Paramedic Quiz For Maes Students Chapter 7

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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Based on chapter 7 of Nancy Carolines emergency medicine on the streets. Chapter 7


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Pharmacology is MOST accurately defined as the:

    • A.

      Process by which a medication moves throughout the body

    • B.

      Study of medications and their effects or actions throughout the body.

    • C.

      Transfer of medications to specific organs in the human body

    • D.

      Study of the metabolism and action of medications in the body

    Correct Answer
    B. Study of medications and their effects or actions throughout the body.
    Explanation
    Pharmacology is the study of medications and their effects or actions throughout the body. This field of study focuses on understanding how drugs interact with the body, including their absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination. It also examines the therapeutic effects and potential side effects of medications. By studying pharmacology, healthcare professionals can gain knowledge about the appropriate use of medications and make informed decisions regarding drug therapy for patients.

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  • 2. 

    Prescription-only medications (POM) can be given OTC status only if they

    • A.

      Are considered safe enough that most people will not hurt themselves accidentally by taking the medicine as instructed

    • B.

      Have been available as prescription-only medications for at least 5 years and have undergone extensive clinical research.

    • C.

      Possess no more than half the strength of the prescription form and do not cause harm if they are taken in excessive amounts.

    • D.

      Have been approved by the FDA and have been shown to possess a physiologic effect equivalent to the prescription form.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are considered safe enough that most people will not hurt themselves accidentally by taking the medicine as instructed
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that prescription-only medications (POM) can be given over-the-counter (OTC) status if they are considered safe enough that most people will not hurt themselves accidentally by taking the medicine as instructed. This means that the medication should have a low risk of causing harm or adverse effects when used correctly. It emphasizes the importance of ensuring the safety of the general public when medications are made available without a prescription.

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  • 3. 

    The_____ name of a medication is sometimes mistaken for the generic name

    • A.

      Trade

    • B.

      Official

    • C.

      Chemical

    • D.

      Legal

    Correct Answer
    A. Trade
    Explanation
    The trade name of a medication refers to the brand name or the proprietary name given to a specific drug by the pharmaceutical company that manufactures it. This name is often more recognizable and commonly used by the public, which can lead to confusion as it is sometimes mistaken for the generic name. The generic name, on the other hand, is the official scientific name of the drug and is typically the same across different brands or manufacturers.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following represents the official name for amiodarone?

    • A.

      Cordarone

    • B.

      Amiodarone usp

    • C.

      Amiodaron

    • D.

      2-butyl-3-benzofuranyl 4-{2-diethylamino}-ethoxoy-3,5-diiodophenyl ketone hydrochloride

    Correct Answer
    B. Amiodarone usp
    Explanation
    The official name for amiodarone is "amiodarone USP" because USP stands for United States Pharmacopeia, which is an official compendium of drug standards recognized in the United States. This indicates that the drug meets the quality standards set by the USP. The other options, "cordarone" and "amiodaron," are brand names or alternative names for amiodarone, while the long chemical name provided is the chemical composition of amiodarone.

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  • 5. 

    For a medication to carry the USP label

    • A.

      It must be made available to the public in both its trade and generic forms

    • B.

      Its active ingredients must be within 95% to 105% of that stated on the label

    • C.

      It must be on the market in its generic form for a period of at least 36 months.

    • D.

      The manufacturer of the medication must prove that it does not cause any side effects

    Correct Answer
    B. Its active ingredients must be within 95% to 105% of that stated on the label
    Explanation
    A medication carrying the USP label must have its active ingredients within a specific range of 95% to 105% of what is stated on the label. This ensures that the medication is consistent in its composition and potency, providing the expected therapeutic effect to patients. This requirement helps to maintain quality and safety standards for medications available to the public.

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  • 6. 

    As a paramedic, you are responsible for ensuring that medication administration in the field

    • A.

      Follows national standards

    • B.

      Is done in an expedient manner

    • C.

      Will not result in side effects

    • D.

      Is safe, therapeutic, and effective

    Correct Answer
    D. Is safe, therapeutic, and effective
    Explanation
    As a paramedic, it is crucial to ensure that medication administration in the field is safe, therapeutic, and effective. This means that the medications being given should not pose any harm to the patient, they should have the desired therapeutic effect, and they should be effective in treating the condition or symptoms they are intended for. This responsibility ensures that the paramedic follows best practices and guidelines to provide the highest level of care to the patient.

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  • 7. 

    Functionally, the nervous system is divided into the 

    • A.

      Brain and spinal cord

    • B.

      Somatic and autonomic nervous system

    • C.

      Central and peripheral nervous system

    • D.

      Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. Central and peripheral nervous system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is central and peripheral nervous system. The nervous system is divided into two main parts: the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord, which are responsible for processing and coordinating information. The PNS includes all the nerves that extend from the CNS to the rest of the body, allowing for communication between the CNS and the organs, muscles, and sensory receptors. This division allows for the efficient functioning of the nervous system by separating the processing and integration of information from the transmission of signals to and from the body.

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  • 8. 

    Emergency medications that affect the heart and blood vessels do so via the

    • A.

      Autonomic nervous system

    • B.

      Somatic nervous system

    • C.

      Involuntary nervous system

    • D.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomic nervous system
    Explanation
    Emergency medications that affect the heart and blood vessels do so via the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions, including the heart rate, blood pressure, and blood vessel constriction or dilation. In emergency situations, medications are often used to quickly modulate these functions to stabilize the patient. The somatic nervous system controls voluntary movements, while the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for rest and digestion. Therefore, the autonomic nervous system is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 9. 

    Adrenergic nerve fibers release

    • A.

      Acetycholine

    • B.

      Acetylcholinesterase

    • C.

      Glycogen

    • D.

      Epinephrine and norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
    Explanation
    Adrenergic nerve fibers release epinephrine and norepinephrine. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters that belong to the class of catecholamines. They are released by the adrenergic nerve fibers and play a crucial role in the sympathetic nervous system. These neurotransmitters are involved in the "fight or flight" response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and energy availability. They also have various effects on different organs and tissues in the body, helping to mobilize energy reserves and prepare the body for physical activity or stress.

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  • 10. 

    When administered, epinephrine produces a/an____effect

    • A.

      Anticholineric

    • B.

      Sympathomimetic

    • C.

      Sympatholytic

    • D.

      Parasympatholytic

    Correct Answer
    B. Sympathomimetic
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is a medication that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response. It mimics the effects of the sympathetic neurotransmitters, such as adrenaline, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and bronchodilation. Therefore, the correct answer is sympathomimetic, as it describes the ability of epinephrine to mimic the sympathetic nervous system's effects.

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  • 11. 

    The process of chemical signalling between cells is called

    • A.

      Antagonism

    • B.

      Neurotransmission

    • C.

      Chemotransmission

    • D.

      Nerve innervation

    Correct Answer
    B. Neurotransmission
    Explanation
    Neurotransmission is the correct answer because it refers to the process of chemical signaling between cells, specifically nerve cells or neurons. During neurotransmission, neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic neuron, travel across the synapse, and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, transmitting signals and allowing for communication between cells. Antagonism refers to the inhibition or blocking of a biological response, chemotransmission is not a recognized term, and nerve innervation refers to the supply of nerves to a specific area or organ, which is not the same as chemical signaling.

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  • 12. 

    Overstimulation of muscarinic receptors results in

    • A.

      Excessive lacrimation, bradycardia, diarrhea, and miosis

    • B.

      Tachycardia, hypertension, dilated pupils, and nervousness

    • C.

      Dehydration, decreased urine production, and double vision

    • D.

      Muscle fasciculations, generalized weakness, and bradycardia

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive lacrimation, bradycardia, diarrhea, and miosis
    Explanation
    Overstimulation of muscarinic receptors leads to excessive lacrimation (excessive tearing), bradycardia (slow heart rate), diarrhea, and miosis (constriction of the pupil). This is because muscarinic receptors are found in various tissues and organs, including the eyes, heart, gastrointestinal tract, and smooth muscles of the iris. Activation of these receptors causes increased tear production, slowing of the heart rate, increased intestinal motility leading to diarrhea, and constriction of the pupil.

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  • 13. 

    A medication that stimulates a response in a receptor site is said to be

    • A.

      Synergistic

    • B.

      An agonist

    • C.

      An antagonist

    • D.

      A competitive binder

    Correct Answer
    B. An agonist
    Explanation
    An agonist is a medication that stimulates a response in a receptor site. It binds to the receptor and activates it, mimicking the action of the natural ligand. Agonists have the ability to produce a biological response by activating the receptor, which can result in various physiological effects. In contrast, antagonists bind to receptors but do not activate them, blocking the action of agonists or natural ligands. Synergistic refers to the combined effect of two or more substances that is greater than the sum of their individual effects. A competitive binder competes with other substances for binding to a receptor site.

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  • 14. 

    The onset of a medication's therapeutic effect is MOSTLY determined by the

    • A.

      Patients gender

    • B.

      Type of medication

    • C.

      Route of administration

    • D.

      Weight of medication

    Correct Answer
    C. Route of administration
    Explanation
    The onset of a medication's therapeutic effect is mostly determined by the route of administration. This refers to how the medication is delivered into the body, such as orally, intravenously, or topically. The route of administration affects how quickly and efficiently the medication is absorbed and distributed throughout the body. For example, intravenous administration delivers the medication directly into the bloodstream, resulting in a rapid onset of action. In contrast, oral administration may take longer as the medication needs to be absorbed through the digestive system. Therefore, the route of administration plays a crucial role in determining when the medication will start to have its intended therapeutic effect.

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  • 15. 

    In general, the sublingual route of medication administration is slower than the ______ route, but faster than the _______ route.

    • A.

      Rectal, intramuscular

    • B.

      Intravenous,oral

    • C.

      Inhalation,topical

    • D.

      Rectal,subcutaneous

    Correct Answer
    B. Intravenous,oral
    Explanation
    The sublingual route of medication administration involves placing the medication under the tongue where it is absorbed into the bloodstream. This route is slower than the intravenous route, where the medication is directly injected into the vein, allowing for immediate absorption. However, it is faster than the oral route, where the medication has to pass through the digestive system before being absorbed. Therefore, the correct answer is intravenous, oral.

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  • 16. 

    With the exception of aspirin for patients with a suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

    • A.

      The patient may aspirate the medication

    • B.

      The medication may cause damage to the liver

    • C.

      The medication is metabolized too rapidly

    • D.

      Absorption is slow and unpredictable

    Correct Answer
    D. Absorption is slow and unpredictable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is absorption is slow and unpredictable. This means that the medication takes a long time to be absorbed into the bloodstream and the rate of absorption can vary from person to person. This is important because if the medication is not absorbed properly, it may not be effective in treating the condition it is intended for.

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  • 17. 

    The rate of absorption of medications given via the IO route

    • A.

      Is identical to that of the IV route because the medication enters a noncollapsible channel with rapid flow into the central circulation

    • B.

      Is relatively unpredictable compared to that of the IV route because the intraosseous space is a low-pressure space

    • C.

      Is just as fast as that of the IV route, but only if the patient has adequate circulation and a systolic BP of at least 90 mm Hg

    • D.

      Is somewhat slower than that of the IV route because the medication must first pass through the microvasculature before entering the central circulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Is identical to that of the IV route because the medication enters a noncollapsible channel with rapid flow into the central circulation
    Explanation
    The IO route of medication administration is identical to the IV route in terms of absorption rate because the medication enters a noncollapsible channel with rapid flow into the central circulation. This means that the medication is quickly and efficiently delivered to the bloodstream, resulting in a similar absorption rate as the IV route.

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  • 18. 

    Medication administration via the subcutaneous or intramuscular route is LEAST effective in patients who

    • A.

      Are hypertensive and tachycardic

    • B.

      Have decreased liver or renal function

    • C.

      Require less than 5 mL of medication

    • D.

      Have inadequate peripheral perfusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Have inadequate peripheral perfusion
    Explanation
    Medication administration via the subcutaneous or intramuscular route is least effective in patients who have inadequate peripheral perfusion. This is because subcutaneous and intramuscular routes rely on adequate blood flow to deliver the medication to the intended site of action. If a patient has inadequate peripheral perfusion, it means there is poor blood flow to the extremities, which can hinder the absorption and distribution of the medication. As a result, the medication may not reach the target tissues or organs effectively, leading to reduced effectiveness.

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  • 19. 

    Most of the biotransformation process of a medication takes place in the

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Spleen

    • C.

      Kidneys

    • D.

      Small intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is responsible for most of the biotransformation process of medications. It contains enzymes that help metabolize drugs, converting them into forms that can be easily eliminated from the body. The liver's high blood flow and large surface area allow it to efficiently process and detoxify drugs. Additionally, the liver plays a crucial role in drug metabolism by producing metabolizing enzymes and transporting drugs and their metabolites. Therefore, the liver is the primary organ involved in the biotransformation of medications.

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  • 20. 

    If a medication is administered to a patient with renal insufficiency 

    • A.

      It make take hours before the medication is absorbed and exerts its effect

    • B.

      The process of biotransformation will be completely unpredictable

    • C.

      The dose should be doubled in order to achieve a therapeutic effect

    • D.

      It may not be excreted efficiently and may be accumulated to toxic levels

    Correct Answer
    D. It may not be excreted efficiently and may be accumulated to toxic levels
    Explanation
    When a medication is administered to a patient with renal insufficiency, their kidneys are not functioning properly, which can lead to inefficient excretion of the medication from the body. As a result, the medication may accumulate in the body to toxic levels, increasing the risk of adverse effects. This is why it is important to monitor medication doses and adjust them accordingly in patients with renal insufficiency.

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  • 21. 

    A decreasing response to the same amount of medicationthat requires progressively higher doses is called

    • A.

      Addiction

    • B.

      Dependence

    • C.

      Tolerance

    • D.

      An idiosyncrasy

    Correct Answer
    C. Tolerance
    Explanation
    Tolerance refers to the phenomenon where a person's body becomes less responsive to a medication over time, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. This can occur with both prescription and recreational drugs. It is not the same as addiction or dependence, which involve psychological and behavioral factors. An idiosyncrasy refers to an individual's unique reaction to a medication, but it is not related to the concept of needing higher doses for the same effect.

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  • 22. 

    In general, medications should be

    • A.

      Diluted with sterile saline

    • B.

      Kept out of direct sunlight

    • C.

      Stored in a cold environment

    • D.

      Replaces every 30 to 60 days

    Correct Answer
    B. Kept out of direct sunlight
    Explanation
    Medications should be kept out of direct sunlight because exposure to sunlight can degrade the active ingredients in the medication, leading to reduced effectiveness. Sunlight can also cause certain medications to undergo chemical changes, potentially resulting in the formation of harmful by-products. Therefore, storing medications in a cool, dark place away from direct sunlight helps to maintain their potency and safety for use.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT a required component of a medication profile?

    • A.

      Storage requirements

    • B.

      Mechanism of action

    • C.

      Side and adverse effects

    • D.

      Indications and proper dosage

    Correct Answer
    A. Storage requirements
    Explanation
    The storage requirements of a medication are not a required component of a medication profile. A medication profile typically includes information such as the mechanism of action, side and adverse effects, and indications and proper dosage of a medication. However, storage requirements, such as temperature or light sensitivity, are important for maintaining the effectiveness and safety of the medication but are not typically included in a medication profile.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following medications is an opioid analgesic

    • A.

      Ibuprofen (motrin)

    • B.

      Naloxone (Narcan)

    • C.

      Acetylsalicylic acid (asa/aspirin)

    • D.

      Fentanyl (sublimaze)

    Correct Answer
    D. Fentanyl (sublimaze)
    Explanation
    Fentanyl (sublimaze) is an opioid analgesic. Opioid analgesics are medications that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body to reduce pain perception. Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid that is commonly used for managing severe pain, such as during surgery or for patients with chronic pain. It is much stronger than other opioids like morphine or oxycodone, making it effective for severe pain relief but also increasing the risk of overdose and addiction.

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  • 25. 

    Most psychotherapeutic medications work by blocking _____ receptors in the brain

    • A.

      Melatonin

    • B.

      Dopamine

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    B. Dopamine
    Explanation
    Psychotherapeutic medications primarily work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating mood, motivation, and pleasure. By blocking dopamine receptors, these medications can help to regulate dopamine levels and alleviate symptoms of various mental health conditions such as depression, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder. This can result in improved mood, reduced hallucinations or delusions, and overall better mental well-being.

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  • 26. 

    Sympatholytic medications

    • A.

      Selectively block alpha receptors

    • B.

      Produce tachycardia and hypertension

    • C.

      Inhibit the sympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      Stimulate the sympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibit the sympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    Sympatholytic medications are drugs that inhibit the sympathetic nervous system. This means that they block the action of alpha receptors, which are responsible for activating the sympathetic nervous system. By inhibiting the sympathetic nervous system, these medications reduce the effects of sympathetic stimulation, such as increased heart rate (tachycardia) and elevated blood pressure (hypertension). Therefore, the correct answer is that sympatholytic medications inhibit the sympathetic nervous system.

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  • 27. 

    In order to cause negative inotropic effects on the heart, you would have to administer a/an

    • A.

      Beta-1 adrenic antagonist

    • B.

      Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

    • C.

      Beta-2 adrenergic agonist

    • D.

      Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta-1 adrenic antagonist
    Explanation
    To cause negative inotropic effects on the heart, you would have to administer a beta-1 adrenergic antagonist. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors are primarily located in the heart, and their activation increases heart rate and contractility. By blocking these receptors, beta-1 adrenergic antagonists decrease heart rate and contractility, leading to negative inotropic effects. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists, beta-2 adrenergic agonists, and alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists do not directly cause negative inotropic effects on the heart.

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  • 28. 

    A medication that possesses a negative chronotropic effect will

    • A.

      Cause a decrease in the heart rate

    • B.

      Cause an increase in blood pressure

    • C.

      Decrease myocardial contractile force

    • D.

      Increase cardiac electrical conduction velocity

    Correct Answer
    A. Cause a decrease in the heart rate
    Explanation
    A medication that possesses a negative chronotropic effect will cause a decrease in the heart rate. This means that the medication will slow down the heart's rhythm and reduce the number of contractions per minute. This can be beneficial in certain medical conditions where a slower heart rate is desired, such as in the treatment of high blood pressure or certain heart conditions.

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  • 29. 

    Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by

    • A.

      Blocking angiotensin 2 from binding to its receptor sites

    • B.

      Competitively binding to alpha -1 receptors in the vasculature

    • C.

      Suppressing the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

    • D.

      Lowering cardiac output secondary to diminished renin production

    Correct Answer
    C. Suppressing the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors work by suppressing the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2. Angiotensin 2 is a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict and stimulates the release of aldosterone, which leads to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. By inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, ACE inhibitors help to relax blood vessels, reduce fluid retention, and ultimately lower blood pressure.

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  • 30. 

    Epinephrine stimulation of beta-2 receptors will cause

    • A.

      Bronchoconstriction

    • B.

      The airway diameter to dilate

    • C.

      Vasoconstriction and hypertension

    • D.

      A decreased release of norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    B. The airway diameter to dilate
    Explanation
    Epinephrine stimulation of beta-2 receptors causes the airway diameter to dilate. Epinephrine is a hormone that acts as a bronchodilator, meaning it relaxes the smooth muscles in the airways, leading to an increase in the diameter of the airway. This dilation allows for easier airflow and improved breathing. This effect is particularly beneficial in conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), where the airways are constricted and narrowed.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following medications is used to replace the hormones missing in patients with hypothyroidism

    • A.

      Nexium

    • B.

      Compazine

    • C.

      Zofran

    • D.

      Synthroid

    Correct Answer
    D. Synthroid
    Explanation
    Synthroid is the correct answer because it is a medication commonly prescribed to patients with hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, and Synthroid is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone that helps to replace the hormones that are missing in these patients. Nexium, Compazine, and Zofran are not used to treat hypothyroidism, so they are not the correct choices.

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  • 32. 

    If a patient is taking Enfuviritide, a protease inhibitor, you should be MOST suspicious that he or she has

    • A.

      Cancer

    • B.

      HIV infection

    • C.

      Tuberculosis

    • D.

      A bacterial infection

    Correct Answer
    B. HIV infection
    Explanation
    Enfuviritide is a medication used for the treatment of HIV infection. It is a type of antiretroviral drug known as a fusion inhibitor, which works by preventing the HIV virus from entering human cells. Therefore, if a patient is taking Enfuviritide, it strongly suggests that they have HIV infection.

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  • 33. 

    What disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastrointestinal tract.

    • A.

      Peptic ulcer disease

    • B.

      Crohn's disease

    • C.

      Cholethiasis

    • D.

      Cholecystitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Peptic ulcer disease
    Explanation
    Peptic ulcer disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastrointestinal tract. This condition typically occurs in the stomach or the first part of the small intestine, known as the duodenum. The erosions are caused by the excessive production of stomach acid or a decrease in the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum. Symptoms of peptic ulcer disease include abdominal pain, bloating, heartburn, and nausea. It can be caused by factors such as infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption. Treatment may involve medications to reduce stomach acid production, antibiotics to eradicate H. pylori infection, and lifestyle changes.

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  • 34. 

    Muscular dystrophy  is characterized by

    • A.

      Progressive deterioration of involuntary muscles, specifically the diaphragm

    • B.

      Weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disability

    • C.

      Relaxation of the vascular smooth muscles, resulting in progressive hypoperfusion

    • D.

      Involuntary rapid, jerky motions and mental deterioration, leading to dementia

    Correct Answer
    B. Weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disability
    Explanation
    Muscular dystrophy is a condition that is characterized by weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, which progressively leads to increasing disability. This means that over time, the affected individual experiences a gradual deterioration and loss of strength in their skeletal muscles, resulting in difficulties with movement and physical functioning. As the condition progresses, the individual may become more disabled and reliant on assistance for daily activities.

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  • 35. 

    Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are MOST characteristic of

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Schizophrenia

    • C.

      Bipolar disorder

    • D.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Schizophrenia
    Explanation
    Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are most characteristic of schizophrenia. This mental disorder is characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and impaired social functioning. Individuals with schizophrenia may experience a break from reality, exhibit odd or unusual behaviors, and have difficulty in maintaining social relationships. Depression, bipolar disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder may have some overlapping symptoms, but they do not typically involve the same level of severe distortions of reality and bizarre behavior as seen in schizophrenia.

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  • 36. 

    When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to

    • A.

      Anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid

    • B.

      Aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide

    • C.

      Fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids

    • D.

      Anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid
    Explanation
    When oxygen does not reach the cell, it is unable to undergo aerobic metabolism, which is the normal process of breaking down glucose to produce energy in the presence of oxygen. Instead, the cell switches to anaerobic metabolism, which involves breaking down glucose without the use of oxygen. This process leads to the production of lactic acid as a byproduct. Lactic acid buildup can cause muscle fatigue and soreness.

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  • 37. 

    What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels

    • A.

      Cardiogenic

    • B.

      Peripheral

    • C.

      Distributive

    • D.

      Obstructive

    Correct Answer
    D. Obstructive
    Explanation
    Obstructive shock occurs when there is a blockage in the heart or great vessels, leading to a decrease in blood flow. This can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax. The blockage prevents the heart from effectively pumping blood, resulting in inadequate perfusion to the body's organs and tissues. This type of shock requires immediate medical intervention to remove the obstruction and restore normal blood flow.

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  • 38. 

    Distributive shock occurs when

    • A.

      Central vasoconstriction forces blood from the core of the body

    • B.

      Blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases

    • C.

      Microorganisms attack the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation

    • D.

      A significant decrease in cardiac contractility causes decreased perfusion

    Correct Answer
    B. Blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases
    Explanation
    Distributive shock occurs when blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases. In this type of shock, there is a widespread vasodilation, causing the blood to accumulate in the peripheral blood vessels. As a result, there is a decrease in blood flow to vital organs and tissues, leading to inadequate perfusion. This can be caused by various factors such as sepsis, anaphylaxis, or neurogenic conditions. The pooling of blood in the expanded vascular beds contributes to the decreased tissue perfusion seen in distributive shock.

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  • 39. 

    A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes

    • A.

      Neurogenic shock

    • B.

      Obstructive shock

    • C.

      Profound vasoconstriction

    • D.

      A reduced absolute blood volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Neurogenic shock
    Explanation
    Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone. This loss of tone leads to a disruption in the balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, resulting in a decrease in vascular resistance and subsequent dilation of blood vessels. This dilation causes a drop in blood pressure and can lead to symptoms such as lightheadedness, fainting, and a weak pulse. Therefore, the correct answer is neurogenic shock.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following statements regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome(MODS) is MOST correct

    • A.

      MODS typically develops within 20 to 30 minutes following resuscitation from cardiac arrest

    • B.

      At the cellular leve, MODS results in aerobic metabolism, metabolic alkalosis, and impaired cellular function

    • C.

      Signs and symptoms of MODS include compensatory hypertension, bradycardia, and a fever greater that 105F

    • D.

      MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response

    Correct Answer
    D. MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response
    Explanation
    MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response. This statement is the most correct because it accurately describes the underlying cause of MODS. MODS is a condition in which multiple organs in the body fail as a result of a systemic response to injury or infection. This response involves the activation of the immune system, inflammation, and abnormal blood clotting. It is not typically associated with the other mentioned characteristics such as a specific time frame of development, specific metabolic changes, or specific signs and symptoms.

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  • 41. 

    The chief white blood cell of the immune response is the

    • A.

      Lymphocyte

    • B.

      Neutrophil

    • C.

      Monocyte

    • D.

      Eosinophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocyte
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are the chief white blood cells involved in the immune response. They play a crucial role in recognizing and attacking foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, and are responsible for the body's adaptive immune response. Lymphocytes are further divided into two main types: B cells, which produce antibodies, and T cells, which directly attack infected cells. This makes lymphocytes the primary defenders of the immune system and the correct answer to the question.

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  • 42. 

    An injection of immunoglobulin is an example of

    • A.

      Native immunity

    • B.

      Passive acquired immunity

    • C.

      Innate immunity

    • D.

      Active acquired immunity

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive acquired immunity
    Explanation
    An injection of immunoglobulin refers to the administration of pre-formed antibodies from an external source. This provides immediate protection against a specific pathogen or toxin, without the need for the body to produce its own antibodies. This type of immunity is called passive acquired immunity because the individual receives ready-made antibodies rather than producing them themselves. It is temporary and does not provide long-term protection.

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  • 43. 

    The two MOST common causes of inflammation are

    • A.

      Fever and phagocytosis

    • B.

      Infection and injury

    • C.

      Hypercarbia and hypoxemia

    • D.

      Immunosuppression and fever

    Correct Answer
    B. Infection and injury
    Explanation
    Inflammation is a natural response by the body to protect and heal itself. Infection and injury are the two most common causes of inflammation. Infection triggers the body's immune system to respond and fight off harmful pathogens, leading to inflammation. Similarly, injury causes damage to tissues, which prompts the body's inflammatory response to repair the damaged area. Fever and phagocytosis, hypercarbia and hypoxemia, and immunosuppression and fever are not the primary causes of inflammation, making infection and injury the correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    The destruction of a blood clot is called

    • A.

      Adhesion

    • B.

      Fibrinolysis

    • C.

      Chemotaxis

    • D.

      Agglutination

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrinolysis
    Explanation
    Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down a blood clot. When a blood clot forms to prevent excessive bleeding, it needs to be dissolved once the injury has healed. Fibrinolysis involves the activation of an enzyme called plasmin, which breaks down the fibrin meshwork that holds the clot together, allowing the clot to be gradually broken down and removed by the body. Therefore, fibrinolysis is the correct term for the destruction of a blood clot.

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  • 45. 

    In general, a child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between

    • A.

      1 and 2 years old

    • B.

      2 and 3 years old

    • C.

      3 and 4 years old

    • D.

      4 and 5 years old

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 and 3 years old
    Explanation
    A child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between 2 and 3 years old. During this time, the immune system undergoes significant development and maturation, allowing the child to better fight off infections and diseases. This is why children are more susceptible to illnesses during their early years and why it is important to take extra precautions to protect their health.

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  • 46. 

    If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be

    • A.

      Idiopathic

    • B.

      Organic

    • C.

      Functional

    • D.

      Pathologic

    Correct Answer
    A. Idiopathic
    Explanation
    When the cause of a disease is unknown, it is referred to as idiopathic. This term is used to describe diseases or conditions for which the underlying cause cannot be determined or identified. It implies that the disease is of unknown origin or etiology. The other options - organic, functional, and pathologic - do not specifically refer to diseases with unknown causes but rather describe different aspects or characteristics of diseases.

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  • 47. 

    Severe, prolonged stress

    • A.

      Is frequently a direct cause of death

    • B.

      Results in the destruction of cholesterol and fat

    • C.

      Causes the body to lose its ability to fight

    • D.

      Results in chronically low levels of cortisol

    Correct Answer
    C. Causes the body to lose its ability to fight
    Explanation
    Severe, prolonged stress can cause the body to lose its ability to fight. When the body is under constant stress, the immune system becomes weakened, making it more difficult for the body to defend itself against illnesses and diseases. This can lead to a higher susceptibility to infections and other health problems, ultimately compromising the body's ability to fight off harmful agents.

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  • 48. 

    In order to relive the bronchospasm associated with an acute asthma attack, the paramedic would give a/an

    • A.

      Alpha-1 agonist

    • B.

      Beta-2 agonist

    • C.

      Beta-1 agonist

    • D.

      Alpha-2 agonist

    Correct Answer
    B. Beta-2 agonist
    Explanation
    A beta-2 agonist would be given to relieve bronchospasm associated with an acute asthma attack. Beta-2 agonists are bronchodilators that work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, thereby opening up the air passages and making it easier to breathe. This class of medication is commonly used in the treatment of asthma and is effective in quickly relieving symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Alpha-1 agonists, beta-1 agonists, and alpha-2 agonists do not have the same bronchodilating effects as beta-2 agonists and are not typically used in the treatment of asthma.

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  • 49. 

    The time that it takes to for the concentration of a medication to reach a minimum effective level at its target tissue is called the

    • A.

      Therapeutic effect

    • B.

      Onset of action

    • C.

      Duration of action

    • D.

      Therapeutic index

    Correct Answer
    B. Onset of action
    Explanation
    The term "onset of action" refers to the time it takes for a medication to start producing its desired effect in the body. In this context, it specifically refers to the time it takes for the concentration of the medication to reach a minimum effective level at its target tissue. This is an important consideration in medication administration as it helps determine when the medication will begin to work and how quickly it will produce the desired therapeutic effect.

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  • 50. 

    Unlike schedule 1 drugs, schedule 2 drugs have

    • A.

      Accepted medical uses

    • B.

      A higher abuse potential

    • C.

      Limited independence potential

    • D.

      No accepted medical application

    Correct Answer
    A. Accepted medical uses
    Explanation
    Schedule 2 drugs are classified as such because they have accepted medical uses. This means that these drugs have been recognized by medical professionals as having legitimate therapeutic benefits and can be prescribed by doctors in certain situations. However, despite their medical uses, schedule 2 drugs also have a higher abuse potential compared to schedule 1 drugs. This implies that they have a greater likelihood of being misused or causing addiction. Therefore, the correct answer is "accepted medical uses."

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jbouren
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