CDC 3d052 Vol. 1
Settings
- 1.What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
10
- 2.What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
- A.
Homogeneous network.
- B.
Internetwork
- C.
Intranetwork
- D.
Local area network (LAN).
- 3.What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
Internetwork
- B.
Intranetwork
- C.
Homogeneous network
- D.
Heterogeneous network
- 4.What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system
- A.
Internetwork
- B.
Intranetwork
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
- 5.What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local area network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN)
- 6.What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 7.What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 8.How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1,000
- 9.How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1,000
- 10.How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
- 11.How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1,000
- 12.What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities
- A.
A. Local area network (LAN).
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network.
- D.
Enterprise network.
- 13.What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
Media access control address.
- B.
Network server name.
- C.
Subnet mask address.
- D.
Node serial number.
- 14.How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 15.What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000
- B.
01100110
- C.
00001100
- D.
10000001
- 16.What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0
- D.
255.255.255.0
- 17.What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
- 18.How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
- A.
24.
- B.
48
- C.
64
- D.
128
- 19.What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
33
- 20.What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33–1.
- B.
AFI 33–112.
- C.
AFI 33–115v1.
- D.
AFI 29–2603v2.
- 21.According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 22.What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC)
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC).
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).
- 23.What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity
- A.
Fault management server.
- B.
Network managment server
- C.
Performance management server.
- D.
Security management server.
- 24.Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
- B.
Centralized, hybrid and distributed.
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.
- 25.What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
Centralized
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
- 26.What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed
- C.
Hierarchial
- D.
Hybrid
- 27.What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive
- B.
Interactive
- C.
Proactive
- D.
Reactive
- 28.What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
Inactive
- B.
Reactive
- C.
Interactive
- D.
Proactive
- 29.Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing
- B.
Mnitoring and replacing
- C.
Monitoring and tuning
- D.
Analyzing and tuning
- 30.Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
- A.
Tuning
- B.
Analyzing
- C.
Gathering
- D.
Monitoring
- 31.What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
Configuration
- B.
Performance
- C.
Accounting
- D.
Security
- 32.What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
Fault parameters
- B.
Tolerance parameters
- C.
Low-level software alarms
- D.
Low-level hardware alarms
- 33.Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
- A.
Session
- B.
Transport
- C.
Presentation
- D.
Application
- 34.What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
- A.
Object identifier
- B.
Network device map
- C.
Network device map
- D.
Managment information base
- 35.What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
Managment
- B.
Private
- C.
Directory
- D.
Experimental
- 36.What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
Primary domain controller (PDC)
- B.
Backup domain controller
- C.
Manager
- D.
Agent
- 37.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
- 38.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
- 39.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
- 40.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
- 41.What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
- A.
Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
Nieghbor probe.
- C.
Containment probe. Containment probe.
- D.
System information probe.
- 42.What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Map console.
- D.
Domain manager.
- 43.What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Probes.
- D.
Consoles.
- 44.What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
- A.
Compound events, alarm, and trend.
- B.
Compound events, problems, and network.
- C.
Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.
- D.
Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
- 45.What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events? a. Blue. b. Orange. c. Purple. d. Yellow.
- A.
Blue.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
Purple.
- D.
Yellow.
- 46.How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
- A.
7.
- B.
14.
- C.
19.
- D.
21.
- 47.What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software? a. Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). b. Protocol analyzer. c. Network root router. d. Windows advanced server.
- A.
Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).
- B.
Protocol analyzer.
- C.
Network root router.
- D.
Windows advanced server.
- 48.What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 49.What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 50.What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 51.What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 52.What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
- A.
Authentication.
- B.
Recertification.
- C.
Accreditation.
- D.
Identification.
- 53.What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
- A.
Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.
- B.
Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.
- C.
Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.
- D.
Something you know, something you have, or something are.
- 54.Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you
- A.
Know.
- B.
Have.
- C.
Need.
- D.
Read.
- 55.The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
- A.
6.
- B.
7.
- C.
8.
- D.
9.
- 56.What regulation covers remanence security?
- A.
AFPD 33-2.
- B.
AFSSI 8580.
- C.
AFSSI 5020.
- D.
AFI 33-115v1
- 57.Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered
- A.
Classified.
- B.
Volatile.
- C.
Sensitive.
- D.
Sanitized.
- 58.Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
- A.
700.
- B.
701.
- C.
711.
- D.
712.
- 59.Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
- A.
Information assurance officer (IAO).
- B.
Designated approval authority (DAA).
- C.
Information system security officer.
- D.
Information owner.
- 60.What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
- A.
Destroying.
- B.
Degaussing.
- C.
Sanitizing.
- D.
Overwriting.
- 61.What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
- A.
Destroying.
- B.
Degaussing.
- C.
Sanitizing.
- D.
Overwriting.
- 62.What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?
- A.
Degausser
- B.
Degaussing.
- C.
Destroying.
- D.
Sanitizing.
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