CDC 3d052 Vol. 1

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| By Big7toyota

Big7toyota

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 102

Questions: 62 | Attempts: 102 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  5
- D.
  
  10
Correct Answer
B. 2

Explanation
The minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is 2. This is because a network requires at least two devices to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, resulting in no network. Therefore, a minimum of two computers is necessary for a computer network to function.

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2.

What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
- A.
  
  Homogeneous network.
- B.
  
  Internetwork
- C.
  
  Intranetwork
- D.
  
  Local area network (LAN).
Correct Answer
C. Intranetwork

Explanation
An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely communicate and share resources. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is limited to a single organization. This type of network is commonly used to ensure the privacy and security of sensitive data within a company.

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3.

What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
  
  Internetwork
- B.
  
  Intranetwork
- C.
  
  Homogeneous network
- D.
  
  Heterogeneous network
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous network

Explanation
A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. The systems may use different protocols to communicate with each other, requiring special configurations and compatibility measures. This type of network environment is common in large organizations or enterprises that have acquired different technologies over time and need to integrate them into a single network.

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4.

What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system
- A.
  
  Internetwork
- B.
  
  Intranetwork
- C.
  
  Homogeneous network.
- D.
  
  Heterogeneous network.
Correct Answer
C. Homogeneous network.

Explanation
A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices in the network are from the same manufacturer or are compatible with each other, allowing for seamless integration and communication. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot since all the components are designed to work together.

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5.

What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
  
  Global area network (GAN)
- B.
  
  Local area network (LAN)
- C.
  
  Metropolitan area network. (MAN)
- D.
  
  Wide area network. (WAN)
Correct Answer
B. Local area network (LAN)

Explanation
A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of buildings in close proximity. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments to connect computers, printers, and other devices. They provide fast and reliable communication between connected devices, allowing users to share resources, such as files and printers, and access the internet. Compared to other options listed, a LAN is the most appropriate choice for a network serving users within a confined geographical area.

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6.

What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
  
  Global area network (GAN).
- B.
  
  Local area network (LAN).
- C.
  
  Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
  
  Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
C. Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

Explanation
A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of communications network that links a broad geographical region, typically covering a city or metropolitan area. It is designed to provide high-speed connectivity and communication services to businesses, organizations, and individuals within the defined area. Unlike a wide area network (WAN), which covers a larger geographical area such as multiple cities or countries, a MAN is more localized and serves a specific region. Therefore, a MAN is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the question of linking a broad geographical region.

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7.

What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
- A.
  
  Global area network (GAN).
- B.
  
  Local area network (LAN).
- C.
  
  Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
  
  Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
A. Global area network (GAN).

Explanation
A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) or metropolitan area networks (MANs) which have limited coverage, a GAN can span across multiple countries or continents, providing connectivity on a global scale. This makes it the most suitable option for linking networks that are located in different parts of the world.

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8.

How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
  
  2-10
- B.
  
  10-50
- C.
  
  50-250
- D.
  
  250-1,000
Correct Answer
A. 2-10

Explanation
A peer-to-peer network is a decentralized network where all computers or devices are equal and can act as both clients and servers. In such networks, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This limited number of users ensures efficient communication and sharing of resources among the participants. With a small number of users, it becomes easier to manage and maintain the network, ensuring smooth operation and better performance.

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9.

How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
  
  2-10
- B.
  
  10-50
- C.
  
  50-250
- D.
  
  250-1,000
Correct Answer
B. 10-50

Explanation
A single-server network typically refers to a network where there is only one server that handles all the network requests and services. The range of 10-50 users suggests that this type of network can support a relatively small number of users. Having too few users (2-10) may not justify the need for a dedicated server, while having too many users (50-250, 250-1,000) would likely require a more robust network infrastructure with multiple servers. Therefore, the range of 10-50 users is the most appropriate for a single-server network.

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10.

How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
  
  2-10
- B.
  
  10-50
- C.
  
  50-250
- D.
  
  250-1000
Correct Answer
C. 50-250

Explanation
A multi-server network typically consists of multiple servers that are connected together to provide services and resources to multiple users. The range of 50-250 suggests that there are a significant number of users in the network, but not an overwhelming number. This range allows for a manageable number of users while still providing scalability and flexibility for the network to handle a larger number of users if needed.

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11.

How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
- A.
  
  2-10
- B.
  
  10-50
- C.
  
  50-250
- D.
  
  250-1,000
Correct Answer
D. 250-1,000

Explanation
A multi-server high-speed backbone network typically caters to a large number of users due to its capacity and speed. The range of 250-1,000 users suggests that there can be a substantial number of users connected to this network. This range allows for scalability and the ability to handle a significant amount of traffic and data transmission.

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12.

What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities
- A.
  
  A. Local area network (LAN).
- B.
  
  Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- C.
  
  Multi-server high-speed backbone network.
- D.
  
  Enterprise network.
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise network.

Explanation
An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities. It is designed to support the needs of a large organization and provides secure and reliable connectivity for employees to access shared resources and communicate with each other. This type of network typically includes wide area network (WAN) technologies such as leased lines, virtual private networks (VPNs), and internet connections to facilitate communication and data transfer between different locations.

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13.

What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
  
  Media access control address.
- B.
  
  Network server name.
- C.
  
  Subnet mask address.
- D.
  
  Node serial number.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control address.

Explanation
A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on a physically connected network. It is used to identify network nodes, such as computers or devices, on the network. The MAC address is a 48-bit number that is assigned by the manufacturer and is embedded in the network interface card (NIC) of the device. It allows the network to distinguish between different devices and enables communication between them.

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14.

How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  8
Correct Answer
B. 4

Explanation
The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits. In the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a part of the IP address. The IP address is a unique identifier assigned to each device connected to a network. It is divided into four parts, separated by periods, with each part represented by an octet. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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15.

What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
  
  01100000
- B.
  
  01100110
- C.
  
  00001100
- D.
  
  10000001
Correct Answer
A. 01100000

Explanation
The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.

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16.

What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
  
  0.0.0.120.
- B.
  
  0.10.230.0.
- C.
  
  131.10.230.0
- D.
  
  255.255.255.0
Correct Answer
C. 131.10.230.0

Explanation
The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In the given IP address 131.10.230.120/24, the subnet mask /24 indicates that the first 24 bits represent the network portion. Therefore, the network ID would be 131.10.230.0, as it has all the host bits set to zero.

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17.

What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
  
  0.0.0.120.
- B.
  
  0.10.230.0.
- C.
  
  131.10.230.0.
- D.
  
  255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.120.

Explanation
The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means that the first 24 bits (3 octets) are the network portion and the last 8 bits (1 octet) are the host portion. Therefore, the host id is 0.0.0.120.

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18.

How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
- A.
  
  24.
- B.
  
  48
- C.
  
  64
- D.
  
  128
Correct Answer
C. 64

Explanation
An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. This means that the first 64 bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used to identify the host within that network. The subnet mask helps determine which bits in the IPv6 address belong to the network and which bits belong to the host.

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19.

What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  29
- C.
  
  30
- D.
  
  33
Correct Answer
D. 33

Explanation
Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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20.

What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
  
  AFPD 33–1.
- B.
  
  AFI 33–112.
- C.
  
  AFI 33–115v1.
- D.
  
  AFI 29–2603v2.
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33–115v1.

Explanation
AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is an Air Force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's network infrastructure that enables information sharing and communication across the organization. It ensures that the AF-GIG is properly maintained, protected, and accessible to authorized users, supporting the Air Force's mission and operations.

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21.

According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
A. 1

Explanation
The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is considered to be at Tier 1 according to the Air Force network structure. This means that it is the highest tier in the network structure and is responsible for overseeing and managing the entire Air Force network. The AFNOSC plays a critical role in ensuring the availability, reliability, and security of the network, as well as providing support and coordination for network operations across the Air Force.

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22.

What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
- A.
  
  Network control center (NCC)
- B.
  
  Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).
- C.
  
  Network operations center (NOSC).
- D.
  
  Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC)

Explanation
The network control center (NCC) provides reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring that it is functioning properly and securely. The NCC is staffed with trained professionals who are able to troubleshoot and resolve any network issues that may arise. They also implement security measures to protect the network from unauthorized access and ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted. The NCC plays a crucial role in providing reliable and secure network services to base level customers.

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23.

What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity
- A.
  
  Fault management server.
- B.
  
  Network managment server
- C.
  
  Performance management server.
- D.
  
  Security management server.
Correct Answer
B. Network managment server

Explanation
A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It allows for the monitoring, control, and optimization of network resources and devices. The server helps in fault management, performance management, and security management, ensuring that the network operates smoothly and efficiently.

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24.

Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
  
  Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
- B.
  
  Centralized, hybrid and distributed.
- C.
  
  Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.
- D.
  
  Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.
Correct Answer
A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

Explanation
The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a central authority or entity. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or devices, allowing for more scalability and fault tolerance.

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25.

What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
  
  Centralized
- B.
  
  Distributed.
- C.
  
  Hierarchical.
- D.
  
  Hybrid.
Correct Answer
A. Centralized

Explanation
In a centralized network architecture, all network management duties are carried out by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that the network management platform is responsible for managing and controlling all aspects of the network from one central location. This can provide better control and coordination of network resources, as well as easier troubleshooting and maintenance.

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26.

What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
  
  Centralized.
- B.
  
  Distributed
- C.
  
  Hierarchial
- D.
  
  Hybrid
Correct Answer
C. Hierarchial

Explanation
Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server has control over the entire network and manages the communication and resources between the clients. The clients are organized in a hierarchical structure, where each client may have its own set of clients. This architecture allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as easy scalability and expansion.

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27.

What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
  
  Inactive
- B.
  
  Interactive
- C.
  
  Proactive
- D.
  
  Reactive
Correct Answer
B. Interactive

Explanation
When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This means that you are actively engaging with the network, analyzing data, and taking necessary actions to resolve issues. The interactive level involves direct involvement and intervention by the network manager to ensure smooth operation and efficient problem-solving.

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28.

What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
  
  Inactive
- B.
  
  Reactive
- C.
  
  Interactive
- D.
  
  Proactive
Correct Answer
D. Proactive

Explanation
When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, you are working at a proactive level of network management activity. This means that the system is actively monitoring and analyzing the network to identify potential issues before they occur, allowing for preemptive action to be taken.

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29.

Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
  
  Monitoring and analyzing
- B.
  
  Mnitoring and replacing
- C.
  
  Monitoring and tuning
- D.
  
  Analyzing and tuning
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuning

Explanation
Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of systems or processes. However, the answer states that it can be broken down into two separate functional categories: monitoring and tuning. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance, while tuning involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve performance based on the analysis of the monitored data. Therefore, the answer "Monitoring and tuning" accurately reflects the two main aspects of performance management.

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30.

Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
- A.
  
  Tuning
- B.
  
  Analyzing
- C.
  
  Gathering
- D.
  
  Monitoring
Correct Answer
D. Monitoring

Explanation
Monitoring is the correct answer because it refers to the function of performance management that tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network. Monitoring involves continuously observing and recording network activities, such as traffic flow, bandwidth usage, and device performance, to gather data and identify any issues or trends. This data can then be used to analyze network performance, make informed decisions, and optimize network resources.

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31.

What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
  
  Configuration
- B.
  
  Performance
- C.
  
  Accounting
- D.
  
  Security
Correct Answer
D. Security

Explanation
The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security in network management involves implementing measures to protect the network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This includes setting up firewalls, implementing access control mechanisms, encryption, and authentication protocols, among other security measures, to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and protect against potential threats and attacks.

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32.

What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
  
  Fault parameters
- B.
  
  Tolerance parameters
- C.
  
  Low-level software alarms
- D.
  
  Low-level hardware alarms
Correct Answer
B. Tolerance parameters

Explanation
Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors caused by a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected values. If the errors or deviations exceed the tolerance parameters, it indicates a fault or abnormal behavior. By setting tolerance parameters, organizations can effectively monitor and control the performance of systems or processes, ensuring that errors are kept within an acceptable range and identifying when intervention or corrective measures are needed.

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33.

Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
- A.
  
  Session
- B.
  
  Transport
- C.
  
  Presentation
- D.
  
  Application
Correct Answer
A. Session

Explanation
Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and manage network devices and services. These protocols rely on the lower layers of the OSI model, such as the Transport layer, to ensure reliable communication and data transfer. Therefore, they are designed to operate above the Session layer.

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34.

What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
- A.
  
  Object identifier
- B.
  
  Network device map
- C.
  
  Network device map
- D.
  
  Managment information base
Correct Answer
D. Managment information base

Explanation
The correct answer is "Management Information Base". The Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It is a database used by network management systems to monitor and control network devices. The MIB contains information about the device's configuration, performance, and status, allowing network administrators to gather data and make informed decisions about the network's operation and management.

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35.

What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
  
  Managment
- B.
  
  Private
- C.
  
  Directory
- D.
  
  Experimental
Correct Answer
B. Private

Explanation
The area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is called "Private". This area allows vendors to define their own unique labels and objects within the SNMP tree structure for their specific equipment. It provides a way for vendors to customize and extend the functionality of SNMP to meet their specific needs.

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36.

What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
  
  Primary domain controller (PDC)
- B.
  
  Backup domain controller
- C.
  
  Manager
- D.
  
  Agent
Correct Answer
D. Agent

Explanation
The correct answer is "Agent." In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) system, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent runs on the managed device and gathers information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. It then sends this data to the management system for analysis and monitoring purposes.

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37.

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
- A.
  
  Get
- B.
  
  Set
- C.
  
  Trap
- D.
  
  GetNext
Correct Answer
A. Get

Explanation
The Get message in SNMP is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. This message is sent by the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent, and it asks for the value of a particular variable or object in the device's management information base (MIB). The Get message allows the manager to retrieve specific data from the agent, such as the status of a network interface or the amount of available memory.

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38.

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
- A.
  
  Get
- B.
  
  Set
- C.
  
  Trap
- D.
  
  GetNext
Correct Answer
D. GetNext

Explanation
The GetNext message in SNMP is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next available variable binding in the MIB tree, starting from a specified OID. It is useful when the manager wants to retrieve a range of values or iterate through the MIB tree efficiently.

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39.

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
- A.
  
  Get
- B.
  
  Set
- C.
  
  Trap
- D.
  
  GetNext
Correct Answer
B. Set

Explanation
The correct answer is "Set". In SNMP, the "Set" message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the manager to change the configuration or parameters of the network device being managed. The "Set" message is typically sent from the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent, instructing it to update specific variables or settings.

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40.

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
- A.
  
  Get
- B.
  
  Set
- C.
  
  Trap
- D.
  
  GetNext
Correct Answer
C. Trap

Explanation
A trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager. It is used to inform the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get, Set, and GetNext, which are initiated by the manager to gather information or make changes, a Trap message is sent by the agent without any request from the manager.

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41.

What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
- A.
  
  Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
  
  Nieghbor probe.
- C.
  
  Containment probe. Containment probe.
- D.
  
  System information probe.
Correct Answer
B. Nieghbor probe.

Explanation
A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is designed to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network, providing information about their connectivity and relationships. This type of probe is commonly used in network management systems to gather data about the network topology and ensure proper functioning of the network.

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42.

What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
- A.
  
  Broker.
- B.
  
  Clients.
- C.
  
  Map console.
- D.
  
  Domain manager.
Correct Answer
D. Domain manager.

Explanation
A domain manager is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application. It is responsible for managing and organizing the different domains within the system. It acts as a central hub that coordinates and controls the various components and resources of the application. The domain manager ensures that all the data and information from the different clients and brokers are properly collected, processed, and presented in the SMARTS application. It plays a crucial role in the overall functioning and effectiveness of the automated report tracking system.

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43.

What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
  
  Broker.
- B.
  
  Clients.
- C.
  
  Probes.
- D.
  
  Consoles.
Correct Answer
A. Broker.

Explanation
The correct answer is Broker. In a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application, the broker component is responsible for managing the communication between different domain managers. It contains knowledge of available domain managers and facilitates the exchange of information and data between them. Clients are the end-users or applications that interact with the system, probes are used to collect data from different sources, and consoles are the user interfaces for monitoring and managing the system. However, none of these components specifically handle the knowledge of available domain managers like the broker does.

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44.

What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
- A.
  
  Compound events, alarm, and trend.
- B.
  
  Compound events, problems, and network.
- C.
  
  Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.
- D.
  
  Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
Correct Answer
D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

Explanation
The three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications are compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

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45.

What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events? a. Blue. b. Orange. c. Purple. d. Yellow.
- A.
  
  Blue.
- B.
  
  Orange.
- C.
  
  Purple.
- D.
  
  Yellow.
Correct Answer
C. Purple.

Explanation
The correct answer is Purple. In the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS), the alarm log that indicates one or more events is colored purple.

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46.

How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
- A.
  
  7.
- B.
  
  14.
- C.
  
  19.
- D.
  
  21.
Correct Answer
D. 21.

Explanation
The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and metrics to help you analyze and monitor the performance of your network effectively.

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47.

What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software? a. Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). b. Protocol analyzer. c. Network root router. d. Windows advanced server.
- A.
  
  Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).
- B.
  
  Protocol analyzer.
- C.
  
  Network root router.
- D.
  
  Windows advanced server.
Correct Answer
B. Protocol analyzer.

Explanation
A protocol analyzer is a device that provides the capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture, analyze, and decode network traffic to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and develop network applications. It can capture and analyze data packets to identify and resolve network problems, test and validate network protocols, and develop and debug network applications.

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48.

What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
- A.
  
  Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
  
  Connection statistics.
- C.
  
  Protocol statistics.
- D.
  
  Node discovery.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol statistics.

Explanation
Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This includes data such as the number of packets transmitted and received, the number of errors encountered, and the overall efficiency of the protocol. By analyzing these statistics, network administrators can identify any issues or bottlenecks in the network and take appropriate actions to optimize its performance.

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49.

What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
  
  Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
  
  Connection statistics.
- C.
  
  Protocol statistics.
- D.
  
  Node discovery.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

Explanation
Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and error rates of the MAC layer, which is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium. By monitoring MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot issues related to the physical layer of the network.

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50.

What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
- A.
  
  Media access control (MAC)
- B.
  
  Connection statistics.
- C.
  
  Protocol statistics.
- D.
  
  Node discovery.
Correct Answer
D. Node discovery.

Explanation
When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is the process of identifying and mapping all the devices connected to a network. This includes discovering the IP addresses, MAC addresses, and other relevant information about the network nodes. This information is essential for the protocol analyzer to accurately analyze and interpret network traffic.

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CDC 3d052 Vol. 1

What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system

What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

How many users are in a single-server network?

How many users are in a multi-server network?

How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities

What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity

Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?

What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?

What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events? a. Blue. b. Orange. c. Purple. d. Yellow.

How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software? a. Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). b. Protocol analyzer. c. Network root router. d. Windows advanced server.

What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?