Clinical Procedures Final Vc Jax

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  • 1/73 Questions

    The emergency guidelines ABCD stands for:  

    • Airway, Bronchi, Circulation, Dehydration
    • Airway, bronchi, Cricoid catilage, Diffusion
    • Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
    • Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Diffusion
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About This Quiz

The 'Clinical Procedures Final VC Jax' assesses key emergency medical skills, covering topics like ABCD emergency guidelines, AHA breath-to-compression ratios, crash cart essentials, urinary catheterization, and urinary system anatomy. Essential for learners in emergency medicine.

Clinical Procedures Final Vc Jax - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The AHA guidelines for the ratio of breaths to compression in the adult are:  

    • 2:20

    • 1:30

    • 2:30

    • 5:30

    Correct Answer
    A. 2:30
    Explanation
    The AHA guidelines for the ratio of breaths to compression in adults is 2:30. This means that for every 30 compressions, two breaths should be given during CPR. This ratio allows for adequate circulation to be maintained while also providing enough oxygen to the patient through rescue breaths. It is important to follow these guidelines to optimize the chances of survival during cardiac arrest.

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  • 3. 

    Crash carts contain some the following items:

    • Oxygen tanks, IV fluids

    • IV fluids, oxygen tanks, Alcohol prep pads, speculums

    • Oxygen tanks, Ambu bag, Cystoscope

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen tanks, IV fluids
    Explanation
    The correct answer is oxygen tanks and IV fluids. Crash carts are emergency medical equipment used in hospitals and other healthcare settings to provide immediate medical intervention during critical situations. Oxygen tanks are essential for delivering oxygen to patients who may be experiencing respiratory distress or failure. IV fluids are used to replenish fluids and electrolytes in patients who are dehydrated or in need of immediate hydration. These items are crucial in stabilizing patients and providing life-saving care in emergency situations.

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  • 4. 

    The most common reasons to perform a urinary catheterization is:  

    • Relief of urinary retention, the need for sterile sample, or to instill a medication into the bladder.

    • For heart disease

    • For bladder tumor

    • For testicular infection/tumor

    Correct Answer
    A. Relief of urinary retention, the need for sterile sample, or to instill a medication into the bladder.
    Explanation
    Urinary catheterization is performed for various reasons, including relief of urinary retention, obtaining a sterile sample, or administering medication directly into the bladder. This procedure is not commonly performed for heart disease, bladder tumor, or testicular infection/tumor. Therefore, the correct answer is relief of urinary retention, the need for sterile sample, or to instill a medication into the bladder.

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  • 5. 

    A clean catch can be obtained by instructing the patient to:

    • Urinate the first stream into a nonsterile cup

    • Wipe the area around the urethra with towelettes, urinate in the toilet, and catch the mid-stream of the urine.

    • To urinate in a 24hour container, there no need to use sterile containers

    Correct Answer
    A. Wipe the area around the urethra with towelettes, urinate in the toilet, and catch the mid-stream of the urine.
    Explanation
    To obtain a clean catch, the patient should wipe the area around the urethra with towelettes, urinate in the toilet, and catch the mid-stream of the urine. This method helps to minimize contamination from the external genitalia and allows for a more accurate analysis of the urine sample. Using a nonsterile cup for the first stream and not needing sterile containers for a 24-hour collection are unrelated to obtaining a clean catch.

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  • 6. 

    The organs of the urinary system include:  

    • Spleen, kidneys, ureter

    • Kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra

    • Kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra, prostate, vas deferens

    • Kidneys, bladder, 2 urethras, 1 ureter

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra
    Explanation
    The correct answer is kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra. The urinary system is responsible for removing waste products and excess fluid from the body. The kidneys filter waste from the blood and produce urine. The urine then travels through the ureters, which are tubes that connect the kidneys to the bladder. The bladder stores the urine until it is ready to be eliminated from the body through the urethra. Therefore, the organs of the urinary system include the kidneys, ureter, bladder, and urethra.

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  • 7. 

    In carbon monoxide poisining the treatment may include:  

    • Helium gas, ambu bag

    • Hyperbaric oxygen

    • Hypobaric oxygen

    • Carbon monoxide antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperbaric oxygen
    Explanation
    Hyperbaric oxygen is a treatment option for carbon monoxide poisoning. It involves breathing pure oxygen in a pressurized chamber, which helps to quickly remove carbon monoxide from the bloodstream and replace it with oxygen. This treatment is effective because it increases the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood, allowing it to reach areas that may have been deprived of oxygen due to carbon monoxide exposure. By providing high levels of oxygen, hyperbaric oxygen therapy can help reduce the risk of long-term complications and promote faster recovery from carbon monoxide poisoning.

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  • 8. 

    In case of a foreign object or chemical gets in the eye the first thing you should do is:

    • Apply sterile wash across the eye or if not available running tap water

    • Apply bicarbonate to neutralize the irritating acid

    • Attempt to brush it off

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply sterile wash across the eye or if not available running tap water
    Explanation
    When a foreign object or chemical gets into the eye, the first thing you should do is apply sterile wash across the eye or, if not available, running tap water. This is because flushing the eye with water helps to remove the foreign object or dilute and wash away the chemical, reducing the risk of further damage or irritation to the eye. Applying bicarbonate to neutralize the irritating acid or attempting to brush it off may not be effective or safe in this situation.

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  • 9. 

    If a finger is accidentally amputated you should do the following:

    • Put it in ice immediately to preserve the finger

    • Wrap it in sterile gauze that has been soaked in saline solution, then place it in a plastic bag, then place the plastic bag in ice.

    • Wrap it in sterile gauze that has been soaked in saline solution, then place it in a plastic bag, then put ice in the bag

    • Throw it away, it is useless since it no longer has blood supply and the cells have died

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrap it in sterile gauze that has been soaked in saline solution, then place it in a plastic bag, then place the plastic bag in ice.
    Explanation
    In case of an accidental amputation, it is important to preserve the amputated finger for possible reattachment. Wrapping it in sterile gauze soaked in saline solution helps to keep it clean and moist, preventing further damage. Placing it in a plastic bag provides an additional layer of protection. Placing the bag in ice helps to slow down the deterioration process and preserve the finger until medical help can be sought.

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  • 10. 

    Signs and symptoms of a stroke include:  

    • Unilateral paralysis, impaired or slurred speech, confusion, facial droop, arm drift, loss of balance,coordination, LOC.

    • Unilateral paralysis, impaired or slurred speech, confusion, facial droop, arm drift, loss of balance,coordination, anhedonia, euphoria.

    • Unilateral paralysis, impaired or slurred speech, confusion, facial droop, arm drift, loss of balance,coordination, LOC, ringing in the ear, rhinorrhea

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Unilateral paralysis, impaired or slurred speech, confusion, facial droop, arm drift, loss of balance,coordination, LOC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unilateral paralysis, impaired or slurred speech, confusion, facial droop, arm drift, loss of balance, coordination, LOC." This answer is correct because it includes all the signs and symptoms commonly associated with a stroke. Unilateral paralysis refers to weakness or loss of movement on one side of the body, impaired or slurred speech can indicate damage to the language centers of the brain, confusion can result from the disruption of cognitive function, facial droop can occur due to muscle weakness, arm drift can indicate weakness or lack of control in the arm, loss of balance and coordination can be a result of damage to the cerebellum, and LOC stands for loss of consciousness, which can occur during a stroke.

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  • 11. 

    CVA (cerebral vascular accident) is also known as:  

    • Hypotension in cerebral tissue

    • MI

    • Stroke

    • CHF

    Correct Answer
    A. Stroke
    Explanation
    CVA (cerebral vascular accident) is a medical term used to describe a stroke. A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted, leading to the death of brain cells. This interruption can be caused by a blockage in a blood vessel (ischemic stroke) or by bleeding in the brain (hemorrhagic stroke). Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "stroke."

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  • 12. 

    When a person is seizing you should:

    • Walk away to prevent injury to yourself and the seizing victim

    • Move them carefully to the floor, move any furniture or object out of the way, and remain with them.

    • Tell the person to calm down.

    • First call EMS, and tell the patient to calm down if he/she wants this episode to end faster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Move them carefully to the floor, move any furniture or object out of the way, and remain with them.
    Explanation
    When a person is seizing, it is important to move them carefully to the floor to prevent them from falling and injuring themselves. Moving any furniture or objects out of the way is necessary to create a safe environment and prevent further harm during the seizure. Remaining with the person is important to provide support and ensure their safety. Telling the person to calm down is not recommended as they have no control over their actions during a seizure. Calling EMS is the correct action to take in order to seek medical assistance for the person experiencing the seizure.

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  • 13. 

    Involuntary muscle contractions that result from abnormal cerebral stimulation are known as:  

    • Cerebral spasms

    • Seizures

    • Tetanus

    • Botulism

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizures
    Explanation
    Seizures are involuntary muscle contractions that occur due to abnormal cerebral stimulation. They can result from various causes such as epilepsy, brain injury, or infections. During a seizure, a person may experience convulsions, loss of consciousness, and abnormal behavior. Seizures can be managed with medication and other treatment options depending on the underlying cause.

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  • 14. 

    Cryptherapy can be used to treat these lesions:

    • Herpes

    • Cellulitis

    • Cellulite

    • Warts

    Correct Answer
    A. Warts
    Explanation
    Cryotherapy is a treatment method that involves freezing the affected area to remove abnormal tissues. It is commonly used to treat warts, which are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). Cryotherapy freezes the wart, causing it to die and fall off. This treatment is not typically used for lesions caused by herpes, cellulitis, or cellulite. Herpes is a viral infection that requires antiviral medication, while cellulitis is a bacterial infection that is treated with antibiotics. Cellulite is a cosmetic concern and does not require medical treatment.

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  • 15. 

    Cryocautery or cryotherapy is defined as:  

    • Cellular destruction by cold (usually liquid nitrogen)

    • Electricution to burn off lesions

    • Hot therapy

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cellular destruction by cold (usually liquid nitrogen)
    Explanation
    Cryocautery or cryotherapy refers to the process of cellular destruction using extreme cold, typically achieved through the application of liquid nitrogen. This method is commonly used to remove or treat abnormal tissue growths or lesions. The other options, including electricution to burn off lesions and hot therapy, do not accurately describe cryocautery, making them incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is cellular destruction by cold (usually liquid nitrogen).

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  • 16. 

    This blood test screens for neural tube defects (Spina bifida) which is associated with folic acid deficiency in the mother:

    • RPR

    • AFP

    • Folic acid levels

    • Vitamin B12 levels

    Correct Answer
    A. AFP
    Explanation
    AFP stands for alpha-fetoprotein, a protein produced by the fetus and found in the mother's blood during pregnancy. Elevated levels of AFP can indicate neural tube defects such as spina bifida. The test measures the amount of AFP in the mother's blood to screen for these defects. Folic acid deficiency in the mother is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, so measuring AFP levels can help identify potential issues early on. The other options, RPR, folic acid levels, and vitamin B12 levels, are not specifically related to screening for neural tube defects.

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  • 17. 

    The STD that causes painful, burning, itching blisters or vesicles is known as:  

    • Herpes

    • Shingles

    • HPV

    • Chlamydia trachomitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Herpes
    Explanation
    Herpes is the correct answer because it is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) that causes painful, burning, itching blisters or vesicles. Shingles is caused by the same virus as herpes, but it typically presents as a painful rash rather than blisters. HPV (human papillomavirus) is a different STD that can cause genital warts or lead to certain types of cancer. Chlamydia trachomitis is a bacteria that causes chlamydia, which can cause symptoms such as discharge and pain, but not blisters.

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  • 18. 

    The STD that produces painless chancre is known as:  

    • Herpes

    • Herpes simplex type II

    • Syphilis

    • Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Syphilis
    Explanation
    Syphilis is the correct answer because it is a sexually transmitted disease that can produce painless chancres. Chancres are small, painless sores that typically appear on the genitals, rectum, or mouth. They are one of the primary symptoms of syphilis and can occur during the early stages of the infection. Herpes, herpes simplex type II, and prostatitis are not associated with painless chancres.

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  • 19. 

    Genital warts is caused by this virus:  

    • Herpes Simplex Type I

    • Herpes Simplex Type II

    • HPV

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    Genital warts are caused by the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can be spread through vaginal, anal, or oral sex. It is a common virus that can affect both men and women. Genital warts appear as small, flesh-colored bumps or clusters in the genital area and can cause discomfort or itching. HPV can also lead to other health issues, including cervical, anal, and throat cancers. Vaccines are available to protect against certain types of HPV and reduce the risk of developing genital warts and related complications.

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  • 20. 

    Green-yellown discharge caused by a motile organism is suggestive of:  

    • Candida

    • Trichomoniasis

    • Trichuris trichra

    • Giardia

    Correct Answer
    A. Trichomoniasis
    Explanation
    A green-yellown discharge caused by a motile organism is suggestive of trichomoniasis. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It commonly causes a yellow-green, frothy discharge with a foul odor in affected individuals. Therefore, trichomoniasis is the most likely explanation for the given symptoms.

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  • 21. 

    HPV is knwon to be associated with this type of cancer:  

    • Cervical cancer

    • Adenocarcinoma

    • SCC

    • Transitional cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical cancer
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a known cause of cervical cancer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to abnormal cell growth in the cervix, which can eventually develop into cancer. Cervical cancer is the most common type of cancer associated with HPV. Adenocarcinoma, SCC (Squamous Cell Carcinoma), and transitional cell carcinoma are not typically linked to HPV.

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  • 22. 

    Bleeding caused by displased endometrial tissue is known as:

    • Endometriosis

    • Endometrial cancer

    • Ovarian cancer

    • Vaginal bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometriosis
    Explanation
    Endometriosis is the correct answer because it refers to the condition where the tissue that normally lines the inside of the uterus grows outside of it. This displaced tissue can cause bleeding, pain, and other symptoms. Endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer are both types of cancer, not specifically related to bleeding caused by displaced endometrial tissue. Vaginal bleeding is a general term and does not specifically refer to bleeding caused by displaced endometrial tissue.

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  • 23. 

    A condition most commonly caused by chlamydia that presents with fever, chills, foul-smelling discharge, severe pelvic pain is known as:  

    • PVC

    • PID

    • Cervical cancer

    • Ovarian torsion

    • Endometritis

    Correct Answer
    A. PID
    Explanation
    PID stands for pelvic inflammatory disease, which is a condition commonly caused by chlamydia. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, chills, foul-smelling discharge, and severe pelvic pain. This infection occurs when bacteria from the vagina or cervix travel upwards into the uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries. If left untreated, PID can lead to serious complications such as infertility, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if these symptoms are present.

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  • 24. 

    A toxemia of mild form with absence of convulsions during pregnancy is known as:

    • Preeclampsia

    • Eclampsia

    • Gestational hypertension

    • Gestational diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Preeclampsia
    Explanation
    Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, such as the liver and kidneys, during pregnancy. It is considered a mild form of toxemia because it does not involve convulsions, which are typically seen in the more severe condition called eclampsia. Gestational hypertension refers to high blood pressure during pregnancy without the presence of other symptoms, while gestational diabetes is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is preeclampsia.

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  • 25. 

    A toxemia of severe form involving convulsions is known as:

    • Preeclampsia

    • Eclampsia

    • Gestational seizure disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Eclampsia
    Explanation
    Eclampsia is the correct answer because it refers to a severe form of toxemia during pregnancy that is characterized by convulsions. It is a life-threatening condition that typically occurs after the onset of preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Eclampsia can cause seizures, coma, and in severe cases, maternal and fetal death. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to manage eclampsia and prevent complications.

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  • 26. 

    Vaginal bleeding, severe pain in pelvic area occuring during early pregnancy is suggestive of:  

    • Urethritis

    • PID

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Ectopic pregnancy
    Explanation
    Vaginal bleeding and severe pain in the pelvic area occurring during early pregnancy are common symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can cause the tube to rupture, leading to severe pain and vaginal bleeding. Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra, which is not related to pregnancy. PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) is an infection of the reproductive organs and may cause symptoms such as pelvic pain and abnormal vaginal bleeding, but it is not specific to early pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is ectopic pregnancy.

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  • 27. 

    A condition of nausea/vomiting often the first sign of pregnancy is known as:  

    • Hyperemesis gravidarum

    • Hematemesis

    • Stomach flu

    • Gastritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
    Explanation
    Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition of severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It is often the first sign of pregnancy and is characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, and weight loss. Unlike the other options listed, hyperemesis gravidarum is specific to pregnancy and is not caused by stomach flu, gastritis, or hematemesis.

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  • 28. 

    The use of OCP (oral contraceptive pills) and smoking can increase your risk of:  

    • Thrombocytopenia

    • Hemophilia

    • Bleeding

    • Blood clots

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood clots
    Explanation
    The use of OCP (oral contraceptive pills) and smoking can increase the risk of blood clots. This is because both OCPs and smoking can affect the clotting factors in the blood, making it more likely for clots to form. Blood clots can be dangerous as they can block blood flow to vital organs, leading to serious complications such as heart attacks or strokes. Therefore, individuals who use OCPs and smoke should be aware of this increased risk and take necessary precautions to minimize it.

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  • 29. 

    Common diagnostic test obtained in an OB/GYN appoitment include:  

    • Urinalysis, Glucose, Glucose tolerance test, pap smear, Quad screen, urine protein, HIV, syphilis, H. ducreyi

    • Urinalysis, Glucose, Glucose tolerance test, pap smear, Quad screen, urine protein, HIV, syphilis, botulinum toxin

    • Urinalysis, Glucose, Glucose tolerance test, pap smear, Quad screen, urine protein, HIV, syphilis, lyme disease, angiogram

    • Urinalysis, Glucose, Glucose tolerance test, pap smear, Quad screen, urine protein, HIV, syphilis

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Urinalysis, Glucose, Glucose tolerance test, pap smear, Quad screen, urine protein, HIV, syphilis
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the most common diagnostic tests obtained in an OB/GYN appointment. These tests are typically performed to assess the overall health of the patient, screen for potential infections or diseases, and monitor the progress of a pregnancy if applicable. The inclusion of urinalysis, glucose testing, glucose tolerance test, pap smear, Quad screen, urine protein, HIV, and syphilis covers a range of important assessments such as checking for urinary tract infections, monitoring blood sugar levels, screening for cervical cancer, assessing the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in pregnancy, and testing for sexually transmitted infections.

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  • 30. 

    Hysterectomy is defined as:  

    • Removal of the uterus

    • Cone biopsy

    • Removal of the ovaries only

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of the uterus
    Explanation
    Hysterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the uterus. This procedure is performed for various reasons, such as treating certain gynecological conditions like uterine fibroids, endometriosis, or uterine prolapse. It may also be recommended in cases of uterine cancer or severe pelvic pain. Removal of the uterus through hysterectomy is a permanent solution to these conditions and can result in the cessation of menstrual periods and the inability to bear children. It is important to note that hysterectomy does not involve the removal of the ovaries, which are responsible for producing hormones like estrogen and progesterone.

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  • 31. 

    Genital Herpes is usually caused by this virus:  

    • HPV

    • Herpes simplex type II

    • Herpes simplex type I

    • Syphillis

    Correct Answer
    A. Herpes simplex type II
    Explanation
    Genital Herpes is usually caused by the Herpes simplex type II virus. This virus is transmitted through sexual contact and primarily affects the genital and anal areas. It can cause painful sores or blisters, itching, and flu-like symptoms. While Herpes simplex type I can also cause genital herpes, it is more commonly associated with oral herpes. HPV and syphilis are different sexually transmitted infections and are not the primary cause of genital herpes.

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  • 32. 

    Gonorrhea presents with Purulent discharge, dysuria, or may be asymptomatic.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause various symptoms. One of the common symptoms is the presence of purulent discharge, which refers to a thick, yellowish or greenish discharge from the affected area. Dysuria, which is painful or difficult urination, is also a common symptom of gonorrhea. However, it is important to note that some individuals infected with gonorrhea may not experience any symptoms at all, making the infection asymptomatic. Therefore, the statement that gonorrhea presents with purulent discharge, dysuria, or may be asymptomatic is true.

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  • 33. 

    This is the most common cause of PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is:  

    • Chlamydia

    • Herpes

    • Gonorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is the most common cause of PID (pelvic inflammatory disease). PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. If left untreated, chlamydia can ascend into the upper reproductive tract and cause PID. It is important to diagnose and treat chlamydia promptly to prevent complications such as PID, which can lead to infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

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  • 34. 

    Chlamydia is an STD that may be asymptomatic or present with a mucoid discharge.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is indeed an STD that can be asymptomatic, meaning that a person may have the infection without showing any symptoms. However, it can also present with a mucoid discharge, which is a symptom commonly associated with chlamydia. Therefore, the statement "Chlamydia is an STD that may be asymptomatic or present with a mucoid discharge" is true.

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  • 35. 

    Important information in the obstetrical history includes:LMP, age of onset of menses (menarche), frequency and duration of menstrual periods and estimated amount of blood loss during periods and pain, gravida, para, STD Hx, last pap and mammogram

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. In obstetrical history, important information includes the last menstrual period (LMP), age of onset of menses (menarche), frequency and duration of menstrual periods, estimated amount of blood loss during periods, and any associated pain. Other relevant details include gravida (number of pregnancies), para (number of live births), history of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and the date of the last pap smear and mammogram. Collecting this information is crucial for assessing a woman's reproductive health and potential risks during pregnancy.

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  • 36. 

    Measuring the fundal height estimates:  

    • The size of a gestational tumor

    • The sex of the fetus

    • The number of weeks of gestation (each cm correlates with 1 week)

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of weeks of gestation (each cm correlates with 1 week)
    Explanation
    The fundal height is a measurement taken during pregnancy to estimate the number of weeks of gestation. Each centimeter of fundal height typically correlates with one week of gestation. This measurement helps healthcare providers track the growth and development of the fetus and ensure that it is progressing normally. It is not a measure of the size of a gestational tumor or the sex of the fetus.

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  • 37. 

    Common methods of contraception include:  Oral contraceptive pills, cryotherapy,hormonal implants, intradermal patches,   

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the list of common methods of contraception mentioned does not include all the commonly used methods. Some other commonly used methods of contraception include condoms, intrauterine devices (IUDs), contraceptive injections, diaphragms, and sterilization methods such as tubal ligation or vasectomy.

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  • 38. 

    Ovulation is stimulated by a peak or surge of this hormone:

    • FSH

    • ACTH

    • Testosterone

    • LH

    Correct Answer
    A. LH
    Explanation
    LH, or luteinizing hormone, is responsible for stimulating ovulation in females. It causes the mature egg to be released from the ovary, ready for fertilization. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, plays a role in the development of the egg, but it is LH that triggers its release. ACTH and testosterone do not directly stimulate ovulation in females.

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  • 39. 

    Normal menstruation is based on an average of 28 day cycles.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Normal menstruation is based on an average of 28-day cycles because the menstrual cycle typically lasts for about 28 days. This means that from the start of one period to the start of the next, it takes approximately 28 days. However, it is important to note that menstrual cycles can vary in length from person to person, with some individuals having shorter or longer cycles. Nonetheless, the average length of a menstrual cycle is often considered to be around 28 days.

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  • 40. 

    The first milk is known as:  

    • Prolactin

    • Colostrum

    • Oxytocin

    • Galactorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Colostrum
    Explanation
    Colostrum is the first milk produced by a mammal after giving birth. It is rich in antibodies and nutrients, providing essential nourishment and immune protection to the newborn. Prolactin is a hormone that stimulates milk production, oxytocin is a hormone that triggers milk letdown, and galactorrhea is a condition characterized by the production of milk in non-lactating individuals. However, only colostrum refers specifically to the first milk produced.

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  • 41. 

    The female reproductive system consists of the following structures:  vas deferens, ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, cervix  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. The female reproductive system consists of the ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, and cervix. The vas deferens is a part of the male reproductive system, not the female reproductive system.

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  • 42. 

    Asthma is characterized by SOB, wheezing, productive or nonproductive cough,is often triggered by an allergen. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Asthma is a respiratory condition that is characterized by shortness of breath (SOB), wheezing, and coughing. These symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including allergens. Therefore, it is true that asthma is often triggered by an allergen.

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  • 43. 

    Legionellosis is characterized by pneumonia-like symptoms, diarrhea, confusion.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Legionellosis is indeed characterized by pneumonia-like symptoms, diarrhea, and confusion. Legionellosis is a type of bacterial infection caused by Legionella bacteria. The symptoms of this infection can include high fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and confusion. Therefore, the statement "Legionellosis is characterized by pneumonia-like symptoms, diarrhea, confusion" is true.

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  • 44. 

    How is Legionellosis spread?  

    • Sexual transmission

    • Sharing needles

    • Only in contaminated food

    • Ventilation systems, spas, cooling towers, showers

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilation systems, spas, cooling towers, showers
    Explanation
    Legionellosis is spread through ventilation systems, spas, cooling towers, and showers. These environments provide an ideal breeding ground for Legionella bacteria, which can then be inhaled in tiny water droplets or aerosols. This can lead to the development of Legionnaires' disease or Pontiac fever in individuals who are exposed to the contaminated water sources. The bacteria are not spread through sexual transmission, sharing needles, or contaminated food.

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  • 45. 

    Hypoglycemia is when blood sugar drops below:  

    • 100 mg/dL

    • 70 mg/dL

    • 126 mg/dL

    • 200 mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. 70 mg/dL
    Explanation
    Hypoglycemia is a medical condition characterized by low blood sugar levels. A blood sugar level below 70 mg/dL is considered hypoglycemic. This condition can occur in individuals with diabetes who take certain medications, such as insulin or sulfonylureas, which can cause blood sugar levels to drop too low. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include shakiness, dizziness, confusion, and sweating. It is important for individuals with diabetes to monitor their blood sugar levels regularly to prevent and manage episodes of hypoglycemia.

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  • 46. 

    Pain in the RLQ (right lower quadrant) is suggestive of: 

    • Spleenomegaly

    • Appendicitis

    • Nephritis only

    • MI

    Correct Answer
    A. Appendicitis
    Explanation
    Pain in the RLQ (right lower quadrant) is suggestive of appendicitis. Appendicitis is the inflammation of the appendix, a small pouch-like structure located in the RLQ of the abdomen. The pain typically starts around the belly button and then moves to the RLQ. Other symptoms may include loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and fever. If left untreated, appendicitis can lead to a ruptured appendix, which is a medical emergency. Therefore, RLQ pain should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out appendicitis.

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  • 47. 

    If there is a need for general anesthesia the patient should never be kept NPO status.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because if a patient needs general anesthesia, it is necessary for them to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) for a certain period of time before the procedure. This is done to prevent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs during anesthesia, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important for patients to follow the NPO instructions given by their healthcare provider before undergoing general anesthesia.

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  • 48. 

    Patients with acute abdominal pain should avoid the following unless ordered by the physician: pain medication, foods, drinks.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients with acute abdominal pain should avoid pain medication, foods, and drinks unless ordered by the physician. This is because pain medication can mask the symptoms and make it difficult for the physician to diagnose the underlying cause of the pain. Additionally, certain foods and drinks can aggravate the condition or interfere with any diagnostic tests that may be required. Therefore, it is important for patients to follow the physician's instructions and only consume pain medication, foods, and drinks if specifically advised to do so.

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  • 49. 

    Pain in the lower back or flank region may suggest: kidney disease (infection, stones, polycystic kidney disease)  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pain in the lower back or flank region can be indicative of kidney disease, such as infection, stones, or polycystic kidney disease. This is because the kidneys are located in the back, near the flank region. Therefore, if someone experiences pain in this area, it may be a sign of kidney-related issues.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 24, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 24, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bismarkf

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