A Quiz On Blood For Intellectuals Chapter 15:

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  • 1/65 Questions

    Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell?

    • Granulocyte
    • Erythrocyte
    • Thrombocyte
    • Eosinophil
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About This Quiz

So, you’ve read the title of the quiz and you’re still here? That must mean you’re an intellectual, but you’re going to need to prove it in this tough quiz on blood. What do you know about the fluid that keeps our bodies ticking? Take the quiz and we’ll find out together!

A Quiz On Blood For Intellectuals Chapter 15: - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which blood cell fits this description: granulocytic, phagocytic, and motile?

    • Thrombocyte

    • Eosinophil

    • Neutrophil

    • Lymphocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophil
    Explanation
    A neutrophil is a type of blood cell that fits the description of being granulocytic, phagocytic, and motile. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are part of the immune system and play a crucial role in fighting off infections. They are able to engulf and destroy bacteria and other foreign particles through a process called phagocytosis. Neutrophils are also highly mobile and can move towards sites of infection or inflammation in the body. Therefore, neutrophil is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 3. 

    Monocytes and lymphocytes

    • Contain hemoglobin

    • Are thrombocytes

    • Are nongranular leukocytes

    • Are hemostatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Are nongranular leukocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes and lymphocytes are nongranular leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are an essential part of the immune system and play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and diseases. Nongranular leukocytes, such as monocytes and lymphocytes, lack visible granules in their cytoplasm. They are responsible for various immune responses, including the production of antibodies, phagocytosis, and the regulation of immune reactions. Their nongranular nature distinguishes them from granular leukocytes, such as neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils, which have visible granules in their cytoplasm.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is most descriptive of a reticulocyte?

    • Thrombocyte

    • Granulocyte

    • Platelet

    • Immature erythrocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Immature erythrocyte
    Explanation
    A reticulocyte is an immature erythrocyte, which means it is a developing red blood cell that has not yet fully matured. It still contains remnants of its nucleus and other organelles, which are gradually expelled as it matures into a fully functional red blood cell. This process is important for the production of new red blood cells in the body. Therefore, "immature erythrocyte" is the most descriptive term for a reticulocyte.

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  • 5. 

    Rapid breakdown of this cell causes jaundice

    • Granulocyte

    • Platelet

    • Red blood cell

    • Lymphocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cell
    Explanation
    The rapid breakdown of red blood cells can cause jaundice. Jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin and eyes due to an excess of bilirubin, a yellow pigment, in the blood. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, which carries oxygen throughout the body. When these cells break down, hemoglobin is released and converted into bilirubin. If the breakdown is too rapid, the liver may not be able to process the bilirubin efficiently, leading to its accumulation and resulting in jaundice. Therefore, the rapid breakdown of red blood cells is a plausible explanation for the occurrence of jaundice.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following causes granulocytopenia?

    • Myelosuppression

    • Hemolysis

    • Infection

    • Petechiae

    Correct Answer
    A. Myelosuppression
    Explanation
    Myelosuppression is the correct answer because it refers to the suppression of bone marrow activity, leading to a decrease in the production of granulocytes, which are a type of white blood cell. Granulocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low level of granulocytes in the blood, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Hemolysis, infection, and petechiae are not directly related to the cause of granulocytopenia.

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  • 7. 

    Thrombocytopenia

    • Refers to deficiency of platelets

    • Is caused by myelopression

    • May be accompanied by aplastic anemia and granulocytopenia

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Thrombocytopenia refers to a deficiency of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. It can be caused by myelopression, which is the suppression of bone marrow activity. Thrombocytopenia may also be accompanied by aplastic anemia, a condition where the bone marrow does not produce enough new blood cells, and granulocytopenia, a decrease in the number of a type of white blood cells called granulocytes. Therefore, all of the above options are correct explanations for thrombocytopenia.

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  • 8. 

    An infection is most often accompanied by

    • Thrombocytopenia

    • Anemia

    • Jaundice

    • Leukocytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukocytosis
    Explanation
    Leukocytosis is the correct answer because it refers to an increase in the number of white blood cells in the body. During an infection, the body's immune system responds by producing more white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. Therefore, leukocytosis is commonly seen as a result of an infection. Thrombocytopenia refers to a decrease in platelet count, anemia refers to a decrease in red blood cell count, and jaundice refers to a yellowing of the skin and eyes due to liver dysfunction. While these conditions can sometimes be associated with an infection, leukocytosis is the most consistent and reliable indicator.

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  • 9. 

    Heme contains

    • Albumin

    • Plasma

    • Iron

    • Erythropoietin

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Heme is a component of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. It is made up of a complex organic molecule called porphyrin, which binds to an iron ion in the center. This iron ion is crucial for the ability of hemoglobin to bind and release oxygen. Therefore, heme contains iron.

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  • 10. 

    Erythropoietin

    • Is secreted by the kidneys

    • Stimulates th bone marrow to produce RBCs

    • Is released in response to hypoxemia

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Erythropoietin is a hormone that is secreted by the kidneys. Its main function is to stimulate the bone marrow to produce red blood cells (RBCs). Additionally, erythropoietin is released in response to hypoxemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of oxygen in the blood. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct, as erythropoietin is indeed secreted by the kidneys, stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs, and is released in response to hypoxemia.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?

    • Hypoxemia

    • Low blood volume

    • Low plasma pH (acidosis)

    • Infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxemia
    Explanation
    Hypoxemia, or low oxygen levels in the blood, is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. When oxygen levels in the blood are low, such as in cases of high altitude or lung disease, the kidneys detect this and release erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells. This helps to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and restore normal oxygen levels in the body.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen?

    • Thrombolytic agents

    • Anticoagulants

    • Clotting factors

    • Plasminogen activators

    Correct Answer
    A. Clotting factors
    Explanation
    Prothrombin and fibrinogen are proteins that play a crucial role in the process of blood clotting. They are known as clotting factors because they are directly involved in the formation of blood clots. Thrombolytic agents, on the other hand, are medications that dissolve blood clots, while anticoagulants prevent the formation of blood clots. Plasminogen activators are enzymes that convert plasminogen into plasmin, which helps break down blood clots. Therefore, the best description for prothrombin and fibrinogen is "clotting factors."

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  • 13. 

    Hemolysis causes

    • Leukocytes

    • Acidosis

    • Hyperbilirubinemia

    • A prolonged prothrombin time and bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperbilirubinemia
    Explanation
    Hemolysis refers to the breakdown of red blood cells, which can lead to the release of hemoglobin. Hyperbilirubinemia is a condition characterized by an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can occur as a result of hemolysis. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when hemoglobin is broken down. Therefore, in the context of hemolysis, it is likely that the increased breakdown of red blood cells leads to an accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, causing hyperbilirubinemia.

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  • 14. 

    An antithrombin agent

    • Causes jaundice

    • Prevents blood coagulation

    • Fights infection

    • Stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents blood coagulation
    Explanation
    An antithrombin agent is a substance that inhibits or prevents blood coagulation. This means that it helps to prevent the formation of blood clots in the body. Blood coagulation is a natural process that helps to stop bleeding, but when it occurs inappropriately or excessively, it can lead to serious health issues such as deep vein thrombosis or stroke. Therefore, an antithrombin agent is used to regulate and prevent abnormal blood clotting, ensuring proper blood flow and reducing the risk of clot-related complications.

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  • 15. 

    TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

    • Prevents blood coagulation

    • Causes thrombocytopenia

    • Dissolves blood clots

    • Prevents the formation of a platelet plug

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissolves blood clots
    Explanation
    TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is a substance that is known to dissolve blood clots. When there is a blood clot in the body, TPA activates the conversion of plasminogen into plasmin, which is an enzyme that breaks down the fibrin mesh of the clot. This process helps to restore blood flow by dissolving the clot and preventing further blockage. Therefore, the correct answer is that TPA dissolves blood clots.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is vitamin K-dependent?

    • Heparin

    • Erythropoietin

    • Intrinsic factor

    • Prothrombin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombin
    Explanation
    Prothrombin is the correct answer because it is a protein involved in blood clotting, and its production is dependent on vitamin K. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the activation of prothrombin, which then leads to the formation of blood clots. Without sufficient vitamin K, the production of prothrombin is impaired, leading to an increased risk of bleeding.

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  • 17. 

    Intrinsic Factor

    • Is necessary for the synthesis of prothrombin

    • Is a clotting factor

    • Is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12

    • Stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12
    Explanation
    Intrinsic Factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 is a vital nutrient that is required for the production of red blood cells, DNA synthesis, and maintenance of the nervous system. However, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed directly from the diet. Intrinsic Factor, which is produced by the stomach lining, binds to vitamin B12 in the stomach and allows it to be absorbed in the small intestine. Without Intrinsic Factor, vitamin B12 cannot be properly absorbed, leading to a deficiency and potential health problems.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is called extrinsic factor?

    • Vitamin B12

    • Iron

    • Heme

    • Prothrombin

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B12
    Explanation
    Extrinsic factors are external substances or elements that are necessary for the proper functioning of the body. In this case, vitamin B12 is considered an extrinsic factor because it is not produced by the body and must be obtained from external sources such as food or supplements. Iron, heme, and prothrombin are not considered extrinsic factors as they are either produced by the body or are components of the body's natural processes.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is most associated with a blood clot?

    • Agglutination

    • Hemophilia

    • Fibrin strands

    • Rh factor

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrin strands
    Explanation
    Fibrin strands are most associated with a blood clot. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, the body initiates a process called coagulation, where a series of chemical reactions occur to form a clot. Fibrinogen, a soluble protein in the blood, is converted into insoluble fibrin strands by an enzyme called thrombin. These fibrin strands form a mesh-like structure that traps platelets and other blood cells, forming a clot to prevent excessive bleeding. Therefore, fibrin strands are closely associated with the formation of a blood clot.

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  • 20. 

    Which anemia is associated with myelosuppression?

    • Folic acid deficiency

    • Hemplytic

    • Aplastic

    • Sickle cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Aplastic
    Explanation
    Aplastic anemia is associated with myelosuppression, which refers to a decrease in the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow fails to produce enough red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This leads to a decrease in the number of these cells in the bloodstream, causing anemia, increased susceptibility to infections, and bleeding problems. Folic acid deficiency, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia do not typically cause myelosuppression.

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  • 21. 

    Bilirubin is a breakdown product of

    • Leukocytes

    • Neutrophils

    • Red blood cells

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cells
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a breakdown product of red blood cells. Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which carries oxygen throughout the body. When red blood cells break down, the hemoglobin is converted into bilirubin. Bilirubin is then processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. High levels of bilirubin can indicate liver or blood disorders.

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  • 22. 

    Leukocytosis and leukopenia are

    • Increased numbers of white blood cells

    • Decreased number of white blood cells

    • Abnormal numbers of white blood cells

    • The result of myelosuppression

    Correct Answer
    A. Abnormal numbers of white blood cells
    Explanation
    Leukocytosis and leukopenia refer to abnormal numbers of white blood cells in the body. Leukocytosis indicates an increased number of white blood cells, while leukopenia signifies a decreased number of white blood cells. These conditions can be indicative of various underlying health issues, such as infections, inflammation, autoimmune disorders, or bone marrow disorders. The term "abnormal" encompasses both increased and decreased numbers, making it the correct answer choice. Myelosuppression, on the other hand, refers specifically to a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow and is not synonymous with leukocytosis or leukopenia.

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  • 23. 

    A decrease in the numbers of erythrocytes is called

    • Granulocytopenia

    • Thrombocytopenia

    • Polycythemia

    • Anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anemia
    Explanation
    Anemia is the correct answer because it refers to a decrease in the number of erythrocytes, which are red blood cells. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as blood loss, decreased production of red blood cells, or increased destruction of red blood cells. Anemia can result in symptoms like fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, and polycythemia do not specifically refer to a decrease in erythrocytes, but rather involve a decrease in other types of blood cells or an increase in the number of red blood cells.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is descriptive of a neutrophil?

    • Platelet

    • Phagocyte

    • Plasma protein

    • Oxygen carrier

    Correct Answer
    A. Phagocyte
    Explanation
    A neutrophil is a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system's defense against infections. Neutrophils are known as phagocytes because they have the ability to engulf and destroy pathogens, such as bacteria and fungi, through a process called phagocytosis. They are highly specialized in detecting and eliminating foreign substances, making them an essential component of the body's immune response.

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  • 25. 

    What is the normal pH of blood?

    • 7.00 to 7.45

    • 7.35 to 7.45

    • 6.92 to 7.25

    • 7.45 to 7.80

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35 to 7.45
    Explanation
    The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45. This range is considered slightly alkaline or basic. Maintaining a stable blood pH is crucial for the proper functioning of the body's cells and organs. Deviations from this range can lead to health issues, such as acidosis or alkalosis, which can disrupt various physiological processes. Therefore, it is important for the blood pH to remain within this narrow range for optimal health and homeostasis.

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  • 26. 

    This cell is the "parent cell" of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow

    • Erythrocyte

    • Leukocyte

    • Stem cell

    • Megakaryocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Stem cell
    Explanation
    The stem cell is the "parent cell" because it is capable of differentiating into all three types of blood cells (erythrocyte, leukocyte, and megakaryocyte) that are produced in the bone marrow. Stem cells have the unique ability to self-renew and give rise to specialized cells, making them crucial in the process of blood cell production.

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  • 27. 

    What is the name of the condition that is caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?

    • Leukopenia

    • Anemia

    • Jaundice

    • Kernicterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Anemia
    Explanation
    Anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in iron. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood. When there is a lack of iron, the body is unable to produce enough healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. Symptoms of anemia include fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs?

    • Hemolysis

    • Coagulation

    • Crenation

    • Hemostasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolysis
    Explanation
    Hemolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the rupture or destruction of red blood cells (RBCs), which can occur due to various causes such as immune reactions, infections, or certain medical conditions. Agglutination, on the other hand, is the clumping together of RBCs, which can be caused by antibodies binding to antigens on the surface of the cells. While agglutination can be a result of certain immune reactions, it does not directly cause the destruction or rupture of RBCs, which is characteristic of hemolysis. Therefore, hemolysis is the most appropriate answer in this context.

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  • 29. 

    Why may a person who has had a gastrectomy (removal of the stomach) develop pernicious anemia?

    • The lack of gastric hydrochloric acid causes myelosuppression

    • Iron absorption is impaired

    • A major source of erythropoietin has been removed

    • Vitamin B12 absorption is impaired because of the lack of intrinsic factor

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B12 absorption is impaired because of the lack of intrinsic factor
    Explanation
    A person who has had a gastrectomy (removal of the stomach) may develop pernicious anemia because the lack of intrinsic factor, which is produced in the stomach, impairs the absorption of vitamin B12. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be properly absorbed, leading to a deficiency and the development of pernicious anemia.

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  • 30. 

    What is the breakdown product of heme?

    • Thrombin

    • Plasmin

    • Bilirubin

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilirubin
    Explanation
    Heme is broken down into bilirubin. This breakdown product occurs during the normal breakdown of red blood cells in the liver. Bilirubin is then processed by the liver and excreted in bile, which gives feces its characteristic brown color.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is descriptive of hyperbilirubiemia and kernicterus?

    • Flushed

    • Yellow

    • Blue

    • Ecchymotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow
    Explanation
    Hyperbilirubinemia refers to an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause a yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes known as jaundice. Kernicterus is a severe condition that occurs when high levels of bilirubin cross the blood-brain barrier and accumulate in the brain, leading to neurological damage. Therefore, the correct answer "yellow" describes both hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus as they are characterized by a yellow coloration of the skin and eyes.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following can a person with type O blood safely recieve?

    • A type

    • B type

    • AB type

    • O type

    Correct Answer
    A. O type
    Explanation
    A person with type O blood can safely receive O type blood because type O blood is considered the universal donor. This means that it does not have any antigens on the red blood cells that can trigger an immune response in the recipient. Therefore, it can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an adverse reaction.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc, hemoglobin, and erythropoietin?

    • Granulocyte

    • Thrombocyte

    • "poly"

    • Red blood cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cell
    Explanation
    A biconcave disc shape is a characteristic of red blood cells. Hemoglobin is the protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is red blood cell as it is directly related to all the given terms.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is related to a white blood cell?

    • Phagocytosis

    • Oxygen transport

    • Hemoglobin

    • Bilirubin

    Correct Answer
    A. Phagocytosis
    Explanation
    Phagocytosis is the process by which white blood cells engulf and destroy foreign particles, such as bacteria or dead cells, in order to protect the body from infection and disease. This process is a key function of white blood cells and is essential for the immune system's defense mechanisms. Oxygen transport, hemoglobin, and bilirubin are not directly related to white blood cells and their functions.

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  • 35. 

    Which type of blood is called the universal recipient?

    • O

    • AB

    • A

    • B

    Correct Answer
    A. AB
    Explanation
    AB blood type is called the universal recipient because individuals with this blood type can receive blood from any other blood type without experiencing an immune reaction. This is because AB blood type contains both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, making it compatible with all other blood types.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of the platelet?

    • Granulocyte

    • Bilirubin

    • O2 transport

    • Stickiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Stickiness
    Explanation
    Platelets are small, disc-shaped cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. One of their key characteristics is their stickiness. When blood vessels are damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and clump together, forming a plug to stop bleeding. This stickiness is facilitated by the presence of specific molecules on the surface of platelets, which allow them to bind to each other and to the damaged blood vessel walls. Therefore, stickiness is a characteristic feature of platelets.

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  • 37. 

    Kernicterus is most related to elevated plasma levels of this substance.

    • Iron

    • Bilirubin

    • Fibrinogen

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilirubin
    Explanation
    Kernicterus is a condition characterized by high levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is normally processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. However, in conditions like jaundice or liver disease, bilirubin levels can become elevated. Kernicterus occurs when high levels of bilirubin cross the blood-brain barrier and accumulate in the brain, causing neurological damage. Therefore, bilirubin is the substance most related to elevated plasma levels in Kernicterus.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is most descritive of the physiologic role of the "poly"?

    • Oxygen transport

    • Phagocytosis

    • Bilirubin metabolism

    • Clot dissolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Phagocytosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, such as bacteria and dead cells. The term "poly" is often used to refer to polymorphonuclear leukocytes, which are a type of white blood cell involved in phagocytosis. These cells play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and destroying pathogens. Therefore, the most descriptive physiologic role of the "poly" is phagocytosis.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be deprssed in the myelosuppressed patient?

    • Prothrombin

    • Albumin

    • White blood cells

    • Myelin sheath

    Correct Answer
    A. White blood cells
    Explanation
    In a myelosuppressed patient, the bone marrow is unable to produce enough blood cells, leading to a decrease in their numbers. Among the options provided, white blood cells are most likely to be depressed in this condition. White blood cells play a crucial role in the immune system, fighting off infections and diseases. Therefore, a myelosuppressed patient is likely to have a decreased number of white blood cells, making them more susceptible to infections and compromising their immune response.

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  • 40. 

    To which component of the red blood cell does oxygen loosely bind?

    • Cell membrane

    • Globin portion of the hemoglobin

    • Iron molecule within heme

    • Bilirubin component of the heme

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron molecule within heme
    Explanation
    Oxygen loosely binds to the iron molecule within heme. Heme is a component of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells responsible for carrying oxygen. The iron molecule within heme can bind to oxygen molecules, allowing red blood cells to transport oxygen throughout the body. This binding is reversible, allowing oxygen to be released from the red blood cells when it reaches tissues that need it.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of palsminogen?

    • The blood clots, or coagulates

    • Te blood clot dissolves

    • Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Te blood clot dissolves
    Explanation
    When plasminogen is activated, it is converted into plasmin, which is an enzyme responsible for breaking down blood clots. Therefore, the most likely outcome of plasminogen activation is the dissolution or breakdown of a blood clot.

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  • 42. 

    At the end of 120 days, the red blood cell

    • Is removed from the circulation and broken down

    • Becomes known as a "poly"

    • Becomes known as a reticulocyte

    • Is converted ro fibrin

    Correct Answer
    A. Is removed from the circulation and broken down
    Explanation
    At the end of 120 days, the red blood cell is removed from the circulation and broken down. This is a natural process that occurs in the body. Red blood cells have a limited lifespan, and after about 120 days, they are recognized as old or damaged by the body's immune system. The immune system then removes these cells from circulation and breaks them down. This breakdown process allows for the recycling of components such as iron, which can be used to produce new red blood cells.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause erythroblastosis?

    • The baby is Rh (-) and the mother is Rh (-)

    • The baby is Rh (+) and the mother is Rh (+)

    • The baby is Rh (+) and the mother is Rh (-)

    • The baby is Rh (+) and the mother is type A (+)

    Correct Answer
    A. The baby is Rh (+) and the mother is Rh (-)
    Explanation
    Erythroblastosis, also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, is most likely to occur when the baby is Rh (+) and the mother is Rh (-). This is because if the mother is Rh (-) and the baby is Rh (+), the mother's immune system may produce antibodies against the Rh factor in the baby's blood, leading to destruction of the baby's red blood cells. This condition can cause severe anemia and other complications in the baby.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?

    • High fever

    • Infection

    • Jaundice

    • Bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Bleeding
    Explanation
    Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly. As a result, the main characteristic of hemophilia is excessive and prolonged bleeding, even from minor injuries. This is because the blood lacks certain clotting factors that are necessary for the formation of blood clots. Hemophilia does not typically cause high fever, infection, or jaundice, so the best characterization of its effects is bleeding.

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  • 45. 

    Which function is most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium?

    • Blood coagulation

    • Platelet aggregation

    • Fibrinolysis

    • Blood cell production

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood coagulation
    Explanation
    The function most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium is blood coagulation. Fibrinogen and prothrombin are clotting factors involved in the formation of fibrin, which helps in the clotting process. Calcium is required for the activation of clotting factors and plays a crucial role in the coagulation cascade. Therefore, blood coagulation is the correct answer as it encompasses the process of clot formation and involves the mentioned components.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following conditions is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?

    • Bleeding

    • Infection

    • Jaundice

    • Thrombosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Bleeding
    Explanation
    An overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium (Coumadin) can lead to bleeding. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulant medications that are used to prevent blood clots. However, if the dosage is too high, these medications can thin the blood excessively, leading to excessive bleeding. This can manifest as nosebleeds, easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts or wounds, blood in the urine or stool, or excessive menstrual bleeding. It is important to monitor the dosage of these medications carefully to avoid complications.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is most descriptive of the cause of hemophilia?

    • Dietary-induced

    • Hereditary

    • Drug-induced myelosuppression

    • Anemia of chronic renal failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Hereditary
    Explanation
    Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is passed down from parents to their children. It is caused by a mutation in one of the genes responsible for the production of clotting factors in the blood. This means that individuals with hemophilia have a reduced ability to form blood clots, leading to prolonged bleeding and difficulty in stopping bleeding after an injury. Therefore, the most descriptive cause of hemophilia is hereditary, as it is a condition that is inherited through the genes from one's parents.

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  • 48. 

    What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?

    • Anticoagulant

    • Antiplatelet

    • "clot buster" (thrombolytic)

    • Antihistamine

    Correct Answer
    A. "clot buster" (thrombolytic)
    Explanation
    TPA, also known as tissue plasminogen activator, is commonly referred to as a "clot buster" because it is a type of thrombolytic medication. Thrombolytics are drugs that help dissolve blood clots by activating the body's natural clot-dissolving system. TPA specifically works by converting plasminogen into plasmin, an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein responsible for clot formation. By promoting the breakdown of clots, TPA helps restore blood flow in conditions such as stroke or myocardial infarction. Therefore, "clot buster" is an alternative name for TPA that accurately describes its mechanism of action.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis?

    • Heparin

    • Calcium

    • Hemophilic factor

    • Vitamin k

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin k
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is necessary for prothrombin synthesis. Prothrombin is a protein that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of several blood clotting factors, including prothrombin. It helps in the activation of these clotting factors, which are essential for the formation of blood clots to stop bleeding. Without sufficient vitamin K, the production of prothrombin would be impaired, leading to a decreased ability to form blood clots and an increased risk of excessive bleeding.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 29, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • May 29, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 10, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Nenegto04

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