A&p 2 Chapters 23 & 24 Quiz - Lonestar

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Chapter 23 - Digestive SystemChapter 24 - Nutrition & Metabolism


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are the types of digestions?

    • A.

      Chemical & Physical

    • B.

      Mechanical

    • C.

      Chemical

    • D.

      Biological & Physical

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemical & Physical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Chemical & Physical. Digestion is the process of breaking down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed and used by the body. Chemical digestion involves the use of enzymes to break down large molecules into smaller ones, while physical digestion involves the mechanical breakdown of food through chewing and the churning action of the stomach. Therefore, both chemical and physical processes are involved in digestion.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the chemical digestion?

    • A.

      Catabolic reaction

    • B.

      Enzymatic hydrolysis

    • C.

      Break down of carbohydrates

    • D.

      Mixing

    • E.

      Salivary amylase

    Correct Answer
    D. Mixing
    Explanation
    Mixing is not part of chemical digestion because it does not involve any chemical reactions or the breakdown of molecules through the use of enzymes. Mixing refers to the physical process of combining food with digestive juices and moving it through the digestive system. Chemical digestion, on the other hand, involves the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones through the use of enzymes and other chemical reactions. This process includes enzymatic hydrolysis, the breakdown of carbohydrates, and the action of salivary amylase. Catabolic reactions are also part of chemical digestion as they involve the breaking down of complex molecules into simpler ones.

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  • 3. 

    Which is NOT part of the accessory structures?

    • A.

      Oral cavity

    • B.

      Teeth

    • C.

      Tongue

    • D.

      Gallbladder

    • E.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral cavity
    Explanation
    The oral cavity is not part of the accessory structures. The accessory structures refer to the organs or tissues that aid in the functioning of the main organ or system. In this case, the accessory structures are related to the digestive system. The teeth, tongue, gallbladder, and liver are all accessory structures that assist in the digestion and processing of food. However, the oral cavity is not an accessory structure but rather the main structure where the digestion process begins.

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  • 4. 

    What are the layers of the GI Tract?

    • A.

      Mucosa, Sub-mucosa, Muscularis externa, & Serosa

    • B.

      Epithelium, Lamina Propria, & Muscularis Mucosae

    • C.

      Epithelium and Connective tissue

    • D.

      Longitudinal and Circular muscle

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Mucosa, Sub-mucosa, Muscularis externa, & Serosa
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mucosa, Sub-mucosa, Muscularis externa, & Serosa. The gastrointestinal (GI) tract consists of several layers that help in the digestion and absorption of food. The mucosa is the innermost layer and is responsible for the secretion of digestive enzymes and absorption of nutrients. The submucosa provides support and contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels. The muscularis externa is responsible for the movement of food through the GI tract and is composed of longitudinal and circular muscle layers. The serosa is the outermost layer and provides protection and support to the GI tract.

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  • 5. 

    Which cells are in the epithelium layer of the mucosa?

    • A.

      Stratified squamos

    • B.

      Simple columnar

    • C.

      Both A&B

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A&B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both A&B" because the epithelium layer of the mucosa contains both stratified squamous cells and simple columnar cells. Stratified squamous cells are found in areas that need protection, such as the skin and the lining of the mouth and esophagus. Simple columnar cells are found in areas that require absorption and secretion, such as the lining of the stomach and intestines. Therefore, both types of cells can be present in the epithelium layer of the mucosa.

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  • 6. 

    Which layer in the mucosa contains the goblet cells?

    • A.

      Lamina propria

    • B.

      Muscularis Mucosae

    • C.

      Both A&B

    • D.

      Epithelium

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Epithelium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is epithelium because goblet cells are a type of epithelial cell that secrete mucus. The epithelium is the outermost layer of the mucosa and is responsible for protecting the underlying tissues. Both the lamina propria and muscularis mucosae are layers beneath the epithelium and do not contain goblet cells. Therefore, the correct answer is epithelium.

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  • 7. 

    Lamina propria is

    • A.

      Thick layer of loose CT

    • B.

      Thin layer of loose CT

    • C.

      Highly vascularized with lymphatic tissue protection

    • D.

      Thin layer of smooth muscle tissue

    • E.

      Only B&C

    Correct Answer
    E. Only B&C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only B&C". This means that the lamina propria is both a thin layer of loose connective tissue and highly vascularized with lymphatic tissue protection. This suggests that the lamina propria is responsible for providing support and nourishment to the epithelial layer above it, as well as playing a role in immune defense and tissue repair.

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  • 8. 

    Submucosa contains dense connective tissue

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The submucosa is a layer of connective tissue found beneath the mucous membrane in various organs of the body. It consists of dense connective tissue that provides support and elasticity to the mucosa. This layer contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves that supply the mucosa. Therefore, it is correct to say that the submucosa contains dense connective tissue.

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  • 9. 

    __________________ controls secretion of G.I. Tract

    Correct Answer
    Meissner's plexus
    Submucosal plexus
    Explanation
    Meissner's plexus and submucosal plexus are both components of the enteric nervous system, which controls the secretion and motility of the gastrointestinal tract. Meissner's plexus is located in the submucosa and is responsible for regulating local blood flow and controlling the secretory functions of the mucosa. The submucosal plexus, on the other hand, is found within the submucosa and controls the movements of the muscularis mucosae, as well as the secretory and absorptive activities of the mucosa. Therefore, both Meissner's plexus and submucosal plexus play a crucial role in controlling the secretion of the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • 10. 

    What are the two layers of Peritoneum?

    • A.

      Visceral

    • B.

      Parietal

    • C.

      None of the above

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The peritoneum is a double-layered membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. The two layers of the peritoneum are the visceral peritoneum and the parietal peritoneum. The visceral peritoneum covers the organs, while the parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" because both the visceral and parietal peritoneum are present in the abdominal cavity.

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  • 11. 

    Peritonitis is the inflammation of the visceral layer of the peritoneum.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Peritonitis is not the inflammation of the visceral layer of the peritoneum. Instead, it is the inflammation of the entire peritoneum, which includes both the visceral and parietal layers. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 12. 

    What are the three glands in the mouth?

    • A.

      Parotid, Submandibular, Sublingual

    • B.

      Buccal, Parotid, Submandibular

    • C.

      Sublingual, Buccal, Lingual Frenulum

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Parotid, Submandibular, Sublingual
    Explanation
    The three glands in the mouth are the parotid gland, submandibular gland, and sublingual gland. The parotid gland is the largest salivary gland and is located in front of the ear. The submandibular gland is located beneath the lower jaw and produces most of the saliva in the mouth. The sublingual gland is located under the tongue and produces saliva that helps with swallowing and keeping the mouth moist.

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  • 13. 

    Which enzyme breaks down starch?

    • A.

      Salivary amylase

    • B.

      Lingual lipase

    • C.

      Pepsinogen

    • D.

      Gastrin

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Salivary amylase
    Explanation
    Salivary amylase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that is secreted in the saliva and is responsible for breaking down starch into smaller molecules such as maltose. This enzyme starts the digestion process of carbohydrates in the mouth before the food reaches the stomach. Lingual lipase is an enzyme that breaks down lipids, not starch. Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, which is responsible for protein digestion. Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the release of gastric acid in the stomach. None of the above options except for salivary amylase are involved in the breakdown of starch.

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  • 14. 

    Enamel is the softest substance in the body

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Enamel is actually the hardest substance in the body. It is the outermost layer of the teeth and provides protection against tooth decay and damage. This hard, mineralized tissue is composed mainly of calcium and phosphate, making it highly resistant to wear and tear.

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  • 15. 

    How many secondary teeth are there?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      33

    • C.

      32

    • D.

      30

    • E.

      3

    Correct Answer
    C. 32
    Explanation
    There are 32 secondary teeth in the human mouth. Secondary teeth, also known as permanent teeth, replace the primary teeth (baby teeth) as a person grows. The permanent dentition consists of 32 teeth, which includes 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars. These teeth play a crucial role in chewing, speaking, and maintaining proper oral health.

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  • 16. 

    Mechanism that moves food from the mouth to the stomach and is facilitated by saliva and mucus

    • A.

      Deglutition

    • B.

      Digestion

    • C.

      Ingestion

    • D.

      Defecation

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Deglutition
    Explanation
    Deglutition is the process of swallowing food and moving it from the mouth to the stomach. It is facilitated by the presence of saliva and mucus, which help to lubricate the food and make it easier to swallow. During deglutition, the muscles in the throat and esophagus contract in a coordinated manner to push the food down into the stomach. Therefore, deglutition is the correct answer as it accurately describes the mechanism by which food is moved from the mouth to the stomach with the help of saliva and mucus.

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  • 17. 

    Pierces the diaphragm through an opening

    • A.

      Esophageal hiatus

    • B.

      Esophageal sphincter

    • C.

      Cardia sphincter

    • D.

      Esophageal valve

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Esophageal hiatus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Esophageal hiatus." The esophageal hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes. This allows the esophagus to connect the throat to the stomach. The other options listed (esophageal sphincter, cardia sphincter, and esophageal valve) are all incorrect as they do not refer to the opening in the diaphragm.

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  • 18. 

    What are the phase(s) of deglutition?

    • A.

      Involuntary

    • B.

      Voluntary

    • C.

      Voluntary, Involuntary, Pharyngeal

    • D.

      Voluntary, Pharyngeal, Esophageal

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Voluntary, Pharyngeal, Esophageal
    Explanation
    Deglutition, or swallowing, is a complex process that involves multiple phases. The first phase is voluntary, where we consciously initiate the swallowing process by moving the food or liquid to the back of the mouth. The second phase is the pharyngeal phase, which is involuntary and involves the reflexive closure of the airway to prevent food or liquid from entering the lungs. The final phase is the esophageal phase, where the food or liquid is propelled down the esophagus and into the stomach through peristalsis. Therefore, the correct answer is Voluntary, Pharyngeal, Esophageal.

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  • 19. 

    Peristalsis pushes food down to the esophagus

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Peristalsis is a wave-like muscle contraction that occurs in the digestive system to push food along the digestive tract. It starts in the esophagus and helps to move food down towards the stomach. Therefore, the statement "Peristalsis pushes food down to the esophagus" is true.

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  • 20. 

    Difficulty in swallowing

    • A.

      Dysphagia

    • B.

      Deglutition

    • C.

      Digestion

    • D.

      Ingestion

    • E.

      Defecation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysphagia
    Explanation
    Dysphagia refers to the difficulty in swallowing. It is a medical condition that can occur due to various reasons such as muscle weakness, nerve damage, or obstruction in the esophagus. Dysphagia can make it challenging to eat and drink, leading to potential complications such as malnutrition and dehydration. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is Dysphagia.

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  • 21. 

    GERD is 

    • A.

      Lower esophageal sphincter fails to close

    • B.

      Stomach acids enter esophagus & cause heartburn

    • C.

      Both A&B

    • D.

      Only B

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A&B
    Explanation
    Both options A and B are correct. GERD stands for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease, which occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) fails to close properly. This allows stomach acids to flow back into the esophagus, causing a burning sensation known as heartburn. Therefore, options A and B accurately describe the characteristics of GERD.

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  • 22. 

    Which gastric cell secretes intrinsic factor?

    • A.

      Parietal Cell

    • B.

      Chief Cell

    • C.

      G Cell

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Parietal Cell
    Explanation
    The parietal cell secretes intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. It is produced by the parietal cells in the stomach lining. Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12 and protects it from degradation in the acidic environment of the stomach. It then travels to the small intestine where it binds to receptors on the surface of the intestinal cells, allowing for the absorption of vitamin B12 into the bloodstream.

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  • 23. 

    Which gastric cell secrets pepsinogen?

    • A.

      Parietal Cell

    • B.

      Chief Cell

    • C.

      G Cell

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief Cell
    Explanation
    Chief cells are responsible for secreting pepsinogen, which is the inactive form of the enzyme pepsin. Pepsinogen is then activated to pepsin in the stomach's acidic environment, where it plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins. Parietal cells, on the other hand, secrete hydrochloric acid to create the acidic environment necessary for the activation of pepsinogen. G cells are responsible for secreting the hormone gastrin, which stimulates the release of both pepsinogen and hydrochloric acid. Therefore, the correct answer is Chief Cell.

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  • 24. 

    Which one is/are a layer(s) in the stomach?

    • A.

      Longitudinal

    • B.

      Circular

    • C.

      Oblique

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The stomach is composed of three main layers: the longitudinal layer, the circular layer, and the oblique layer. The longitudinal layer runs along the length of the stomach, providing support and allowing for expansion. The circular layer wraps around the stomach, helping to mix and churn food. The oblique layer is found only in the innermost part of the stomach and aids in further mechanical digestion. Therefore, all of the given options are correct as they represent the layers present in the stomach.

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  • 25. 

    Hormones in the stomach are:

    • A.

      Gastrin

    • B.

      CCK

    • C.

      Secretin

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastrin
    Explanation
    Gastrin is a hormone that is released by the stomach and plays a key role in regulating the secretion of gastric acid. It stimulates the production of gastric acid, which aids in the digestion of food. CCK (cholecystokinin) is another hormone that is released by the small intestine and stimulates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gallbladder. Secretin is a hormone that is released by the small intestine and stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice, which helps to neutralize stomach acid. Therefore, the correct answer is Gastrin.

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  • 26. 

    The products of the Islets of Langerhans are insulin and glucagon.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas that produce and release hormones. Insulin and glucagon are two of the main hormones produced by these islets. Insulin helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream, while glucagon raises blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose. Therefore, the statement that the products of the Islets of Langerhans are insulin and glucagon is true.

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  • 27. 

    Liver produces 

    • A.

      Insulin

    • B.

      Bile

    • C.

      Stomach Acid

    • D.

      HCl

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Bile
    Explanation
    The liver produces bile, which is a greenish-yellow fluid that aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. Bile is stored in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine when needed. It helps to break down fats into smaller molecules so that they can be easily absorbed by the body. Bile also helps in the elimination of waste products, such as bilirubin, from the body.

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  • 28. 

    Hepatocytes are surrounded by blood-filled spaces called

    • A.

      Kupffer cells

    • B.

      Lobules

    • C.

      Hepatocytes

    • D.

      Sinusoids

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Sinusoids
    Explanation
    Sinusoids are blood-filled spaces that surround hepatocytes. These spaces allow for the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the hepatocytes and the blood. Sinusoids also play a role in the filtration and detoxification of blood in the liver. Therefore, the correct answer is sinusoids.

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  • 29. 

    What is the triad group in the liver?

    • A.

      Hepatic portal venule, arteriole, and cystic duct

    • B.

      Inferior vena cava, right atrium of heart

    • C.

      Liver sinusoids, central vein, and inferior vena cava

    • D.

      Hepatic portal venule, arteriold, and bile duct

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Hepatic portal venule, arteriold, and bile duct
    Explanation
    The triad group in the liver consists of the hepatic portal venule, arteriole, and bile duct. These three structures are closely associated with each other and play important roles in the liver's function. The hepatic portal venule carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs to the liver, while the arteriole supplies oxygenated blood to the liver. The bile duct, on the other hand, is responsible for transporting bile produced by the liver to the gallbladder and small intestine for digestion. Together, these three structures form the triad group in the liver.

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  • 30. 

    One of the functions of the liver is to convert ammonia to urea.

    • A.

      False

    • B.

      True

    Correct Answer
    B. True
    Explanation
    The liver plays a crucial role in the detoxification process, and one of its functions is to convert toxic ammonia into a less harmful substance called urea. Ammonia is produced when proteins are broken down in the body, and if it accumulates in the bloodstream, it can be harmful. The liver converts ammonia into urea, which is then excreted in urine. Therefore, the statement is true, and the liver does indeed convert ammonia to urea.

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  • 31. 

    How long is the largest region in the small intestine?

    • A.

      12 inches

    • B.

      12 centimeters

    • C.

      12 feet

    • D.

      12 meters

    • E.

      12 kilometers

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 feet
    Explanation
    The largest region in the small intestine is approximately 12 feet long. This length allows for efficient absorption of nutrients from food as it passes through the small intestine.

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  • 32. 

    Paneth cells secrete 

    • A.

      Sinusoids

    • B.

      Hepatocytes

    • C.

      Pepsin

    • D.

      Lysozyme

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Lysozyme
    Explanation
    Paneth cells are specialized cells found in the small intestine, particularly in the crypts of Lieberkühn. These cells play a crucial role in the innate immune response of the intestines. They secrete various antimicrobial substances, including lysozyme, which is an enzyme that can break down the cell walls of certain bacteria. Lysozyme helps to protect the intestinal lining from harmful bacteria and maintain a healthy gut microbiota. Sinusoids and hepatocytes are not secreted by Paneth cells, and pepsin is an enzyme secreted by the stomach. Therefore, the correct answer is lysozyme.

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  • 33. 

    Segmentation is un-localized contraction of the muscularis to mix and church the chyme with intestinal juices 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Segmentation is a process in the small intestine where the muscularis contracts and relaxes in a localized manner to mix and churn the chyme (partially digested food) with the intestinal juices. This helps in further breaking down the food particles and mixing them with digestive enzymes for better absorption of nutrients. Therefore, the statement "Segmentation is un-localized contraction of the muscularis to mix and churn the chyme with intestinal juices" is true.

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  • 34. 

    Diarrhea is a defecation problem that 

    • A.

      Bile passes too quickly through intestine

    • B.

      Chyme passes too quickly through intestine

    • C.

      Pepsin is secreted and burns the anal canal

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Chyme passes too quickly through intestine
    Explanation
    Chyme is the semi-liquid mixture of food and gastric juices that is produced in the stomach. When chyme passes too quickly through the intestine, it can result in diarrhea. This is because the intestine does not have enough time to absorb water and nutrients from the chyme, leading to loose and watery stools. Bile passing too quickly through the intestine or pepsin secretion burning the anal canal are not correct explanations for diarrhea.

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  • 35. 

    Anabolism is hydrolysis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Anabolism is the process in which complex molecules are synthesized from simpler ones, requiring energy. Hydrolysis, on the other hand, is the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones using water. Since anabolism involves the synthesis of molecules, it is not hydrolysis. Therefore, the statement "Anabolism is hydrolysis" is false.

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  • 36. 

    Catabolism is hydrolysis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Catabolism refers to the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, usually through hydrolysis reactions. Hydrolysis is a chemical process that involves the splitting of a compound by adding water. Therefore, it can be inferred that catabolism involves hydrolysis, making the statement "Catabolism is hydrolysis" true.

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  • 37. 

    Substrate-level phosphorylation in the mitochondria

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Substrate-level phosphorylation is a process in which ATP is directly synthesized during a metabolic reaction. While substrate-level phosphorylation does occur in the cytoplasm during glycolysis, it does not occur in the mitochondria. In the mitochondria, ATP is primarily generated through oxidative phosphorylation, which involves the transfer of electrons in the electron transport chain. Therefore, the statement that substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria is false.

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  • 38. 

    Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm and changes glucose to glycogen

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and converts glucose into pyruvate, not glycogen. Glycogen is a storage form of glucose that is synthesized and stored in the liver and muscles. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 39. 

    Aerobic respiration involves

    • A.

      Krebs Cycle

    • B.

      Electron transport chain

    • C.

      Glycolysis

    • D.

      Formation of Acetyl CoA

    • E.

      Both A&B

    Correct Answer
    E. Both A&B
    Explanation
    Aerobic respiration involves both the Krebs Cycle and the Electron transport chain. The Krebs Cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria and produce energy-rich molecules like ATP. The Electron transport chain is a process that takes place in the inner mitochondrial membrane and involves the transfer of electrons from molecules to generate ATP. Both of these processes are essential for the complete breakdown of glucose and the production of energy in the form of ATP during aerobic respiration.

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  • 40. 

    The difference between oxidation and reduction is that oxidation gains and reduction loses.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that the statement provided is incorrect. In oxidation, a substance loses electrons, while in reduction, a substance gains electrons. Therefore, oxidation involves the loss of electrons, not the gain, and reduction involves the gain of electrons, not the loss.

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  • 41. 

    After citric acid is formed in the Krebs Cycle, what is formed next?

    • A.

      Fumaric acid

    • B.

      Succinyl-CoA

    • C.

      Succinic acid

    • D.

      Isocitric acid

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Isocitric acid
    Explanation
    After citric acid is formed in the Krebs Cycle, it undergoes a series of reactions, including the conversion of citric acid to isocitric acid. Therefore, isocitric acid is formed next in the Krebs Cycle.

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  • 42. 

    How many ATPs are produced in Krebs Cycle for 2 groups of Acetyl-CoA?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      19

    • E.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    In the Krebs Cycle, each group of Acetyl-CoA produces 3 molecules of NADH, 1 molecule of FADH2, and 1 molecule of GTP. These molecules go on to participate in the electron transport chain, where they donate electrons and protons to generate ATP. Since each NADH molecule generates 3 ATPs and each FADH2 molecule generates 2 ATPs, the total ATP production for each group of Acetyl-CoA is 3 + 2 + 1 = 6 ATPs. Therefore, the correct answer is 6, not 2.

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  • 43. 

    ATP synthesis occurs as H+ diffuses through a special H+ channel in inner membrane in 

    • A.

      Glycolysis

    • B.

      Formation of Acetyl-CoA

    • C.

      Formation of Lactic Acid

    • D.

      Electron Transport Chain

    • E.

      Krebs Cycle

    Correct Answer
    D. Electron Transport Chain
    Explanation
    In the electron transport chain, ATP synthesis occurs as H+ ions are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This creates a concentration gradient, with a higher concentration of H+ ions in the intermembrane space compared to the matrix. The H+ ions then diffuse back into the matrix through a special H+ channel called ATP synthase. As the H+ ions pass through ATP synthase, their energy is used to convert ADP to ATP, resulting in ATP synthesis. Therefore, the correct answer is Electron Transport Chain.

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  • 44. 

    Glycogenolysis is the conversion of

    • A.

      Glucose to glycogen

    • B.

      Glycogen to glucose

    • C.

      Glycogen to amino acids

    • D.

      Glucose to maltose

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Glycogen to glucose
    Explanation
    Glycogenolysis is the process of breaking down glycogen into glucose. Glycogen is a storage form of glucose in the body, primarily found in the liver and muscles. When the body needs glucose for energy, glycogenolysis occurs to release glucose into the bloodstream. This process is important in maintaining blood sugar levels and providing energy during periods of fasting or physical activity.

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  • 45. 

    Storage of glucose when energy levels are high (in liver & skeletal muscles)

    • A.

      Glycogenesis

    • B.

      Glycogenolysis

    • C.

      Gluconeogenesis

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycogenesis
    Explanation
    Glycogenesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of storing excess glucose as glycogen when energy levels are high, particularly in the liver and skeletal muscles. This process helps to maintain blood glucose levels and provide a readily available source of energy when needed. Glycogenolysis, on the other hand, is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose when energy levels are low, while gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. None of the above options include all three processes, making "All of the above" incorrect.

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  • 46. 

    Triglycerides go through ________________________ to Acetyl Co-A

    Correct Answer
    Beta Oxidation
    Explanation
    Triglycerides go through beta oxidation to Acetyl Co-A. Beta oxidation is the process by which fatty acids are broken down into acetyl Co-A molecules, which can then enter the citric acid cycle to produce energy. This process occurs in the mitochondria of cells and is an important step in the metabolism of fats for energy production.

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  • 47. 

    Which class of Lipoproteins are bad cholesterol?

    • A.

      Chylomicrons

    • B.

      VLDLs

    • C.

      LDLs

    • D.

      HDLs

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. LDLs
    Explanation
    LDLs, or low-density lipoproteins, are considered "bad" cholesterol because they carry cholesterol from the liver to the cells, and if there is an excess of LDLs in the bloodstream, it can lead to a buildup of cholesterol in the arteries. This can increase the risk of heart disease and other cardiovascular problems. HDLs, on the other hand, are considered "good" cholesterol because they help remove cholesterol from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of artery blockage. Chylomicrons and VLDLs are also lipoproteins, but they are not specifically associated with "bad" cholesterol.

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  • 48. 

    Which one is the water-soluble vitamin?

    • A.

      Vitamin A

    • B.

      Vitamin K

    • C.

      Vitamin D

    • D.

      Folic acid

    • E.

      Vitamin E

    Correct Answer
    D. Folic acid
    Explanation
    Folic acid is the water-soluble vitamin among the options given. Water-soluble vitamins are those that dissolve in water and are easily absorbed by the body. Folic acid, also known as vitamin B9, is essential for cell division, DNA synthesis, and the production of red blood cells. It is commonly found in leafy green vegetables, fruits, and fortified grains. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body and need to be consumed regularly to maintain adequate levels.

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  • 49. 

    How many essential amino acids our bodies cannot make?

    • A.

      9

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      11

    • D.

      12

    • E.

      83

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    Our bodies cannot produce 10 essential amino acids. These amino acids are necessary for various biological processes, including protein synthesis and the functioning of enzymes and hormones. Therefore, it is important to obtain them through our diet.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 28, 2010
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    Triaaa
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