CDC 3d052 Vol. 1

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  • 1/62 Questions

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system

    • Internetwork
    • Intranetwork
    • Homogeneous network.
    • Heterogeneous network.
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Fundamentals Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

CDC 3D052 Vol. 1 is designed to assess fundamental knowledge of computer networking, focusing on network types, configurations, and geographical distinctions. It is essential for learners aiming to understand basic networking concepts and protocols.

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  • 2. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-250
    Explanation
    A multi-server network typically consists of multiple servers that are connected together to provide services and resources to multiple users. The range of 50-250 suggests that there are a significant number of users in the network, but not an overwhelming number. This range allows for a manageable number of users while still providing scalability and flexibility for the network to handle a larger number of users if needed.

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  • 3. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Homogeneous network

    • Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. The systems may use different protocols to communicate with each other, requiring special configurations and compatibility measures. This type of network environment is common in large organizations or enterprises that have acquired different technologies over time and need to integrate them into a single network.

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  • 4. 

    How many users are in a single-server network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-50
    Explanation
    A single-server network typically refers to a network where there is only one server that handles all the network requests and services. The range of 10-50 users suggests that this type of network can support a relatively small number of users. Having too few users (2-10) may not justify the need for a dedicated server, while having too many users (50-250, 250-1,000) would likely require a more robust network infrastructure with multiple servers. Therefore, the range of 10-50 users is the most appropriate for a single-server network.

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  • 5. 

    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 250-1,000
    Explanation
    A multi-server high-speed backbone network typically caters to a large number of users due to its capacity and speed. The range of 250-1,000 users suggests that there can be a substantial number of users connected to this network. This range allows for scalability and the ability to handle a significant amount of traffic and data transmission.

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  • 6. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Trap
    Explanation
    A trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager. It is used to inform the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get, Set, and GetNext, which are initiated by the manager to gather information or make changes, a Trap message is sent by the agent without any request from the manager.

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  • 7. 

    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you

    • Know.

    • Have.

    • Need.

    • Read.

    Correct Answer
    A. Know.
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide information that they know, such as a password or a secret answer to a security question. This method relies on the user's memory and is commonly used in online accounts and password-based systems. It is considered one of the three factors of authentication, along with something the user has (like a smart card or a fingerprint) and something the user is (like biometric data).

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  • 8. 

    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • Network control center (NCC)

    • Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • Network operations center (NOSC).

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) provides reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring that it is functioning properly and securely. The NCC is staffed with trained professionals who are able to troubleshoot and resolve any network issues that may arise. They also implement security measures to protect the network from unauthorized access and ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted. The NCC plays a crucial role in providing reliable and secure network services to base level customers.

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  • 9. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

    • Homogeneous network.

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Local area network (LAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely communicate and share resources. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is limited to a single organization. This type of network is commonly used to ensure the privacy and security of sensitive data within a company.

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  • 10. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • Configuration

    • Performance

    • Accounting

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security in network management involves implementing measures to protect the network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This includes setting up firewalls, implementing access control mechanisms, encryption, and authentication protocols, among other security measures, to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and protect against potential threats and attacks.

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  • 11. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 5

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is 2. This is because a network requires at least two devices to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, resulting in no network. Therefore, a minimum of two computers is necessary for a computer network to function.

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  • 12. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address.

    • Network server name.

    • Subnet mask address.

    • Node serial number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address.
    Explanation
    A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on a physically connected network. It is used to identify network nodes, such as computers or devices, on the network. The MAC address is a 48-bit number that is assigned by the manufacturer and is embedded in the network interface card (NIC) of the device. It allows the network to distinguish between different devices and enables communication between them.

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  • 13. 

    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • 10

    • 29

    • 30

    • 33

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 14. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The Get message in SNMP is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. This message is sent by the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent, and it asks for the value of a particular variable or object in the device's management information base (MIB). The Get message allows the manager to retrieve specific data from the agent, such as the status of a network interface or the amount of available memory.

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  • 15. 

    What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?

    • Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.

    • Something you know, something you have, or something are.

    Correct Answer
    A. Something you know, something you have, or something are.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This is because these are the three primary ways to authenticate oneself. "Something you know" refers to knowledge-based authentication, such as passwords or PINs. "Something you have" refers to possession-based authentication, such as physical tokens or smart cards. "Something you are" refers to biometric authentication, such as fingerprints, voiceprints, or retinal scans. These three factors provide a multi-factor authentication approach, enhancing security by requiring multiple types of evidence for authentication.

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  • 16. 

    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    A peer-to-peer network is a decentralized network where all computers or devices are equal and can act as both clients and servers. In such networks, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This limited number of users ensures efficient communication and sharing of resources among the participants. With a small number of users, it becomes easier to manage and maintain the network, ensuring smooth operation and better performance.

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  • 17. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits. In the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a part of the IP address. The IP address is a unique identifier assigned to each device connected to a network. It is divided into four parts, separated by periods, with each part represented by an octet. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 18. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • 01100000

    • 01100110

    • 00001100

    • 10000001

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.

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  • 19. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP, the "Set" message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the manager to change the configuration or parameters of the network device being managed. The "Set" message is typically sent from the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent, instructing it to update specific variables or settings.

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  • 20. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • Centralized

    • Distributed.

    • Hierarchical.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    In a centralized network architecture, all network management duties are carried out by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that the network management platform is responsible for managing and controlling all aspects of the network from one central location. This can provide better control and coordination of network resources, as well as easier troubleshooting and maintenance.

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  • 21. 

    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

    • Tuning

    • Analyzing

    • Gathering

    • Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it refers to the function of performance management that tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network. Monitoring involves continuously observing and recording network activities, such as traffic flow, bandwidth usage, and device performance, to gather data and identify any issues or trends. This data can then be used to analyze network performance, make informed decisions, and optimize network resources.

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  • 22. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • Global area network (GAN)

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network. (MAN)

    • Wide area network. (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of buildings in close proximity. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments to connect computers, printers, and other devices. They provide fast and reliable communication between connected devices, allowing users to share resources, such as files and printers, and access the internet. Compared to other options listed, a LAN is the most appropriate choice for a network serving users within a confined geographical area.

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  • 23. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network (GAN).

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN).
    Explanation
    A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) or metropolitan area networks (MANs) which have limited coverage, a GAN can span across multiple countries or continents, providing connectivity on a global scale. This makes it the most suitable option for linking networks that are located in different parts of the world.

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  • 24. 

    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is considered to be at Tier 1 according to the Air Force network structure. This means that it is the highest tier in the network structure and is responsible for overseeing and managing the entire Air Force network. The AFNOSC plays a critical role in ensuring the availability, reliability, and security of the network, as well as providing support and coordination for network operations across the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

    • Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

    • Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

    • Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

    • Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
    Explanation
    The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a central authority or entity. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or devices, allowing for more scalability and fault tolerance.

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  • 26. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities

    • A. Local area network (LAN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • Enterprise network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise network.
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities. It is designed to support the needs of a large organization and provides secure and reliable connectivity for employees to access shared resources and communicate with each other. This type of network typically includes wide area network (WAN) technologies such as leased lines, virtual private networks (VPNs), and internet connections to facilitate communication and data transfer between different locations.

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  • 27. 

    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • AFPD 33–1.

    • AFI 33–112.

    • AFI 33–115v1.

    • AFI 29–2603v2.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33–115v1.
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is an Air Force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's network infrastructure that enables information sharing and communication across the organization. It ensures that the AF-GIG is properly maintained, protected, and accessible to authorized users, supporting the Air Force's mission and operations.

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  • 28. 

    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

    • Degausser

    • Degaussing.

    • Destroying.

    • Sanitizing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing.
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero. This is achieved by applying a reverse magnetizing field. Degaussing effectively removes all data from the magnetic media, making it impossible to retrieve or recover any information stored on it. This process is commonly used to sanitize or destroy sensitive data on magnetic tapes, hard drives, and other magnetic storage devices.

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  • 29. 

    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120.

    • 0.10.230.0.

    • 131.10.230.0.

    • 255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120.
    Explanation
    The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means that the first 24 bits (3 octets) are the network portion and the last 8 bits (1 octet) are the host portion. Therefore, the host id is 0.0.0.120.

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  • 30. 

    What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

    • Media access control (MAC)

    • Connection statistics.

    • Protocol statistics.

    • Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection statistics.
    Explanation
    Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This includes data on the amount of data being transmitted, the number of connections established, and the overall network traffic. By analyzing connection statistics, network administrators can identify potential bottlenecks, optimize network performance, and troubleshoot any issues related to specific nodes.

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  • 31. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying.

    • Degaussing.

    • Sanitizing.

    • Overwriting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying.
    Explanation
    Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to make it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing the media to a point where it cannot be reconstructed or accessed. Degaussing, sanitizing, and overwriting are other methods of data destruction, but they may not completely render the data irretrievable.

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  • 32. 

    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120.

    • 0.10.230.0.

    • 131.10.230.0

    • 255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 131.10.230.0
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In the given IP address 131.10.230.120/24, the subnet mask /24 indicates that the first 24 bits represent the network portion. Therefore, the network ID would be 131.10.230.0, as it has all the host bits set to zero.

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  • 33. 

    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

    • Centralized.

    • Distributed

    • Hierarchial

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Hierarchial
    Explanation
    Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server has control over the entire network and manages the communication and resources between the clients. The clients are organized in a hierarchical structure, where each client may have its own set of clients. This architecture allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as easy scalability and expansion.

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  • 34. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. GetNext
    Explanation
    The GetNext message in SNMP is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next available variable binding in the MIB tree, starting from a specified OID. It is useful when the manager wants to retrieve a range of values or iterate through the MIB tree efficiently.

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  • 35. 

    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity

    • Fault management server.

    • Network managment server

    • Performance management server.

    • Security management server.

    Correct Answer
    A. Network managment server
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It allows for the monitoring, control, and optimization of network resources and devices. The server helps in fault management, performance management, and security management, ensuring that the network operates smoothly and efficiently.

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  • 36. 

    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

    • Authentication.

    • Recertification.

    • Accreditation.

    • Identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication.
    Explanation
    Authentication is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It ensures that the subject is who they claim to be and confirms their identity before granting access to sensitive data or resources. Recertification refers to the process of periodically reevaluating and confirming the eligibility of a subject. Accreditation is the process of certifying or approving an entity's compliance with certain standards. Identification refers to the act of identifying or recognizing a subject.

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  • 37. 

    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

    • 24.

    • 48

    • 64

    • 128

    Correct Answer
    A. 64
    Explanation
    An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. This means that the first 64 bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used to identify the host within that network. The subnet mask helps determine which bits in the IPv6 address belong to the network and which bits belong to the host.

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  • 38. 

    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

    • Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • Backup domain controller

    • Manager

    • Agent

    Correct Answer
    A. Agent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Agent." In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) system, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent runs on the managed device and gathers information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. It then sends this data to the management system for analysis and monitoring purposes.

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  • 39. 

    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • Broker.

    • Clients.

    • Probes.

    • Consoles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Broker. In a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the broker component is responsible for managing the communication between different domain managers. It contains knowledge of available domain managers and facilitates the exchange of information and data between them. Clients are the end-users or applications that interact with the system, probes are used to collect data from different sources, and consoles are the user interfaces for monitoring and managing the system. However, none of these components specifically handle the knowledge of available domain managers like the broker does.

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  • 40. 

    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

    • Monitoring and analyzing

    • Mnitoring and replacing

    • Monitoring and tuning

    • Analyzing and tuning

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring and tuning
    Explanation
    Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of systems or processes. However, the answer states that it can be broken down into two separate functional categories: monitoring and tuning. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance, while tuning involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve performance based on the analysis of the monitored data. Therefore, the answer "Monitoring and tuning" accurately reflects the two main aspects of performance management.

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  • 41. 

    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

    • Fault parameters

    • Tolerance parameters

    • Low-level software alarms

    • Low-level hardware alarms

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance parameters
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors caused by a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected values. If the errors or deviations exceed the tolerance parameters, it indicates a fault or abnormal behavior. By setting tolerance parameters, organizations can effectively monitor and control the performance of systems or processes, ensuring that errors are kept within an acceptable range and identifying when intervention or corrective measures are needed.

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  • 42. 

    The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?

    • 6.

    • 7.

    • 8.

    • 9.

    Correct Answer
    A. 9.
    Explanation
    The Air Force requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long. This means that any password used for the Air Force network must have a minimum length of 9 characters in order to meet their security requirements.

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  • 43. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying.

    • Degaussing.

    • Sanitizing.

    • Overwriting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Destroying." Destroying refers to the process of physically damaging the media, such as breaking, shredding, or incinerating it, in order to render it unusable in a computer. This method ensures that the data on the media becomes irretrievable by any known exploitation methods, as the physical destruction makes it impossible to access or recover the data.

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  • 44. 

    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

    • Session

    • Transport

    • Presentation

    • Application

    Correct Answer
    A. Session
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and manage network devices and services. These protocols rely on the lower layers of the OSI model, such as the Transport layer, to ensure reliable communication and data transfer. Therefore, they are designed to operate above the Session layer.

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  • 45. 

    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

    • Broker.

    • Clients.

    • Map console.

    • Domain manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain manager.
    Explanation
    A domain manager is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application. It is responsible for managing and organizing the different domains within the system. It acts as a central hub that coordinates and controls the various components and resources of the application. The domain manager ensures that all the data and information from the different clients and brokers are properly collected, processed, and presented in the SMARTS application. It plays a crucial role in the overall functioning and effectiveness of the automated report tracking system.

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  • 46. 

    What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

    • Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • Connection statistics.

    • Protocol statistics.

    • Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocol statistics.
    Explanation
    Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This includes data such as the number of packets transmitted and received, the number of errors encountered, and the overall efficiency of the protocol. By analyzing these statistics, network administrators can identify any issues or bottlenecks in the network and take appropriate actions to optimize its performance.

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  • 47. 

    What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • Inactive

    • Interactive

    • Proactive

    • Reactive

    Correct Answer
    A. Interactive
    Explanation
    When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This means that you are actively engaging with the network, analyzing data, and taking necessary actions to resolve issues. The interactive level involves direct involvement and intervention by the network manager to ensure smooth operation and efficient problem-solving.

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  • 48. 

    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

    • Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • Nieghbor probe.

    • Containment probe. Containment probe.

    • System information probe.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nieghbor probe.
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is designed to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network, providing information about their connectivity and relationships. This type of probe is commonly used in network management systems to gather data about the network topology and ensure proper functioning of the network.

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  • 49. 

    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events? a. Blue. b. Orange. c. Purple. d. Yellow.

    • Blue.

    • Orange.

    • Purple.

    • Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Purple. In the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS), the alarm log that indicates one or more events is colored purple.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Big7toyota

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