CDC 3d052 Vol. 1

62 Questions | Total Attempts: 84

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3d052 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 2. 
    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
    • A. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • B. 

      Internetwork

    • C. 

      Intranetwork

    • D. 

      Local area network (LAN).

  • 3. 
    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    • A. 

      Internetwork

    • B. 

      Intranetwork

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network

  • 4. 
    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system
    • A. 

      Internetwork

    • B. 

      Intranetwork

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network.

  • 5. 
    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN)

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN)

  • 6. 
    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 7. 
    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 8. 
    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1,000

  • 9. 
    How many users are in a single-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1,000

  • 10. 
    How many users are in a multi-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1000

  • 11. 
    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
    • A. 

      2-10

    • B. 

      10-50

    • C. 

      50-250

    • D. 

      250-1,000

  • 12. 
    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities
    • A. 

      A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C. 

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • D. 

      Enterprise network.

  • 13. 
    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
    • A. 

      Media access control address.

    • B. 

      Network server name.

    • C. 

      Subnet mask address.

    • D. 

      Node serial number.

  • 14. 
    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 15. 
    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    • A. 

      01100000

    • B. 

      01100110

    • C. 

      00001100

    • D. 

      10000001

  • 16. 
    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0.

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 17. 
    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0.

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0.

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0.

  • 18. 
    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 19. 
    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      29

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      33

  • 20. 
    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33–1.

    • B. 

      AFI 33–112.

    • C. 

      AFI 33–115v1.

    • D. 

      AFI 29–2603v2.

  • 21. 
    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 22. 
    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
    • A. 

      Network control center (NCC)

    • B. 

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • C. 

      Network operations center (NOSC).

    • D. 

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

  • 23. 
    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity
    • A. 

      Fault management server.

    • B. 

      Network managment server

    • C. 

      Performance management server.

    • D. 

      Security management server.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

    • B. 

      Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

    • C. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

    • D. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

  • 25. 
    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Hierarchical.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 26. 
    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    • A. 

      Centralized.

    • B. 

      Distributed

    • C. 

      Hierarchial

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 27. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Interactive

    • C. 

      Proactive

    • D. 

      Reactive

  • 28. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Reactive

    • C. 

      Interactive

    • D. 

      Proactive

  • 29. 
    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B. 

      Mnitoring and replacing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning

  • 30. 
    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
    • A. 

      Tuning

    • B. 

      Analyzing

    • C. 

      Gathering

    • D. 

      Monitoring

  • 31. 
    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration

    • B. 

      Performance

    • C. 

      Accounting

    • D. 

      Security

  • 32. 
    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms

    • D. 

      Low-level hardware alarms

  • 33. 
    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
    • A. 

      Session

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Application

  • 34. 
    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
    • A. 

      Object identifier

    • B. 

      Network device map

    • C. 

      Network device map

    • D. 

      Managment information base

  • 35. 
    What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    • A. 

      Managment

    • B. 

      Private

    • C. 

      Directory

    • D. 

      Experimental

  • 36. 
    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Agent

  • 37. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 38. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 39. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 40. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 41. 
    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
    • A. 

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B. 

      Nieghbor probe.

    • C. 

      Containment probe. Containment probe.

    • D. 

      System information probe.

  • 42. 
    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
    • A. 

      Broker.

    • B. 

      Clients.

    • C. 

      Map console.

    • D. 

      Domain manager.

  • 43. 
    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker.

    • B. 

      Clients.

    • C. 

      Probes.

    • D. 

      Consoles.

  • 44. 
    What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
    • A. 

      Compound events, alarm, and trend.

    • B. 

      Compound events, problems, and network.

    • C. 

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.

    • D. 

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

  • 45. 
    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events? a. Blue. b. Orange. c. Purple. d. Yellow.
    • A. 

      Blue.

    • B. 

      Orange.

    • C. 

      Purple.

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 46. 
    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    • A. 

      7.

    • B. 

      14.

    • C. 

      19.

    • D. 

      21.

  • 47. 
    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software? a. Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). b. Protocol analyzer. c. Network root router. d. Windows advanced server.
    • A. 

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer.

    • C. 

      Network root router.

    • D. 

      Windows advanced server.

  • 48. 
    What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 49. 
    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 50. 
    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 51. 
    What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 52. 
    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
    • A. 

      Authentication.

    • B. 

      Recertification.

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Identification.

  • 53. 
    What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
    • A. 

      Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • B. 

      Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • C. 

      Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.

    • D. 

      Something you know, something you have, or something are.

  • 54. 
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you
    • A. 

      Know.

    • B. 

      Have.

    • C. 

      Need.

    • D. 

      Read.

  • 55. 
    The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      9.

  • 56. 
    What regulation covers remanence security?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33-2.

    • B. 

      AFSSI 8580.

    • C. 

      AFSSI 5020.

    • D. 

      AFI 33-115v1

  • 57. 
    Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered
    • A. 

      Classified.

    • B. 

      Volatile.

    • C. 

      Sensitive.

    • D. 

      Sanitized.

  • 58. 
    Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      700.

    • B. 

      701.

    • C. 

      711.

    • D. 

      712.

  • 59. 
    Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      Information assurance officer (IAO).

    • B. 

      Designated approval authority (DAA).

    • C. 

      Information system security officer.

    • D. 

      Information owner.

  • 60. 
    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    • A. 

      Destroying.

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Sanitizing.

    • D. 

      Overwriting.

  • 61. 
    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    • A. 

      Destroying.

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Sanitizing.

    • D. 

      Overwriting.

  • 62. 
    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?
    • A. 

      Degausser

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Destroying.

    • D. 

      Sanitizing.