefore, the answer "True" indicates that a complete implementation of CBCS is expected to result in improved scores.

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  • 41. 

    Integration of Professional Ethics, Gender, Human Values, Environment and Sustainability, Human Values into the Curriculum is a

    • A.

      QlM

    • B.

      QnM

    Correct Answer
    A. QlM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QlM. Integrating professional ethics, gender, human values, environment and sustainability, and human values into the curriculum is important for developing well-rounded individuals who are aware of their responsibilities towards society and the environment. By including these aspects in the curriculum, students can learn to make ethical decisions, understand the importance of gender equality, appreciate different human values, and develop a sense of responsibility towards the environment and sustainability. This integration helps in creating a holistic educational experience that prepares students to be responsible and ethical professionals.

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  • 42. 

    Each Value added course to have

    • A.

      30 or more contact hours

    • B.

      20 or more contact hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 or more contact hours
    Explanation
    The value added courses must have a minimum of 30 contact hours in order to fulfill the requirement.

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  • 43. 

    More number of students doing value added courses (beyond the curriculam) improves the score

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When more students participate in value-added courses that go beyond the curriculum, it can have a positive impact on their scores. These additional courses provide students with extra knowledge and skills that can enhance their understanding and performance in their regular academic subjects. By engaging in value-added courses, students can gain a deeper understanding of the topics they are studying, develop critical thinking skills, and improve their overall academic performance. Therefore, it is true that an increased number of students doing value-added courses can lead to improved scores.

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  • 44. 

    Students field projects/ internships / student projects data is taken for

    • A.

      For the latest completed academic year

    • B.

      For the last 5 years

    Correct Answer
    A. For the latest completed academic year
    Explanation
    The data from students' field projects, internships, and student projects is collected for the latest completed academic year. This means that the information gathered is specific to the most recent academic year that has been completed. It does not include data from previous years or a span of five years.

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  • 45. 

    Structured feedback for design and review of syllabus is to be obtained from 1) Students, 2) Teachers, 3) Employers, 4) Alumni

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The correct answer is true because obtaining structured feedback from students, teachers, employers, and alumni is important for the design and review of a syllabus. Each group provides valuable perspectives and insights that can help improve the syllabus and ensure it meets the needs and expectations of all stakeholders. By gathering feedback from these different sources, educators can make informed decisions and adjustments to enhance the quality and relevance of the syllabus.

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  • 46. 

    Feedback on Syllabus

    • A.

      To be analysed and Action taken report required

    • B.

      Only analyzed and presented

    Correct Answer
    A. To be analysed and Action taken report required
    Explanation
    The given correct answer suggests that the feedback on the syllabus needs to be analyzed and an action taken report is required. The feedback has only been analyzed and presented, but further steps need to be taken to address any issues or concerns raised in the feedback.

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  • 47. 

    Feedback analysis and reports are to be placed on

    • A.

      College Website

    • B.

      Notice Board

    Correct Answer
    A. College Website
    Explanation
    The feedback analysis and reports are to be placed on the college website because it is a convenient and accessible platform for students, faculty, and other stakeholders to access the information. Placing the feedback on the website ensures that it reaches a wider audience and can be easily referenced and reviewed. It also allows for easy updates and modifications to the feedback analysis and reports, ensuring that the information remains up-to-date. Additionally, the website provides a central location for all feedback-related information, making it easier for individuals to find and navigate through the reports.

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  • 48. 

    Enrolment percentage is (average for 5 years)

    • A.

      Students admitted/Seats sanctioned

    • B.

      Students appeared/Seats sanctioned

    Correct Answer
    A. Students admitted/Seats sanctioned
    Explanation
    The given formula is used to calculate the enrollment percentage, which is the average for 5 years. It is calculated by dividing the number of students admitted by the number of seats sanctioned. This ratio gives an indication of the percentage of seats that are filled with admitted students. It helps in understanding the efficiency of the admission process and the utilization of available seats.

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  • 49. 

    Demand Ratio (No of applications/No of sanctioned seats) is required for

    • A.

      Enrolment indicator

    • B.

      Progress indicator

    Correct Answer
    A. Enrolment indicator
    Explanation
    Demand Ratio (No of applications/No of sanctioned seats) is required for the Enrolment indicator. This ratio helps determine the level of demand for a particular program or course by comparing the number of applications received to the number of available seats. A higher demand ratio indicates a higher level of interest and demand for the program, suggesting its popularity among applicants. This information is crucial for measuring the effectiveness of enrolment strategies and making informed decisions regarding program capacity and resource allocation.

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  • 50. 

    Percentage of seats filled against reserved categories seats is averaged for

    • A.

      Last 5 years

    • B.

      Last 10 years

    Correct Answer
    A. Last 5 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Last 5 years" because the question is asking for the average percentage of seats filled against reserved categories seats, and it specifies that the calculation should be done for either the last 5 years or the last 10 years. Since the answer is "Last 5 years," it means that the average percentage of seats filled against reserved categories seats should be calculated based on the data from the past 5 years.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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