CDC 3d051 Vol. 2 UREs

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Knowledge Operations Management VOL. 2 Unit Review Exercises


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) In the context of cognitive hierarchy what information is analyzed to provide meaning and value, or evaluated as to implications for the operation?

    • A.

      Data

    • B.

      Information

    • C.

      Knowledge

    • D.

      Understanding

    Correct Answer
    C. Knowledge
    Explanation
    In the context of cognitive hierarchy, knowledge is the information that is analyzed to provide meaning and value, or evaluated as to implications for the operation. Knowledge refers to the understanding and awareness of facts, information, skills, and concepts that have been acquired through experience, education, and learning. It involves the ability to apply and use information effectively to make judgments, solve problems, and make decisions. In this context, knowledge is the highest level of cognitive processing where information is transformed into meaningful and valuable insights.

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  • 2. 

    (201) In the context of cognitive hierarchy, what is knowledge that has been synthesized and judgment applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation’s inner relationships?

    • A.

      Data

    • B.

      Information

    • C.

      Knowledge

    • D.

      Understanding

    Correct Answer
    D. Understanding
    Explanation
    Understanding is the knowledge that has been synthesized and judgment applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation's inner relationships. It goes beyond simply having information or knowledge about a topic and involves the ability to interpret and make sense of that information in a meaningful way. Understanding allows individuals to grasp the deeper meaning and connections within a situation, enabling them to apply their knowledge effectively and make informed decisions.

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  • 3. 

    (201) Data analyzed describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy?

    • A.

      Data

    • B.

      Information

    • C.

      Knowledge

    • D.

      Understanding

    Correct Answer
    B. Information
    Explanation
    The data analyzed describes the level of information in the cognitive hierarchy. Data is raw and unprocessed facts, while information is the processed and organized data that has meaning and relevance. Therefore, analyzing data helps to transform it into information, which is the next level in the cognitive hierarchy.

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  • 4. 

    (201) Knowledge combined with judgment and experience describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy?

    • A.

      Data

    • B.

      Information

    • C.

      Knowledge

    • D.

      Understanding

    Correct Answer
    D. Understanding
    Explanation
    Understanding is the level of the cognitive hierarchy that combines knowledge with judgment and experience. This level goes beyond simply having information or knowledge about a subject. It involves the ability to interpret and apply that knowledge in a meaningful way, using judgment and experience to make connections and draw conclusions. Understanding requires a deeper level of comprehension and the ability to synthesize information to form a coherent and insightful understanding of a topic.

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  • 5. 

    (202) What objectives will the maturation of the services oriented architecture directly support?

    • A.

      Department of Defense

    • B.

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • C.

      MAJCOM commander.

    • D.

      Wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Secretary of the Air Force
    Explanation
    The maturation of the services oriented architecture will directly support the objectives of the Secretary of the Air Force.

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  • 6. 

    (203) What is a data element?

    • A.

      Personal record of a structure type.

    • B.

      Physical representation of data entity attribute.

    • C.

      Data structure of how data resides in a database.

    • D.

      Specialized format for organizing and storing data

    Correct Answer
    B. Physical representation of data entity attribute.
    Explanation
    A data element refers to the physical representation of a data entity attribute. This means that it represents a specific piece of data within a larger data entity, and it is represented in a physical form such as a variable or field. The other options mentioned in the question, such as personal record of a structure type, data structure of how data resides in a database, and specialized format for organizing and storing data, are not accurate definitions of a data element.

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  • 7. 

    (204) What term is a structured description of records used to describe database objects representations, and the relationships among them?

    • A.

      Model.

    • B.

      Pointer

    • C.

      Schema.

    • D.

      Structure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Schema.
    Explanation
    A schema is a structured description of records used to describe database objects representations, and the relationships among them. It provides a blueprint for organizing and defining the structure of a database, including the tables, fields, data types, constraints, and relationships between tables. The schema helps ensure data integrity and consistency by specifying the rules and structure that the database must adhere to.

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  • 8. 

    (204) When storing data structures a group of ordered data items or elements defines what type of list?

    • A.

      Stack.

    • B.

      Linked.

    • C.

      Sequential.

    • D.

      Hierarchical.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sequential.
    Explanation
    A sequential list is a type of list where the data items are stored in a specific order, with each item having a unique position or index. This type of list allows for efficient access and retrieval of data elements based on their position. In contrast, a stack is a data structure that follows the Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) principle, where the most recently added item is the first one to be removed. A linked list is a data structure where each element contains a reference to the next element, forming a chain-like structure. A hierarchical list is a type of list where the elements are organized in a tree-like structure with parent-child relationships.

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  • 9. 

    9. (204) What term do you used to address the data item instead of addressing the entire size of the data item?

    • A.

      Model.

    • B.

      Pointer.

    • C.

      Schema.

    • D.

      Structure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pointer.
    Explanation
    A pointer is used to address a specific data item instead of addressing the entire size of the data item. Pointers are variables that store memory addresses, allowing direct access to the location of a particular data item in the computer's memory. By using pointers, programmers can efficiently manipulate and retrieve data without having to access the entire data structure. Therefore, a pointer is the correct term to address a specific data item.

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  • 10. 

    (204) What term describes a set of data elements or values organized by using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns?

    • A.

      View.

    • B.

      Build.

    • C.

      Meta-data.

    • D.

      Database table.

    Correct Answer
    D. Database table.
    Explanation
    A database table is a term used to describe a set of data elements or values organized using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns. It is a structured way to store and organize data in a database, allowing for easy retrieval and manipulation of information. A database table is a fundamental component of a database management system and is commonly used to store and manage large amounts of data efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    204) A tree structure within a hierarchical data structure is best used to display database records that have what type of fields?

    • A.

      Reliant.

    • B.

      Repeated.

    • C.

      Structured.

    • D.

      Independent.

    Correct Answer
    B. Repeated.
    Explanation
    A tree structure within a hierarchical data structure is best used to display database records that have repeated fields. This means that there are certain fields in the database records that occur multiple times, creating a repetitive pattern. By organizing the data in a tree structure, the repeated fields can be efficiently represented and accessed, allowing for easy navigation and retrieval of information.

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  • 12. 

    (204) Another data structure name for a network that is similar to a tree structure is called a

    • A.

      Plex.

    • B.

      View.

    • C.

      Model.

    • D.

      Schema.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plex.
  • 13. 

    (205) Who must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated information system?

    • A.

      Database administrator.

    • B.

      Local security officials.

    • C.

      Base IAA security officials.

    • D.

      Functional database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Local security officials.
    Explanation
    Local security officials must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated information system. These officials are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of the system and its components. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the software for any potential vulnerabilities or risks that may compromise the system's security. Therefore, it is their responsibility to conduct the necessary testing and certification before allowing the software to be installed on the system.

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  • 14. 

    205) One method to provide protection of critical data against tampering is to control the physical access to the automated information system itself by

    • A.

      Managing data activities.

    • B.

      Installing keyboard locks.

    • C.

      Performing periodical audits.

    • D.

      Using the least privilege concept.

    Correct Answer
    B. Installing keyboard locks.
  • 15. 

    (205) One method a database administrator can maintain database access control is to limit a user access to

    • A.

      Manage data activities.

    • B.

      Install keyboard locks.

    • C.

      Perform periodical audits.

    • D.

      Use the least privilege concept.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use the least privilege concept.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to use the least privilege concept. This means that a database administrator should only grant users the minimum level of access necessary to perform their required tasks. By doing so, the administrator can reduce the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive data. This approach helps to maintain better control over the database and ensures that users have access only to the resources they need, minimizing potential security vulnerabilities.

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  • 16. 

    (206) The main purpose of a database is to

    • A.

      Process organized data into tables.

    • B.

      Represent data in a quantifiable manner.

    • C.

      Make data independent of its programs.

    • D.

      Identifying data and the corresponding relationships.

    Correct Answer
    C. Make data independent of its programs.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of a database is to make data independent of its programs. This means that the database should be able to store and manage data in a way that is not tied to any specific program or application. This allows for flexibility and scalability, as the data can be accessed and used by different programs or applications without any dependencies. By making data independent of its programs, the database ensures that the data can be easily shared, manipulated, and analyzed across different systems and platforms.

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  • 17. 

    (206) What term best describes the process of organizing data into tables that result in the database being unambiguous as intended?

    • A.

      Normalization.

    • B.

      Semantic modeling.

    • C.

      Data denormalization.

    • D.

      Entity-Relationship modeling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Normalization.
    Explanation
    Normalization is the process of organizing data into tables in a database in order to eliminate redundancy and ensure that the data is unambiguous as intended. It involves breaking down larger tables into smaller, more manageable tables and establishing relationships between them. This helps to improve data integrity, reduce data duplication, and enhance overall database performance. Semantic modeling, entity-relationship modeling, and data denormalization are related concepts but do not specifically address the process of organizing data to achieve unambiguous results like normalization does.

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  • 18. 

    (206) What database normalization form has a type of entity dependency called transitive dependency?

    • A.

      First.

    • B.

      Second

    • C.

      Third

    • D.

      Fourth.

    Correct Answer
    C. Third
    Explanation
    The third database normalization form has a type of entity dependency called transitive dependency. In this form, all non-key attributes are dependent on the primary key, and there are no transitive dependencies between non-key attributes. Transitive dependency occurs when a non-key attribute is dependent on another non-key attribute, rather than directly on the primary key. By eliminating transitive dependencies, the third normalization form helps to ensure data integrity and reduce redundancy in the database.

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  • 19. 

    (206) What term best describes the redundant storing of the customer name in the purchase order entity?

    • A.

      Normalization.

    • B.

      Semantic modeling.

    • C.

      Data denormalization

    • D.

      Entity-Relationship diagram

    Correct Answer
    C. Data denormalization
    Explanation
    Data denormalization refers to the process of intentionally introducing redundancy into a database to improve performance or simplify queries. In this case, storing the customer name in the purchase order entity is an example of data denormalization because it duplicates the customer name information that is already stored in a separate customer entity. This redundancy allows for easier and faster retrieval of the customer name when querying the purchase order entity, but it also introduces the risk of data inconsistency if the customer name is updated in one place but not in the other.

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  • 20. 

    (207) What method is used by a database administrator to manage the updating of information on an enterprise’s computer system? .

    • A.

      Data activity.

    • B.

      Data repository.

    • C.

      Configuration control.

    • D.

      System documentation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Configuration control.
    Explanation
    A database administrator uses configuration control to manage the updating of information on an enterprise's computer system. Configuration control involves managing and controlling changes to the system's configuration, ensuring that updates are properly implemented and documented. This helps maintain the integrity and stability of the system while allowing for necessary changes and updates to be made.

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  • 21. 

    207) The database maintenance responsibility that addresses disk fragmentation is

    • A.

      The DBMS.

    • B.

      Data activity.

    • C.

      A data repository.

    • D.

      The database structure

    Correct Answer
    A. The DBMS.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the DBMS. The DBMS, or Database Management System, is responsible for maintaining the database and addressing disk fragmentation. Disk fragmentation occurs when files are stored in non-contiguous blocks on a disk, leading to slower access times. The DBMS is designed to optimize storage and retrieval of data, including managing disk space and organizing data to minimize fragmentation. Therefore, it is responsible for addressing disk fragmentation in the database.

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  • 22. 

    22. (207) What causes database fragmentation?

    • A.

      Gaps left in the database due to record deletions

    • B.

      Database becoming logically unorganized.

    • C.

      Unstructured record formats.

    • D.

      Data denormalization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gaps left in the database due to record deletions
    Explanation
    Database fragmentation is caused by gaps left in the database due to record deletions. When records are deleted from a database, empty spaces are created, resulting in fragmentation. This fragmentation can lead to decreased efficiency and performance issues as the database becomes disorganized. It is important to regularly address and manage these gaps to maintain the integrity and efficiency of the database.

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  • 23. 

    (207) The database maintenance responsibility that maintains a collection of metadata, DBMS, software, code libraries, and editing tools is managing

    • A.

      The DBMS.

    • B.

      Data activity.

    • C.

      A data repository.

    • D.

      The database structure.

    Correct Answer
    C. A data repository.
    Explanation
    A data repository is responsible for maintaining a collection of metadata, DBMS software, code libraries, and editing tools. This repository acts as a centralized location where all the necessary components for managing a database are stored and organized. It ensures that all the required resources are readily available for the smooth functioning of the DBMS and allows for efficient management of data activities.

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  • 24. 

    (208) What option is not a key element in the Air Force enterprise architecture of the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      Common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information.

    • B.

      Catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems.

    • C.

      Means for performing self-service functions.

    • D.

      Means for faster reliable service.

    Correct Answer
    D. Means for faster reliable service.
    Explanation
    The option "Means for faster reliable service" is not a key element in the Air Force enterprise architecture of the Air Force Portal. The other options mentioned, such as a common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information, catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems, and means for performing self-service functions, are all key elements in the architecture. However, the option "Means for faster reliable service" does not align with the main purpose of the Air Force enterprise architecture, which is to provide a common platform and improve efficiency in accessing and sharing information, rather than focusing on speed and reliability of service.

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  • 25. 

    (209) Who is the most important part of the Air Force Portal initiative?

    • A.

      User.

    • B.

      Writer.

    • C.

      Supervisor.

    • D.

      Programmer.

    Correct Answer
    A. User.
    Explanation
    The most important part of the Air Force Portal initiative is the user. The portal is designed to provide information and resources to Air Force personnel, and the success of the initiative relies on the users' ability to access and utilize these resources effectively. Without active and engaged users, the portal would not serve its purpose and would not be considered a valuable tool for the Air Force community. Therefore, the user is the most critical component of the Air Force Portal initiative.

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  • 26. 

    (209) Who oversees organization’s implementation of the Air Force Portal program?

    • A.

      MAJCOM content manager.

    • B.

      Advance content manager.

    • C.

      Content manager.

    • D.

      Content publisher.

    Correct Answer
    C. Content manager.
    Explanation
    The content manager is responsible for overseeing the organization's implementation of the Air Force Portal program. They are in charge of managing and organizing the content that is published on the portal, ensuring that it is accurate, up-to-date, and meets the needs of the organization. The content manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation and effectiveness of the Air Force Portal program.

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  • 27. 

    (209) Who ensures the links in your web site are maintained and in working order?

    • A.

      MAJCOM content manager.

    • B.

      Advance content manager.

    • C.

      Content manager.

    • D.

      Content publisher.

    Correct Answer
    D. Content publisher.
    Explanation
    The content publisher is responsible for ensuring that the links in a website are maintained and in working order. They are in charge of regularly checking and updating the links to ensure that they are not broken or leading to outdated content. This ensures a smooth user experience and helps to maintain the overall functionality of the website.

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  • 28. 

    (210) Which content publishing form is used to complete other forms as well as for its own uses?  

    • A.

      Biography.

    • B.

      Multimedia

    • C.

      Editorial.

    • D.

      Event Calendar.

    Correct Answer
    C. Editorial.
    Explanation
    Editorial is the correct answer because it is a content publishing form that can be used to complete other forms, such as articles or blog posts, as well as for its own specific use, which is to present opinions, analysis, or commentary on a particular topic. Unlike biography, which focuses on a person's life story, or multimedia, which refers to the use of various media formats, or event calendar, which is used to organize and display upcoming events, editorial is versatile and can be applied to different types of content.

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  • 29. 

    (211) What environment do you use to enter or edit content into in-line publishing forms?

    • A.

      Publishing center portal.

    • B.

      Content preview portal.

    • C.

      Air Force Portal production.

    • D.

      Web browser production.

    Correct Answer
    A. Publishing center portal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Publishing center portal. This is the environment where users can enter or edit content into in-line publishing forms. It is a specific portal designed for publishing content and has the necessary tools and features to create and manage content effectively. The other options mentioned are not specifically designed for content publishing and may not have the required functionality for entering or editing content in in-line publishing forms.

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  • 30. 

    (211) What environment does all Air Force users see when they sign on to the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      Publishing center portal.

    • B.

      Content preview portal.

    • C.

      Air Force Portal production.

    • D.

      Web browser production.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal production.
    Explanation
    When Air Force users sign on to the Air Force Portal, they see the Air Force Portal production environment. This is the live version of the portal that is accessible to all users. The other options, such as publishing center portal, content preview portal, and web browser production, do not accurately describe the environment that Air Force users see when signing on to the portal.

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  • 31. 

    (211) Content must be entered into what environment before it can be deployed?

    • A.

      Publishing center portal.

    • B.

      Content preview portal.

    • C.

      Air Force Portal production.

    • D.

      Web browser production.

    Correct Answer
    A. Publishing center portal.
    Explanation
    Before content can be deployed, it needs to be entered into the publishing center portal. This portal is specifically designed for managing and publishing content, allowing users to create, edit, and organize content before it is ready to be deployed to a live environment. The publishing center portal provides a centralized platform for content creators to collaborate and ensure the content is properly formatted and meets the necessary requirements before being published.

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  • 32. 

    (212) When you click the “Insert” button to import graphics the  

    • A.

      Close button closes.

    • B.

      Save button appears.

    • C.

      Deploy button appears.

    • D.

      Insert/edit image widget closes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Insert/edit image widget closes.
    Explanation
    When you click the "Insert" button to import graphics, the insert/edit image widget closes. This means that after selecting the graphics to import, the widget automatically closes, allowing you to continue with your task without any interruptions.

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  • 33. 

    (212) What must you do as a Content Publisher for a user to use images from the Air Force Portal directory?

    • A.

      The images must have been uploaded to the local server prior to creating the document

    • B.

      The images must have been downloaded to the local server prior to creating the document.

    • C.

      The images must have been uploaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the document.

    • D.

      The images must have been downloaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the document.

    Correct Answer
    A. The images must have been uploaded to the local server prior to creating the document
  • 34. 

    (213) What is the highest-level element in a basic web document?

    • A.

      Body.

    • B.

      Head.

    • C.

      HTML.

    • D.

      Close.

    Correct Answer
    C. HTML.
    Explanation
    The highest-level element in a basic web document is HTML. This is because HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is the root element that contains all other elements within a web page. It defines the structure and content of the document, including the head and body sections. The head section contains meta-information about the document, such as the title and links to external resources, while the body section contains the visible content of the web page. Therefore, HTML is the correct answer as it encompasses all other elements in a web document.

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  • 35. 

    (213) What section is where all content to include text and more HTML code for formatting is placed in a basic web document?  

    • A.

      Body.

    • B.

      Head.

    • C.

      HTML.

    • D.

      Title.

    Correct Answer
    A. Body.
    Explanation
    In a basic web document, the section where all content, including text and additional HTML code for formatting, is placed is called the "Body" section. This is where the actual visible content of the webpage is located, such as paragraphs, headings, images, links, and other elements that are displayed on the screen. The "Head" section is used for meta information, scripts, and linking to external stylesheets, while "HTML" is the root element that encloses the entire document. "Title" is used to specify the title of the webpage, which is displayed in the browser's title bar or tab.

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  • 36. 

    (214) What does the Privacy Advisory on public web sites inform users about?

    • A.

      How your information will be used on the Internet.

    • B.

      Why the information is solicited and how it will be used.

    • C.

      Why the information is stored and how it will be used.

    • D.

      How your information stored and why it is publicly solicited.

    Correct Answer
    B. Why the information is solicited and how it will be used.
    Explanation
    The Privacy Advisory on public web sites informs users about why the information is solicited and how it will be used. This means that the advisory will provide details on why the website is asking for personal information and for what purposes that information will be used. It is important for users to be informed about the reasons behind the collection of their information and how it will be utilized to ensure transparency and protect their privacy.

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  • 37. 

    (214) When may For Official Use Only material be placed on an Internet web site?

    • A.

      Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience.

    • B.

      Only if the information is encrypted or password protected.

    • C.

      Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected.

    • D.

      Never.

    Correct Answer
    C. Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected.
    Explanation
    For Official Use Only material may only be placed on an Internet web site if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected. This ensures that only authorized individuals can access the sensitive material, reducing the risk of unauthorized disclosure or misuse.

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  • 38. 

    215) Knowledge Information implementation lead to all the following except

    • A.

      A capability to harvest existing knowledge

    • B.

      Restricting that knowledge across your organization.

    • C.

      Leverage the knowledge by providing search mechanisms to locate relevant knowledge.

    • D.

      Create new knowledge by extending what has been shared and reused

    Correct Answer
    B. Restricting that knowledge across your organization.
    Explanation
    Knowledge Information implementation leads to several benefits, including the capability to harvest existing knowledge, leveraging the knowledge by providing search mechanisms to locate relevant knowledge, and creating new knowledge by extending what has been shared and reused. However, it does not involve restricting that knowledge across your organization. The implementation of knowledge information aims to promote the sharing and dissemination of knowledge within an organization, rather than restricting it.

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  • 39. 

    (215) “Knowledge results when information is organized and abstracted to produce something that is useful, predictive and expository to the decision-maker,” describes which phase of knowledge management?

    • A.

      I.

    • B.

      II.

    • C.

      III.

    • D.

      IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. I.
    Explanation
    The given statement describes the first phase of knowledge management. This phase involves organizing and abstracting information in order to produce something that is useful, predictive, and expository to the decision-maker. This implies that in this phase, information is processed and transformed into knowledge that can be applied to decision-making processes.

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  • 40. 

    (215) “To use and exploit tacit information, the objective is not to explicitly capture knowledge for the purpose of managing it, but to provide capabilities which allow airmen to reach knowledge experts or centers of professional expertise,” describes which phase of knowledge management?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The given statement describes phase II of knowledge management. In this phase, the objective is not to explicitly capture knowledge but to provide capabilities that enable individuals to access knowledge experts or centers of professional expertise. This phase focuses on facilitating the transfer of tacit information and connecting individuals with the right resources to enhance their knowledge and skills.

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  • 41. 

    (215) “Technologies and processes enable efficient and targeted workflows, dynamic subscription, proactive push, smart pull, and cross-mission collaboration,” describes which phase of knowledge management?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    The given statement describes phase III of knowledge management. This phase focuses on utilizing technologies and processes to enable efficient and targeted workflows. It also emphasizes on dynamic subscription, proactive push, smart pull, and cross-mission collaboration. These activities are aimed at enhancing the sharing and utilization of knowledge within an organization.

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  • 42. 

    (216) When Communities of Interest are formed, they will not initially focus on developing .

    • A.

      Vocabularies to describe information assets

    • B.

      Business rules for information management.

    • C.

      Requirements for business and mission services.

    • D.

      Locations for implementation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Locations for implementation.
    Explanation
    When Communities of Interest are formed, their initial focus is not on developing locations for implementation. Communities of Interest are groups of individuals with shared interests or goals, who collaborate and share information to achieve those goals. The formation of these communities is primarily aimed at addressing specific requirements for business and mission services, rather than determining the locations where these services will be implemented.

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  • 43. 

    (217) Which information using assets do knowledge based operations manage in an integrated environment?

    • A.

      People, processes, assets

    • B.

      People, processes, and tools

    • C.

      People, programs, and tools.

    • D.

      Programs, processes and tools.

    Correct Answer
    B. People, processes, and tools
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based operations in an integrated environment manage the information using assets such as people, processes, and tools. This means that these operations rely on the expertise and skills of individuals, well-defined procedures and workflows, and the use of appropriate tools and technologies to effectively manage and leverage knowledge within the organization. By combining these three elements, knowledge-based operations can ensure efficient and effective knowledge management, sharing, and utilization.

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  • 44. 

    (217) What goal is not one of Knowledge Based Operations?  

    • A.

      Manage all data, information, and knowledge as an Air Force enterprise-level asset.

    • B.

      Implement automated life-cycle management mechanisms for information.

    • C.

      Minimize the effort required by personnel and application to conduct information management activities.

    • D.

      Increase the creation of official Air Force information assets on paper.

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimize the effort required by personnel and application to conduct information management activities.
    Explanation
    The goal of minimizing the effort required by personnel and applications to conduct information management activities is not one of the Knowledge Based Operations. Knowledge Based Operations aim to manage all data, information, and knowledge as an Air Force enterprise-level asset, implement automated life-cycle management mechanisms for information, and increase the creation of official Air Force information assets on paper.

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  • 45. 

    (218) What is the vision of Enterprise Information Management?

    • A.

      Provide tools to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • B.

      Approve programs to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • C.

      Provide the right information to the right individuals to support combat and mission operations, with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality information.

    • D.

      Provide the right information to combat commanders to support combat and mission operations, with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality information.

    Correct Answer
    C. Provide the right information to the right individuals to support combat and mission operations, with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality information.
    Explanation
    The vision of Enterprise Information Management is to provide the right information to the right individuals to support combat and mission operations, with the ultimate goal to provide decision-quality information. This means that the focus is on ensuring that relevant and accurate information is made available to those who need it, in order to facilitate effective decision-making in combat and mission operations.

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  • 46. 

    (219) What type of Community of Practice workspace allows you to view its home page as well as all of its contents?

    • A.

      Open.

    • B.

      Restricted.

    • C.

      Closed.

    • D.

      Hidden.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open.
    Explanation
    An open Community of Practice workspace allows users to view its home page as well as all of its contents. This means that anyone who has access to the workspace can see the information and resources shared within it. In contrast, a restricted workspace may limit access to certain individuals or require approval to join. A closed workspace is typically only accessible to a specific group or organization. A hidden workspace is not visible or accessible to anyone except for its members.

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  • 47. 

    (219) What type of Community of Practice workspace allows you to view the home page, but not its content; as well as allowing you to check out the membership and purpose statement before applying for membership?

    • A.

      Open.

    • B.

      Restricted.

    • C.

      Closed.

    • D.

      Hidden.

    Correct Answer
    B. Restricted.
    Explanation
    A restricted Community of Practice workspace allows you to view the home page, but not its content. It also allows you to check out the membership and purpose statement before applying for membership. This means that the workspace is not completely open to everyone, but rather has some restrictions in place to control access and ensure that only interested and relevant individuals can join.

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  • 48. 

    (219) A link class is a  

    • A.

      Valid group of updated links.

    • B.

      Logical grouping of similar or related links.

    • C.

      Page element to allow a user to be directed to a web element.

    • D.

      Web element which allows a user to be directed to another location.

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical grouping of similar or related links.
    Explanation
    A link class refers to a logical grouping of similar or related links. This means that links within the same link class are related in some way, either by topic or functionality. This grouping allows for easier navigation and organization of links on a webpage.

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  • 49. 

    (220) To keep a Community of Practice working smoothly you should not

    • A.

      Update documents with new versions.

    • B.

      Communicate with senior management.

    • C.

      Approve new members to keep certain topics or areas up to date.

    • D.

      Network with other Community of Practice Knowledge Owners.

    Correct Answer
    C. Approve new members to keep certain topics or areas up to date.
    Explanation
    To keep a Community of Practice working smoothly, it is important to approve new members to keep certain topics or areas up to date. This is because new members bring fresh perspectives, knowledge, and skills to the community, which helps in keeping the discussions and knowledge sharing relevant and current. By approving new members, the community ensures that it remains dynamic and continues to evolve with the changing needs and advancements in the field.

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  • 50. 

    (220) Knowledge owners can maintain interest in a Community of Practice (COP) by doing all of the following except

    • A.

      Push content to COP members.

    • B.

      Make all content available and do not delete old content.

    • C.

      Encourage COP members to utilize the Alert feature.

    • D.

      E-mail a link to a document that may interest a specific COP member or group.

    Correct Answer
    B. Make all content available and do not delete old content.
    Explanation
    Knowledge owners can maintain interest in a Community of Practice (COP) by pushing content to COP members, encouraging COP members to utilize the Alert feature, and e-mailing a link to a document that may interest a specific COP member or group. However, making all content available and not deleting old content may lead to information overload and make it difficult for COP members to find relevant and up-to-date information. Therefore, this action does not help maintain interest in the COP.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Starrayrlp
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