CNA Final Review

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  • 1/25 Questions

    It is the end of your shift. As you collect the intake and output records, you notice that Mrs. Allen has taken in 1140mL. Her output for the shift is 80mL. You should immediately

    • Record this information on the flow sheet and go home
    • Report the imbalance to the nurse
    • Give Mrs.Allen some extra water
    • Document the I&O on the clipboard and go home
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About This Quiz

The 'CNA Final Review' quiz assesses knowledge crucial for Certified Nursing Assistants, covering OBRA regulations, nursing process contributions, CPR protocols, and resident rights. It evaluates understanding of cardiovascular health via pulse checks, emphasizing the importance of continuous learning in healthcare settings.

CNA Final Review - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Once employed, the nursing assistant works under the license of

    • Nursing personel

    • Ancillary personnel

    • Physicians assistants

    • Administrative personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Nursing personel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is nursing personnel because nursing assistants work under the supervision and guidance of licensed nurses. These nurses have the knowledge and skills required to provide proper care and support to patients. Nursing personnel ensure that the nursing assistant follows the necessary protocols and procedures, and they are responsible for overseeing the overall patient care provided by the nursing assistant.

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  • 3. 

    An example of droplet transmission of a disease is by

    • Coughing, sneezing, or talking

    • Germs carried through the ventilation system

    • Microbes carried by moisture and dust in the air

    • Inhaling the odor of unpleasant excretions

    Correct Answer
    A. Coughing, sneezing, or talking
    Explanation
    Droplet transmission of a disease occurs when respiratory droplets containing germs are expelled from an infected person's mouth or nose through activities like coughing, sneezing, or talking. These droplets can contain infectious microbes and can travel short distances through the air before landing on surfaces or being inhaled by others. This mode of transmission is common for diseases like the flu or COVID-19, where close contact with an infected person can lead to the spread of the disease through these respiratory droplets.

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  • 4. 

    The rights of residents in long-term care facilities

    • Were legislated by OBRA in 1987

    • Are identical to hospital patients' rights

    • Are more restrictive than rights in other health care facilitie

    • Do not include advance directives

    Correct Answer
    A. Were legislated by OBRA in 1987
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "were legislated by OBRA in 1987." OBRA stands for the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, which was passed in 1987. This act established a set of rights for residents in long-term care facilities, aiming to protect their well-being and ensure quality care. These rights include the right to be treated with dignity and respect, the right to privacy, the right to participate in their own care decisions, and many others. By legislating these rights, OBRA aimed to improve the quality of care and protect the rights of individuals living in long-term care facilities.

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  • 5. 

    The nursing assistant contributes to the nursing process by

    • Performing assessments

    • Developing a nursing diagnosis

    • Initiating the patient's care plan

    • Observing and reporting changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Observing and reporting changes
    Explanation
    The nursing assistant contributes to the nursing process by observing and reporting changes. This means that they are responsible for monitoring the patient's condition and noting any changes or abnormalities. By doing so, they play a crucial role in ensuring that the healthcare team is aware of any developments that may require immediate attention or adjustments to the patient's care plan. This allows for timely interventions and appropriate modifications to be made, ultimately promoting the patient's well-being and recovery.

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  • 6. 

    When taking the blood pressure, the highest point at which sound is heard is called

    • Diastolic pressure

    • Tachypneic pressure

    • Systolic pressure

    • Pulse deficit

    Correct Answer
    A. Systolic pressure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is systolic pressure. When taking blood pressure, the systolic pressure is the highest point at which sound is heard. This is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting and pumping blood. It is typically the first sound heard when using a blood pressure cuff. Diastolic pressure, on the other hand, is the lowest point at which sound is heard and represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. Tachypneic pressure and pulse deficit are not terms related to blood pressure measurement.

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  • 7. 

    You are assigned to bathe Mrs. Long, a patient in contact precautions. Select the correct personal protective equipment

    • HEPA mask, gown, face shield

    • Surgical mask and face shield

    • Gown and gloves

    • Surgical mask and gown

    Correct Answer
    A. Gown and gloves
    Explanation
    The correct personal protective equipment for bathing a patient in contact precautions is a gown and gloves. This is because contact precautions are used for patients who are known or suspected to be infected with a contagious disease that can be easily transmitted through direct contact. Wearing a gown and gloves provides a barrier between the healthcare worker and the patient's bodily fluids, reducing the risk of transmission. The other options, such as wearing a HEPA mask or a surgical mask with a face shield, are not necessary for contact precautions during bathing.

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  • 8. 

    OBRA regulations require

    • Hospitals to provide rehabilitation services

    • Patients to participate in rehabilitation programs

    • Skilled nursing facilities to provide restorative care

    • Restorative care for alert patients only

    Correct Answer
    A. Skilled nursing facilities to provide restorative care
    Explanation
    The OBRA regulations mandate that skilled nursing facilities must provide restorative care. This means that these facilities are required to offer services aimed at maintaining or improving the physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of their patients. Restorative care is not limited to alert patients only; it is provided to all individuals in skilled nursing facilities who require rehabilitation or assistance in regaining their functional abilities.

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  • 9. 

    When removing a gown from a patient who has a weak or paralyzed arm,

    • Ask the nurse to remove the gown, to prevent injury

    • Remove the gown from both arms simultaneously

    • Remove the gown from the strong arm first

    • Remove the gown from the weak arm firs

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the gown from the strong arm first
    Explanation
    When removing a gown from a patient who has a weak or paralyzed arm, it is important to remove the gown from the strong arm first. This is because removing the gown from the weak arm first may cause the patient's weight to shift onto the weak arm, potentially leading to injury or discomfort. By removing the gown from the strong arm first, the patient's weight can be supported and balanced properly, reducing the risk of injury.

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  • 10. 

    The pulse

    • Indicates how well the cardiovascular system is working

    • Varies in different parts of the body

    • Is a measurement of the velocity of the blood

    • Indicates how well the tissue absorbs oxyge

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicates how well the cardiovascular system is working
    Explanation
    The pulse is a rhythmic throbbing sensation that can be felt in different parts of the body, such as the wrist or neck. It is caused by the expansion and contraction of the arteries as blood is pumped by the heart. By measuring the pulse, healthcare professionals can assess the rate and regularity of the heartbeat, which provides valuable information about the cardiovascular system's functioning. A strong and regular pulse indicates a healthy cardiovascular system, while a weak or irregular pulse may suggest underlying health issues. Therefore, the pulse is an indicator of how well the cardiovascular system is working.

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  • 11. 

    In the ABCDs of emergency care, the "D" stands for

    • Defibrillation

    • Dysrrthmia

    • Diet

    • Death and dying

    Correct Answer
    A. Defibrillation
    Explanation
    In the ABCDs of emergency care, the "D" stands for defibrillation. Defibrillation is a medical procedure that involves delivering an electric shock to the heart in order to restore its normal rhythm. This is often done using a device called a defibrillator, which can help save a person's life in cases of cardiac arrest or certain types of abnormal heart rhythms. It is an essential component of emergency care as it can help restart the heart and improve the chances of survival.

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  • 12. 

    When finishing the task of side-lying position

    • Cross the arms over the chest

    • Place a pillow between the legs

    • Flex the neck as much as possible

    • Raise the side rail near the back

    Correct Answer
    A. Place a pillow between the legs
    Explanation
    When finishing the task of side-lying position, it is recommended to place a pillow between the legs. This is because it helps to maintain proper alignment of the spine and pelvis, reducing the risk of strain or discomfort. The pillow provides support and prevents the legs from rubbing against each other, which can cause skin irritation. Additionally, placing a pillow between the legs can help to alleviate pressure on the hips and knees, promoting better circulation and preventing muscle stiffness.

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  • 13. 

    An ischemic stroke is caused by a

    • Blockage in the heart muscle

    • Neurological problems

    • Loss of blood flow to part of the brain

    • Inflammation, infection, and edema

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of blood flow to part of the brain
    Explanation
    An ischemic stroke occurs when there is a blockage in the blood vessels that supply blood to the brain, leading to a loss of blood flow to a specific part of the brain. This blockage can be caused by a blood clot or atherosclerosis, which is the build-up of fatty deposits in the blood vessels. As a result of the reduced blood flow, the affected part of the brain does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to damage and potentially long-term neurological problems.

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  • 14. 

    Atherosclerosis

    • causes dilation of the blood vessels

    • Produces atheromas that can obstruct blood flow

    • Is caused by too much protein in the diet

    • Causes diabetes and obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. Produces atheromas that can obstruct blood flow
    Explanation
    Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the formation of atheromas, which are fatty deposits that accumulate on the inner walls of arteries. These atheromas can gradually grow and harden, leading to the obstruction of blood flow. This narrowing of the arteries can result in various complications, such as heart attacks and strokes. Therefore, the correct answer states that atherosclerosis produces atheromas that can obstruct blood flow.

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  • 15. 

    Residents with Stage III Alzheimer's are

    • Wanderers

    • Often unresponsive

    • Able to have a conversation

    • Able to read

    Correct Answer
    A. Often unresponsive
    Explanation
    Residents with Stage III Alzheimer's are often unresponsive. This is because Alzheimer's disease is a progressive brain disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. In Stage III, which is also known as the middle stage, individuals may experience significant cognitive decline, including difficulty with communication and reduced responsiveness to their surroundings. This can make it challenging for them to engage in conversations or interact with others.

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  • 16. 

    Moving an extremity toward the midline is

    • Flexion

    • Extension

    • Abduction

    • Adduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Adduction
    Explanation
    Adduction refers to the movement of an extremity towards the midline of the body. This means that the extremity is being brought closer to the center of the body. In contrast, flexion refers to the bending of a joint, extension refers to the straightening of a joint, and abduction refers to the movement of an extremity away from the midline. Therefore, adduction is the correct answer as it specifically describes the movement towards the midline.

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  • 17. 

    If a patient complains of feeling faint, you should

    • Elevate the patient's head and shoulders

    • Seat the patient in a chair and elevate the feet

    • Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and neck

    • Seat the patient and position the head between the knees

    Correct Answer
    A. Seat the patient and position the head between the knees
    Explanation
    Seating the patient and positioning the head between the knees is the correct answer because it helps to increase blood flow to the brain. This position utilizes gravity to assist in improving blood circulation, which can help alleviate the feeling of faintness. By lowering the head below the level of the heart, blood is encouraged to flow more easily to the brain, reducing the symptoms of fainting.

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  • 18. 

    MRSA and VRE are

    • Drug-resistent "superbugs"

    • Viruses

    • Easily eradicated

    • Fungi

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug-resistent "superbugs"
    Explanation
    MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) and VRE (Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus) are both drug-resistant "superbugs". They are bacteria that have developed resistance to multiple antibiotics, making them difficult to treat and control. These superbugs are a significant concern in healthcare settings as they can cause severe infections that are challenging to eradicate.

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  • 19. 

    Treatment for a patient with congestive heart failure includes

    • Sodium and fluid restrictions

    • CPAP treatments

    • Positioning in the semi-Fowler's position

    • Exercise and stimulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium and fluid restrictions
    Explanation
    A patient with congestive heart failure requires sodium and fluid restrictions because excess sodium and fluid can cause fluid buildup in the body, putting additional strain on the heart. By limiting sodium intake and fluid intake, the body can maintain a better fluid balance and reduce the workload on the heart. This can help prevent further complications and improve the patient's overall condition.

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  • 20. 

    The most important way to prevent pressure ulcers is to

    • Apply padding to the chair

    • Prevent incontinence

    • Turn residents every 3 hours

    • Keep pressure off bony prominences

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep pressure off bony prominences
    Explanation
    Keeping pressure off bony prominences is the most important way to prevent pressure ulcers. Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, occur when there is prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, such as bony prominences. By relieving pressure on these areas, the blood flow to the skin is improved, reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. This can be achieved by regularly repositioning or turning residents every 3 hours, ensuring that pressure is evenly distributed across different parts of the body. Applying padding to the chair or preventing incontinence may be helpful in preventing pressure ulcers, but they are not as crucial as keeping pressure off bony prominences.

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  • 21. 

    You can expect a patient with which diagnosis to be on a sodium-restricted diet?

    • Diabetes

    • Renal failure

    • Cancer

    • Hepatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal failure
    Explanation
    Patients with renal failure often have impaired kidney function, leading to a decreased ability to excrete sodium. As a result, they may experience fluid retention and increased blood pressure. A sodium-restricted diet helps to manage these symptoms by reducing the intake of sodium, which can help control fluid balance and blood pressure. Therefore, it is expected for patients with renal failure to be on a sodium-restricted diet.

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  • 22. 

    Proximal refers to body parts that are

    • Points of attachment for the ligaments

    • Farthest away from the point of attachmen

    • Closest to the point of attachment

    • Away from the midline

    Correct Answer
    A. Closest to the point of attachment
    Explanation
    The term "proximal" is commonly used in anatomy to describe body parts that are closest to the point of attachment. In this context, it refers to the body parts that are nearest to the point where ligaments are attached. This can be understood as the body parts that are closer to the origin of the ligaments rather than being farther away.

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  • 23. 

    Once you begin CPR, you may not stop until

    • An equally qualified rescuer instructs you to

    • You believe the CPR will not be effective

    • The patient's color improves

    • You are exhausted and unable to continue

    Correct Answer
    A. An equally qualified rescuer instructs you to
    Explanation
    Once you begin CPR, you may not stop until an equally qualified rescuer instructs you to. This guideline emphasizes the importance of continuing CPR without interruption until another qualified individual, such as a healthcare professional or paramedic, takes over or instructs you to stop. CPR should only be stopped if there is a clear reason to do so, and it should be continued until then to maximize the chances of resuscitating the individual in distress.

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  • 24. 

    To suspend the ball in the incentive spirometer, the patient

    • Inhales

    • Exhales

    • Coughs

    • Swallows

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhales
    Explanation
    The correct answer is inhales because when using an incentive spirometer, the patient needs to inhale deeply to suspend the ball inside the device. This helps to expand the lungs and improve lung function. Exhaling, coughing, and swallowing are not directly related to using the incentive spirometer.

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  • 25. 

    When a person is prone, they are lying on their/in their

    • Wheelchair

    • Hands

    • Stomach

    • Back

    Correct Answer
    A. Stomach
    Explanation
    The prone position refers to lying flat with the front or face down. It's the opposite of lying supine, where one is on their back. Adopting a prone position can be for various reasons, including certain exercises, medical procedures, or sleeping preferences, emphasizing the body's orientation relative to the surface.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 10, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 02, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tmckuzes
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