Clinical Procedures Final Vc Jax

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  • 1/73 Questions

    The most common reasons to perform a urinary catheterization is:  

    • Relief of urinary retention, the need for sterile sample, or to instill a medication into the bladder.
    • For heart disease
    • For bladder tumor
    • For testicular infection/tumor
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About This Quiz

The 'Clinical Procedures Final VC Jax' assesses key emergency medical skills, covering topics like ABCD emergency guidelines, AHA breath-to-compression ratios, crash cart essentials, urinary catheterization, and urinary system anatomy. Essential for learners in emergency medicine.

Clinical Procedures Final Vc Jax - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    HPV is knwon to be associated with this type of cancer:  

    • Cervical cancer

    • Adenocarcinoma

    • SCC

    • Transitional cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical cancer
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a known cause of cervical cancer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to abnormal cell growth in the cervix, which can eventually develop into cancer. Cervical cancer is the most common type of cancer associated with HPV. Adenocarcinoma, SCC (Squamous Cell Carcinoma), and transitional cell carcinoma are not typically linked to HPV.

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  • 3. 

    Bleeding caused by displased endometrial tissue is known as:

    • Endometriosis

    • Endometrial cancer

    • Ovarian cancer

    • Vaginal bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometriosis
    Explanation
    Endometriosis is the correct answer because it refers to the condition where the tissue that normally lines the inside of the uterus grows outside of it. This displaced tissue can cause bleeding, pain, and other symptoms. Endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer are both types of cancer, not specifically related to bleeding caused by displaced endometrial tissue. Vaginal bleeding is a general term and does not specifically refer to bleeding caused by displaced endometrial tissue.

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  • 4. 

    Gonorrhea presents with Purulent discharge, dysuria, or may be asymptomatic.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause various symptoms. One of the common symptoms is the presence of purulent discharge, which refers to a thick, yellowish or greenish discharge from the affected area. Dysuria, which is painful or difficult urination, is also a common symptom of gonorrhea. However, it is important to note that some individuals infected with gonorrhea may not experience any symptoms at all, making the infection asymptomatic. Therefore, the statement that gonorrhea presents with purulent discharge, dysuria, or may be asymptomatic is true.

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  • 5. 

    Patients with acute abdominal pain should avoid the following unless ordered by the physician: pain medication, foods, drinks.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients with acute abdominal pain should avoid pain medication, foods, and drinks unless ordered by the physician. This is because pain medication can mask the symptoms and make it difficult for the physician to diagnose the underlying cause of the pain. Additionally, certain foods and drinks can aggravate the condition or interfere with any diagnostic tests that may be required. Therefore, it is important for patients to follow the physician's instructions and only consume pain medication, foods, and drinks if specifically advised to do so.

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  • 6. 

    The treatment options for end stage renal disease are dialysis, renal transplant  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because dialysis and renal transplant are indeed treatment options for end stage renal disease. Dialysis is a process that helps filter waste and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are no longer able to perform this function. Renal transplant, on the other hand, involves replacing a diseased kidney with a healthy one from a donor. Both options aim to improve the quality of life and prolong survival for individuals with end stage renal disease.

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  • 7. 

    Bandages anchor dressings are used to prevent contamination of a recent wound or surgical site, support and immobilize injured extremities, and used to apply pressure to slow or stop bleeding.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bandages anchor dressings are indeed used for multiple purposes such as preventing contamination of a recent wound or surgical site, supporting and immobilizing injured extremities, and applying pressure to slow or stop bleeding. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 8. 

    Heat stroke occurs when the body temp. reaches 105 F.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Heat stroke is a severe condition that occurs when the body's temperature rises to 105 degrees Fahrenheit or higher. At this temperature, the body is unable to cool itself down effectively, leading to potential organ damage and even death if not treated promptly. Therefore, the statement "Heat stroke occurs when the body temp. reaches 105 F" is true.

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  • 9. 

    The most important question to initally ask a depressed parient is  you have ever thought of hurting themselves (suicide).

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the most important question to ask a depressed patient, and the correct answer is "True." This means that the most important question to ask a depressed patient is whether they have ever thought of hurting themselves or committing suicide. This question is crucial because it helps assess the severity of their depression and determine the level of risk they may be facing. By asking this question, healthcare professionals can identify and provide appropriate support and intervention to prevent any potential harm or loss of life.

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  • 10. 

    A clean catch can be obtained by instructing the patient to:

    • Urinate the first stream into a nonsterile cup

    • Wipe the area around the urethra with towelettes, urinate in the toilet, and catch the mid-stream of the urine.

    • To urinate in a 24hour container, there no need to use sterile containers

    Correct Answer
    A. Wipe the area around the urethra with towelettes, urinate in the toilet, and catch the mid-stream of the urine.
    Explanation
    To obtain a clean catch, the patient should wipe the area around the urethra with towelettes, urinate in the toilet, and catch the mid-stream of the urine. This method helps to minimize contamination from the external genitalia and allows for a more accurate analysis of the urine sample. Using a nonsterile cup for the first stream and not needing sterile containers for a 24-hour collection are unrelated to obtaining a clean catch.

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  • 11. 

    In case of a foreign object or chemical gets in the eye the first thing you should do is:

    • Apply sterile wash across the eye or if not available running tap water

    • Apply bicarbonate to neutralize the irritating acid

    • Attempt to brush it off

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply sterile wash across the eye or if not available running tap water
    Explanation
    When a foreign object or chemical gets into the eye, the first thing you should do is apply sterile wash across the eye or, if not available, running tap water. This is because flushing the eye with water helps to remove the foreign object or dilute and wash away the chemical, reducing the risk of further damage or irritation to the eye. Applying bicarbonate to neutralize the irritating acid or attempting to brush it off may not be effective or safe in this situation.

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  • 12. 

    A condition of nausea/vomiting often the first sign of pregnancy is known as:  

    • Hyperemesis gravidarum

    • Hematemesis

    • Stomach flu

    • Gastritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
    Explanation
    Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition of severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It is often the first sign of pregnancy and is characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, and weight loss. Unlike the other options listed, hyperemesis gravidarum is specific to pregnancy and is not caused by stomach flu, gastritis, or hematemesis.

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  • 13. 

    The use of OCP (oral contraceptive pills) and smoking can increase your risk of:  

    • Thrombocytopenia

    • Hemophilia

    • Bleeding

    • Blood clots

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood clots
    Explanation
    The use of OCP (oral contraceptive pills) and smoking can increase the risk of blood clots. This is because both OCPs and smoking can affect the clotting factors in the blood, making it more likely for clots to form. Blood clots can be dangerous as they can block blood flow to vital organs, leading to serious complications such as heart attacks or strokes. Therefore, individuals who use OCPs and smoke should be aware of this increased risk and take necessary precautions to minimize it.

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  • 14. 

    Hysterectomy is defined as:  

    • Removal of the uterus

    • Cone biopsy

    • Removal of the ovaries only

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of the uterus
    Explanation
    Hysterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the uterus. This procedure is performed for various reasons, such as treating certain gynecological conditions like uterine fibroids, endometriosis, or uterine prolapse. It may also be recommended in cases of uterine cancer or severe pelvic pain. Removal of the uterus through hysterectomy is a permanent solution to these conditions and can result in the cessation of menstrual periods and the inability to bear children. It is important to note that hysterectomy does not involve the removal of the ovaries, which are responsible for producing hormones like estrogen and progesterone.

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  • 15. 

    Chlamydia is an STD that may be asymptomatic or present with a mucoid discharge.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is indeed an STD that can be asymptomatic, meaning that a person may have the infection without showing any symptoms. However, it can also present with a mucoid discharge, which is a symptom commonly associated with chlamydia. Therefore, the statement "Chlamydia is an STD that may be asymptomatic or present with a mucoid discharge" is true.

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  • 16. 

    Measuring the fundal height estimates:  

    • The size of a gestational tumor

    • The sex of the fetus

    • The number of weeks of gestation (each cm correlates with 1 week)

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of weeks of gestation (each cm correlates with 1 week)
    Explanation
    The fundal height is a measurement taken during pregnancy to estimate the number of weeks of gestation. Each centimeter of fundal height typically correlates with one week of gestation. This measurement helps healthcare providers track the growth and development of the fetus and ensure that it is progressing normally. It is not a measure of the size of a gestational tumor or the sex of the fetus.

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  • 17. 

    Normal menstruation is based on an average of 28 day cycles.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Normal menstruation is based on an average of 28-day cycles because the menstrual cycle typically lasts for about 28 days. This means that from the start of one period to the start of the next, it takes approximately 28 days. However, it is important to note that menstrual cycles can vary in length from person to person, with some individuals having shorter or longer cycles. Nonetheless, the average length of a menstrual cycle is often considered to be around 28 days.

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  • 18. 

    Asthma is characterized by SOB, wheezing, productive or nonproductive cough,is often triggered by an allergen. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Asthma is a respiratory condition that is characterized by shortness of breath (SOB), wheezing, and coughing. These symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including allergens. Therefore, it is true that asthma is often triggered by an allergen.

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  • 19. 

    Legionellosis is characterized by pneumonia-like symptoms, diarrhea, confusion.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Legionellosis is indeed characterized by pneumonia-like symptoms, diarrhea, and confusion. Legionellosis is a type of bacterial infection caused by Legionella bacteria. The symptoms of this infection can include high fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and confusion. Therefore, the statement "Legionellosis is characterized by pneumonia-like symptoms, diarrhea, confusion" is true.

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  • 20. 

    How is Legionellosis spread?  

    • Sexual transmission

    • Sharing needles

    • Only in contaminated food

    • Ventilation systems, spas, cooling towers, showers

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilation systems, spas, cooling towers, showers
    Explanation
    Legionellosis is spread through ventilation systems, spas, cooling towers, and showers. These environments provide an ideal breeding ground for Legionella bacteria, which can then be inhaled in tiny water droplets or aerosols. This can lead to the development of Legionnaires' disease or Pontiac fever in individuals who are exposed to the contaminated water sources. The bacteria are not spread through sexual transmission, sharing needles, or contaminated food.

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  • 21. 

    Hypoglycemia is when blood sugar drops below:  

    • 100 mg/dL

    • 70 mg/dL

    • 126 mg/dL

    • 200 mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. 70 mg/dL
    Explanation
    Hypoglycemia is a medical condition characterized by low blood sugar levels. A blood sugar level below 70 mg/dL is considered hypoglycemic. This condition can occur in individuals with diabetes who take certain medications, such as insulin or sulfonylureas, which can cause blood sugar levels to drop too low. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include shakiness, dizziness, confusion, and sweating. It is important for individuals with diabetes to monitor their blood sugar levels regularly to prevent and manage episodes of hypoglycemia.

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  • 22. 

    Pain in the lower back or flank region may suggest: kidney disease (infection, stones, polycystic kidney disease)  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pain in the lower back or flank region can be indicative of kidney disease, such as infection, stones, or polycystic kidney disease. This is because the kidneys are located in the back, near the flank region. Therefore, if someone experiences pain in this area, it may be a sign of kidney-related issues.

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  • 23. 

    Pain in the RUQ (right upper quadrant) may suggest gallbladder problems gallstones, cholecystitis.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The right upper quadrant (RUQ) is the area where the gallbladder is located. Pain in this area can be indicative of gallbladder problems such as gallstones or cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder. Therefore, the statement that pain in the RUQ may suggest gallbladder problems is true.

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  • 24. 

    COPD (chronic obstructive lung disease) is defined as:

    • A collective name for progressive steadily worsening airway blockage.

    • Reversible airway obstruction

    • Bonchiole cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. A collective name for progressive steadily worsening airway blockage.
    Explanation
    COPD is a chronic lung disease characterized by a progressive and irreversible obstruction of the airways. It is a collective term that encompasses conditions such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema, which cause a gradual and worsening blockage of the air passages in the lungs. This obstruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Reversible airway obstruction refers to conditions like asthma, where the airflow obstruction can be alleviated with medication. Bronchiole cancer, on the other hand, is a specific type of lung cancer that affects the small airways called bronchioles, but it is not synonymous with COPD.

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  • 25. 

    Lower airway consists of:  lungs, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, diaphragm.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The lower airway consists of the lungs, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, and diaphragm. These structures are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body. The lungs are the main organs of the lower airway, where oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is expelled. The bronchi and bronchioles are the airways that carry air into the lungs, while the alveoli are tiny air sacs where gas exchange occurs. The diaphragm is a muscle that helps with the process of breathing. Therefore, the statement "Lower airway consists of lungs, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, diaphragm" is true.

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  • 26. 

    Pulmonologist or pneumologist treat diseases of:  

    • Lungs

    • Heart

    • Stomach

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Lungs
    Explanation
    A pulmonologist or pneumologist is a medical specialist who focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of diseases related to the respiratory system, particularly the lungs. They are experts in managing conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pneumonia, and lung cancer. Since the lungs are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body, it makes sense that a pulmonologist would specialize in treating diseases specifically related to this vital organ.

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  • 27. 

    Heimlich maneuver is used to:  

    • Remove a foreign object that is obstructing the airway

    • Restart the heart

    • Treat COPD

    • Help expand the chest for breathing assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove a foreign object that is obstructing the airway
    Explanation
    The Heimlich maneuver is a technique used to remove a foreign object that is blocking the airway. It involves applying pressure to the abdomen in order to create a strong upward force that can dislodge the obstruction and allow the person to breathe again. This technique is commonly used in emergency situations where someone is choking and unable to breathe due to an object blocking their airway. It is not used to restart the heart, treat COPD, or help expand the chest for breathing assistance.

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  • 28. 

    ED (erectile dysfunction) is caused by:  

    • A virus

    • Sickel cell disease

    • Pyelonephritis

    • Vascular disease, nerve damage that innervate the penis, damage to spinal cord, long term diabetes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vascular disease, nerve damage that innervate the penis, damage to spinal cord, long term diabetes.
    Explanation
    ED (erectile dysfunction) is caused by a combination of factors including vascular disease, nerve damage that innervate the penis, damage to the spinal cord, and long-term diabetes. Vascular disease can restrict blood flow to the penis, leading to difficulties in achieving or maintaining an erection. Nerve damage can interfere with the transmission of signals from the brain to the penis, impairing the ability to have an erection. Damage to the spinal cord can also disrupt the communication between the brain and the penis. Additionally, long-term diabetes can cause damage to blood vessels and nerves, further contributing to the development of erectile dysfunction.

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  • 29. 

    Urethritis is defined as inflammation of the kidneys.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Urethritis is not inflammation of the kidneys, but rather inflammation of the urethra, which is the tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. Inflammation of the kidneys is known as nephritis. Therefore, the statement "Urethritis is defined as inflammation of the kidneys" is false.

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  • 30. 

    A cut with smooth edges made with a sharp object such as a knife is known as incision.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An incision refers to a cut made with a sharp object like a knife, and it typically has smooth edges. This means that the statement is accurate and the answer is true.

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  • 31. 

    The emergency guidelines ABCD stands for:  

    • Airway, Bronchi, Circulation, Dehydration

    • Airway, bronchi, Cricoid catilage, Diffusion

    • Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation

    • Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Diffusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation." This acronym, ABCD, is commonly used in emergency medicine to prioritize actions during a medical emergency. It serves as a reminder of the order in which critical interventions should be performed. The first step is to ensure a clear and open airway, followed by assessing and providing artificial breathing if necessary. Next, circulation is assessed and appropriate measures are taken to restore blood flow. Finally, if needed, defibrillation is performed to restore a normal heart rhythm.

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  • 32. 

    When a person is seizing you should:

    • Walk away to prevent injury to yourself and the seizing victim

    • Move them carefully to the floor, move any furniture or object out of the way, and remain with them.

    • Tell the person to calm down.

    • First call EMS, and tell the patient to calm down if he/she wants this episode to end faster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Move them carefully to the floor, move any furniture or object out of the way, and remain with them.
    Explanation
    When a person is seizing, it is important to move them carefully to the floor to prevent them from falling and injuring themselves. Moving any furniture or objects out of the way is necessary to create a safe environment and prevent further harm during the seizure. Remaining with the person is important to provide support and ensure their safety. Telling the person to calm down is not recommended as they have no control over their actions during a seizure. Calling EMS is the correct action to take in order to seek medical assistance for the person experiencing the seizure.

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  • 33. 

    The STD that produces painless chancre is known as:  

    • Herpes

    • Herpes simplex type II

    • Syphilis

    • Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Syphilis
    Explanation
    Syphilis is the correct answer because it is a sexually transmitted disease that can produce painless chancres. Chancres are small, painless sores that typically appear on the genitals, rectum, or mouth. They are one of the primary symptoms of syphilis and can occur during the early stages of the infection. Herpes, herpes simplex type II, and prostatitis are not associated with painless chancres.

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  • 34. 

    Vaginal bleeding, severe pain in pelvic area occuring during early pregnancy is suggestive of:  

    • Urethritis

    • PID

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Ectopic pregnancy
    Explanation
    Vaginal bleeding and severe pain in the pelvic area occurring during early pregnancy are common symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can cause the tube to rupture, leading to severe pain and vaginal bleeding. Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra, which is not related to pregnancy. PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) is an infection of the reproductive organs and may cause symptoms such as pelvic pain and abnormal vaginal bleeding, but it is not specific to early pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is ectopic pregnancy.

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  • 35. 

    Pain in the RLQ (right lower quadrant) is suggestive of: 

    • Spleenomegaly

    • Appendicitis

    • Nephritis only

    • MI

    Correct Answer
    A. Appendicitis
    Explanation
    Pain in the RLQ (right lower quadrant) is suggestive of appendicitis. Appendicitis is the inflammation of the appendix, a small pouch-like structure located in the RLQ of the abdomen. The pain typically starts around the belly button and then moves to the RLQ. Other symptoms may include loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and fever. If left untreated, appendicitis can lead to a ruptured appendix, which is a medical emergency. Therefore, RLQ pain should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out appendicitis.

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  • 36. 

    Gas exchange takes place in the which structure of the respiratory system?  

    • Trachea

    • Windpipe

    • Alveoli

    • Bronchioles

    Correct Answer
    A. Alveoli
    Explanation
    Gas exchange takes place in the alveoli of the respiratory system. The alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the end of the bronchioles in the lungs. They are surrounded by a network of blood vessels and have thin walls, allowing for efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the lungs and the bloodstream. This process is essential for supplying oxygen to the body's tissues and removing waste carbon dioxide. The trachea and bronchioles are involved in conducting air to and from the alveoli, while the windpipe is another term for the trachea.

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  • 37. 

    Pulmonary edema is defined as:  

    • Blood clot in lungs

    • Infarction in the lungs

    • Stroke

    • Fluid accumulation in the lungs

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluid accumulation in the lungs
    Explanation
    Pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs. This condition can occur due to various factors such as heart failure, lung infections, or exposure to certain toxins. The excess fluid in the lungs makes it difficult for oxygen to reach the bloodstream, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to treat pulmonary edema and prevent further complications.

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  • 38. 

    Peak flows are used to:  

    • Measure oxygen saturation

    • Measure the maximum ability to exhale. Often used in asthamtics.

    • Residual lung volume

    • FEV1

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the maximum ability to exhale. Often used in asthamtics.
    Explanation
    Peak flows are a measurement of the maximum ability to exhale, which is often used in asthmatics. It helps to assess the severity of asthma and monitor the effectiveness of treatment. By measuring the peak flow, healthcare professionals can determine how well the airways are functioning and if there is any obstruction or narrowing. This information is crucial in managing asthma and making necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.

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  • 39. 

    The symptoms of BpH include:  frequent urination, difficulty starting, decreased urine stream, dribbling  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. BPH, or benign prostatic hyperplasia, is a condition where the prostate gland enlarges and causes various urinary symptoms. Frequent urination, difficulty starting urination, decreased urine stream, and dribbling are common symptoms of BPH. Therefore, the statement accurately describes the symptoms associated with BPH.

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  • 40. 

    Microalbumin is used to detect:  early renal disease  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Microalbumin is used to detect early renal disease. This is because microalbumin is a small protein that can leak into the urine when the kidneys are not functioning properly. By measuring the levels of microalbumin in the urine, healthcare professionals can identify early signs of kidney damage and diagnose renal disease before it progresses to more severe stages. Therefore, the statement "Microalbumin is used to detect early renal disease" is true.

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  • 41. 

    Urinalysis can measure the following values: Appearance, odor, pH, specific gravity, protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, blood, leukocytes, nitrite, Leukocyte esterase.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because urinalysis is a diagnostic test that can measure various values in urine, including appearance, odor, pH, specific gravity, protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, blood, leukocytes, nitrite, and leukocyte esterase. These values can provide important information about a person's kidney function, urinary tract infections, diabetes, liver function, and other health conditions.

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  • 42. 

    Urethritis is caused by  Infection by bacteria (eg E. coli, STD such as gonorrhea).

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Urethritis is indeed caused by infection, specifically by bacteria such as E. coli or sexually transmitted diseases like gonorrhea. These infections can lead to inflammation and irritation of the urethra, resulting in symptoms like pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and discharge. Therefore, the statement "Urethritis is caused by infection by bacteria (eg E. coli, STD such as gonorrhea)" is true.

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  • 43. 

    CVA (cerebral vascular accident) is also known as:  

    • Hypotension in cerebral tissue

    • MI

    • Stroke

    • CHF

    Correct Answer
    A. Stroke
    Explanation
    CVA (cerebral vascular accident) is a medical term used to describe a stroke. A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted, leading to the death of brain cells. This interruption can be caused by a blockage in a blood vessel (ischemic stroke) or by bleeding in the brain (hemorrhagic stroke). Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "stroke."

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  • 44. 

    Involuntary muscle contractions that result from abnormal cerebral stimulation are known as:  

    • Cerebral spasms

    • Seizures

    • Tetanus

    • Botulism

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizures
    Explanation
    Seizures are involuntary muscle contractions that occur due to abnormal cerebral stimulation. They can result from various causes such as epilepsy, brain injury, or infections. During a seizure, a person may experience convulsions, loss of consciousness, and abnormal behavior. Seizures can be managed with medication and other treatment options depending on the underlying cause.

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  • 45. 

    Cryocautery or cryotherapy is defined as:  

    • Cellular destruction by cold (usually liquid nitrogen)

    • Electricution to burn off lesions

    • Hot therapy

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cellular destruction by cold (usually liquid nitrogen)
    Explanation
    Cryocautery or cryotherapy refers to the process of cellular destruction using extreme cold, typically achieved through the application of liquid nitrogen. This method is commonly used to remove or treat abnormal tissue growths or lesions. The other options, including electricution to burn off lesions and hot therapy, do not accurately describe cryocautery, making them incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is cellular destruction by cold (usually liquid nitrogen).

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  • 46. 

    This is the most common cause of PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is:  

    • Chlamydia

    • Herpes

    • Gonorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is the most common cause of PID (pelvic inflammatory disease). PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. If left untreated, chlamydia can ascend into the upper reproductive tract and cause PID. It is important to diagnose and treat chlamydia promptly to prevent complications such as PID, which can lead to infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

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  • 47. 

    Important information in the obstetrical history includes:LMP, age of onset of menses (menarche), frequency and duration of menstrual periods and estimated amount of blood loss during periods and pain, gravida, para, STD Hx, last pap and mammogram

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. In obstetrical history, important information includes the last menstrual period (LMP), age of onset of menses (menarche), frequency and duration of menstrual periods, estimated amount of blood loss during periods, and any associated pain. Other relevant details include gravida (number of pregnancies), para (number of live births), history of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and the date of the last pap smear and mammogram. Collecting this information is crucial for assessing a woman's reproductive health and potential risks during pregnancy.

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  • 48. 

    Ovulation is stimulated by a peak or surge of this hormone:

    • FSH

    • ACTH

    • Testosterone

    • LH

    Correct Answer
    A. LH
    Explanation
    LH, or luteinizing hormone, is responsible for stimulating ovulation in females. It causes the mature egg to be released from the ovary, ready for fertilization. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, plays a role in the development of the egg, but it is LH that triggers its release. ACTH and testosterone do not directly stimulate ovulation in females.

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  • 49. 

    If a finger is accidentally amputated you should do the following:

    • Put it in ice immediately to preserve the finger

    • Wrap it in sterile gauze that has been soaked in saline solution, then place it in a plastic bag, then place the plastic bag in ice.

    • Wrap it in sterile gauze that has been soaked in saline solution, then place it in a plastic bag, then put ice in the bag

    • Throw it away, it is useless since it no longer has blood supply and the cells have died

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrap it in sterile gauze that has been soaked in saline solution, then place it in a plastic bag, then place the plastic bag in ice.
    Explanation
    In case of an accidental amputation, it is important to preserve the amputated finger for possible reattachment. Wrapping it in sterile gauze soaked in saline solution helps to keep it clean and moist, preventing further damage. Placing it in a plastic bag provides an additional layer of protection. Placing the bag in ice helps to slow down the deterioration process and preserve the finger until medical help can be sought.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 24, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 24, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bismarkf
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