CDC 2g051 - Logistics Plans Journeyman - Vol 2. Deployments

60 Questions | By Nolayup9 | Last updated: Mar 21, 2022 | Total Attempts: 845

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THIS IS the second volume of a two-volume career development course (CDC) for AFSC 2G0X1. Completion of this course is mandatory before upgrade to the five skill level. This CDC 2G051 is designed to build upon the knowledge you gained in the Logistics Plans Apprentice course. This volume is divided into six units. Unit 1. Air and Space Expeditionary ForceUnit 2. Deployment PlanningUnit 3. Unit Type Codes and the Integrated Deployment SystemUnit 4. Time Phased Force Deployment Data and Joint Operation Planning and Execution System Unit 5. Deployment Operations and ExecutionUnit 6. Deployed Location Operations

Questions and Answers

1.

1. (201) What is everyone considered regardless of AFSC?
- A.
  
  A. Warrior.
- B.
  
  B. Enlisted.
- C.
  
  C. Employed.
- D.
  
  D. Expeditionary airman.
2.

2. (201) What are the main principles the AEF is structured on?
- A.
  
  A. Flexibility and lethality.
- B.
  
  B. Predictability and equitability.
- C.
  
  C. Predictability, equitability, and transparency.
- D.
  
  D. Rapid deploy ability, small logistics footprint, and transparency.
3.

3. (202) If the baseline AEF vulnerability period of four months facilitates readiness of the force to respond to rotational and OPLAN requirements, then the results will be?
- A.
  
  A. all AEF forces are vulnerable for OPLAN requirements.
- B.
  
  B. placing similar aircraft in the same deployed location.
- C.
  
  C. filling out a deployed unit from the same MAJCOM.
- D.
  
  d. using similar AFSC for the same mission.
4.

4. (202) Why does the CCDR authorize shorter AEF tour rotations?
- A.
  
  A. To align the UTC capability into a Tempo Band.
- B.
  
  b. Improve crisis response of airmen.
- C.
  
  c. To encourage ARC volunteerism.
- D.
  
  D. To improve combat effectiveness.
5.

5. (203) Specific UTCs that are normally eligible to deployment given a certain set of deployment conditions and assuming full readiness are considered?
- A.
  
  A. available to deploy
- B.
  
  B. ready to deploy
- C.
  
  C. non-deployable
- D.
  
  d. postured
6.

6. (204) What P-code indicates UTCs that are not normally available to support rotational requirements within their aligned AEF library; however, they can be made available during surge operations?
- A.
  
  A. DWX
- B.
  
  B. DWS
- C.
  
  C. DXX
- D.
  
  D. DXS
7.

7. (204) What P-code indicates UTCs that are not normally available for deployment under non-surge ops within their aligned AEF, but can be deployed during declared surge operations?
- A.
  
  A. DWX
- B.
  
  B. DXX
- C.
  
  C. DWS
- D.
  
  D. DXS
8.

8. (205) What is used to view the UTC level readiness status of forces in 10 AEF?
- A.
  
  A. DCAPES.
- B.
  
  B. SORTS.
- C.
  
  C. DRIS.
- D.
  
  D. ART.
9.

29. (219) TPFDD is the computer-supported data portion of an OPLAN that resides in
- A.
  
  A. JOPES.
- B.
  
  B. GCCS.
- C.
  
  C. DCAPES.
- D.
  
  D. LOGMOD.
10.

30. (219) What type of TPFDD is normally associated with programming actions for a given timeframe?
- A.
  
  A. Capabilities.
- B.
  
  B. Deployment.
- C.
  
  C. Requirements.
- D.
  
  D. Programming.
11.

31. (220) Where is the TPFDD maintained?
- A.
  
  A. SMS.
- B.
  
  B. GDSS.
- C.
  
  C. JOPES/(GCCS)
- D.
  
  D. LOGMOD.
12.

32. (221) Who uses JOPES in the JPEC?
- A.
  
  A. Planners and commanders at all levels.
- B.
  
  B. Unit commanders.
- C.
  
  C. MAJCOMs.
- D.
  
  D. IDOs.
13.

33. (222) What do planners use to define the force requirements by UTC?
- A.
  
  A. JET.
- B.
  
  B. GDSS.
- C.
  
  C. GCSS.
- D.
  
  D. LOGMOD.
14.

34. (222) What provides a capability for the planner to query TPFDD?
- A.
  
  A. MEFPAK.
- B.
  
  b. RQT.
- C.
  
  C. SMS.
- D.
  
  D. IDP.
15.

9. (206) Which of the following is a function of the Directorate of Logistics Readiness?
- A.
  
  A. Publishes G-series orders.
- B.
  
  B. Publishes direction for ART.
- C.
  
  C. Notifies CJCS of the need for extended tour lengths.
- D.
  
  D. Serves as the overall OPR for the IDS.
16.

10. (207) Who is responsible for execution of the AEF schedule?
- A.
  
  A. SECDEF.
- B.
  
  B. CSAF.
- C.
  
  C. CJCS.
- D.
  
  D. Commander, ACC.
17.

11. (208) Who designates an IDO and alternate?
- A.
  
  A. LRS commander.
- B.
  
  B. MSG commander.
- C.
  
  C. Wing commander.
- D.
  
  D. MAJCOM commander.
18.

12. (208) Who ensures training is provided by the squadron for deployed property custodians?
- A.
  
  a. IDO.
- B.
  
  B. UDM.
- C.
  
  C. LRS commander.
- D.
  
  D. MSG commander.
19.

13. (209) Who is a permanent member of the IDRC staff?
- A.
  
  A. Maintenance personnel.
- B.
  
  B. Manpower.
- C.
  
  C. TMF.
- D.
  
  D. PRF.
20.

14. (209) Which of the following serves as direct support staff to the IDRC?
- A.
  
  A. PRF.
- B.
  
  B. IDO.
- C.
  
  C. Manpower.
- D.
  
  D. Logistic plans personnel.
21.

15. (210) Who appoint cargo increment monitors?
- A.
  
  A. Unit commander.
- B.
  
  B. IDRC.
- C.
  
  C. UDM.
- D.
  
  D. IDO.
22.

16. (210) How often must commanders review all UTC taskings in ART?
- A.
  
  A. Annually.
- B.
  
  B. Monthly.
- C.
  
  C. Weekly.
- D.
  
  D. Daily.
23.

17. (211) How often must the DPWG meet?
- A.
  
  A. Yearly.
- B.
  
  B. Monthly.
- C.
  
  C. Semi-annually.
- D.
  
  D. Once per AEF cycle.
24.

18. (211) Who publishes DPWG minutes?
- A.
  
  A. IDO.
- B.
  
  B. IDRC.
- C.
  
  C. LRS commander.
- D.
  
  D. Wing commander.
25.

519. (212) What codes identify the deployment status of a UTC?
- A.
  
  A. SHI.
- B.
  
  B. DAV.
- C.
  
  C. DEPID.
- D.
  
  D. Hazard.

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