CDC 2g051 - Logistics Plans Journeyman - Vol 2. Deployments

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THIS IS the second volume of a two-volume career development course (CDC) for AFSC 2G0X1. Completion of this course is mandatory before upgrade to the five skill level. This CDC 2G051 is designed to build upon the knowledge you gained in the Logistics Plans Apprentice course. This volume is divided into six units.
Unit 1. Air and Space Expeditionary Force
Unit 2. Deployment Planning
Unit 3. Unit Type Codes and the Integrated Deployment System
Unit 4. Time Phased Force Deployment Data and Joint Operation Planning and Execution System
Unit 5. Deployment Operations and Execution
Unit 6. Deployed Location Operations


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (201) What is everyone considered regardless of AFSC?

    • A.

      A. Warrior.

    • B.

      B. Enlisted.

    • C.

      C. Employed.

    • D.

      D. Expeditionary airman.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Expeditionary airman.
    Explanation
    Regardless of Air Force specialty code (AFSC), rank, staff, or line duty - everyone is considered an expeditionary Airman, and must be trained and ready to fight our nation’s wars.

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  • 2. 

    2. (201) What are the main principles the AEF is structured on?

    • A.

      A. Flexibility and lethality.

    • B.

      B. Predictability and equitability.

    • C.

      C. Predictability, equitability, and transparency.

    • D.

      D. Rapid deploy ability, small logistics footprint, and transparency.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Predictability, equitability, and transparency.
    Explanation
    The AEF (Air Expeditionary Force) is structured on the main principles of predictability, equitability, and transparency. Predictability ensures that the deployment of air forces is planned and organized in advance, allowing for efficient and effective operations. Equitability ensures that resources and opportunities are distributed fairly among all participating forces, promoting unity and cooperation. Transparency ensures that information and decision-making processes are open and accessible, promoting trust and accountability within the AEF structure. These principles help to create a cohesive and effective force capable of responding to various missions and challenges.

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  • 3. 

    3. (202) If the baseline AEF vulnerability period of four months facilitates readiness of the force to respond to rotational and OPLAN requirements, then the results will be?

    • A.

      A. all AEF forces are vulnerable for OPLAN requirements.

    • B.

      B. placing similar aircraft in the same deployed location.

    • C.

      C. filling out a deployed unit from the same MAJCOM.

    • D.

      d. using similar AFSC for the same mission.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. all AEF forces are vulnerable for OPLAN requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. all AEF forces are vulnerable for OPLAN requirements. This means that if the baseline AEF vulnerability period of four months is in place, it will make all AEF forces vulnerable and ready to respond to OPLAN requirements. This suggests that the vulnerability period is an important factor in ensuring the readiness of the force for rotational and OPLAN requirements.

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  • 4. 

    4. (202) Why does the CCDR authorize shorter AEF tour rotations?

    • A.

      A. To align the UTC capability into a Tempo Band.

    • B.

      b. Improve crisis response of airmen.

    • C.

      c. To encourage ARC volunteerism.

    • D.

      D. To improve combat effectiveness.

    Correct Answer
    C. c. To encourage ARC volunteerism.
    Explanation
    The CCDR authorizes shorter AEF tour rotations to encourage ARC volunteerism. This means that by allowing shorter rotations, it may incentivize members of the Air Reserve Component (ARC) to volunteer for deployments and contribute to the mission. This can help increase the pool of available personnel for deployments and enhance the overall combat effectiveness of the force.

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  • 5. 

    5. (203) Specific UTCs that are normally eligible to deployment given a certain set of deployment conditions and assuming full readiness are considered?

    • A.

      A. available to deploy

    • B.

      B. ready to deploy

    • C.

      C. non-deployable

    • D.

      d. postured

    Correct Answer
    A. A. available to deploy
    Explanation
    The specific UTCs that are normally eligible to deployment given certain conditions and assuming full readiness are considered "available to deploy." This means that these UTCs are prepared and capable of being deployed when needed. They have met the necessary requirements and are ready to be sent out for deployment.

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  • 6. 

    6. (204) What P-code indicates UTCs that are not normally available to support rotational requirements within their aligned AEF library; however, they can be made available during surge operations? 

    • A.

      A. DWX

    • B.

      B. DWS

    • C.

      C. DXX

    • D.

      D. DXS

    Correct Answer
    A. A. DWX
    Explanation
    The P-code "DWX" indicates UTCs that are not normally available to support rotational requirements within their aligned AEF library, but can be made available during surge operations.

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  • 7. 

    7. (204) What P-code indicates UTCs that are not normally available for deployment under non-surge ops within their aligned AEF, but can be deployed during declared surge operations?

    • A.

      A. DWX

    • B.

      B. DXX

    • C.

      C. DWS

    • D.

      D. DXS

    Correct Answer
    B. B. DXX
    Explanation
    The P-code "DXX" indicates UTCs that are not normally available for deployment under non-surge ops within their aligned AEF, but can be deployed during declared surge operations.

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  • 8. 

    8. (205) What is used to view the UTC level readiness status of forces in 10 AEF?

    • A.

      A. DCAPES.

    • B.

      B. SORTS.

    • C.

      C. DRIS.

    • D.

      D. ART.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. ART.
    Explanation
    The ART (Air and Space Expeditionary Tasking, Reporting, and Tracking System) is used to view the UTC (Unit Type Code) level readiness status of forces in 10 AEF (Air Expeditionary Force). It provides a comprehensive picture of the readiness and availability of forces, allowing commanders to effectively plan and execute missions. The other options, DCAPES, SORTS, and DRIS, are not specifically designed for viewing UTC level readiness status.

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  • 9. 

    29. (219) TPFDD is the computer-supported data portion of an OPLAN that resides in

    • A.

      A. JOPES.

    • B.

      B. GCCS.

    • C.

      C. DCAPES.

    • D.

      D. LOGMOD.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. JOPES.
    Explanation
    TPFDD stands for Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data. It is a computer-supported data portion of an OPLAN (Operational Plan) that contains detailed information about the forces and resources required for a specific operation. JOPES (Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) is the system that manages and maintains this data. Therefore, the correct answer is a. JOPES.

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  • 10. 

    30. (219) What type of TPFDD is normally associated with programming actions for a given timeframe?

    • A.

      A. Capabilities.

    • B.

      B. Deployment.

    • C.

      C. Requirements.

    • D.

      D. Programming.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Requirements.
    Explanation
    Capabilities TPFDDs are associated with OPLANs. Requirements TPFDDs are special-purpose TPFDDs normally associated with programming actions for a given timeframe.

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  • 11. 

    31. (220) Where is the TPFDD maintained?

    • A.

      A. SMS.

    • B.

      B. GDSS.

    • C.

      C. JOPES/(GCCS)

    • D.

      D. LOGMOD.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. JOPES/(GCCS)
    Explanation
    The TPFDD (Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data) is maintained in the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) or the Global Command and Control System (GCCS). These systems are used to organize and track the movement of forces and resources during military operations. SMS and GDSS are not specifically designed for TPFDD maintenance, and LOGMOD is a logistics module that may be used in conjunction with JOPES or GCCS.

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  • 12. 

    32. (221) Who uses JOPES in the JPEC?

    • A.

      A. Planners and commanders at all levels.

    • B.

      B. Unit commanders.

    • C.

      C. MAJCOMs.

    • D.

      D. IDOs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Planners and commanders at all levels.
    Explanation
    JOPES (Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) is a planning and execution system used by the military. It is used by planners and commanders at all levels to facilitate the planning and execution of joint military operations. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Planners and commanders at all levels.

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  • 13. 

    33. (222) What do planners use to define the force requirements by UTC?

    • A.

      A. JET.

    • B.

      B. GDSS.

    • C.

      C. GCSS.

    • D.

      D. LOGMOD.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. JET.
    Explanation
    Planners use JET (Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) to define the force requirements by UTC (Unit Type Code). JET is a software application that assists in the planning and execution of military operations. It allows planners to input and analyze data related to force requirements, such as personnel, equipment, and supplies, in order to effectively plan and allocate resources for a mission.

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  • 14. 

    34. (222) What provides a capability for the planner to query TPFDD?

    • A.

      A. MEFPAK.

    • B.

      b. RQT.

    • C.

      C. SMS.

    • D.

      D. IDP.

    Correct Answer
    B. b. RQT.
    Explanation
    RQT stands for Request for Quotation and it is a capability that allows the planner to query TPFDD (Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data). This means that the planner can use RQT to request information or data related to the force and deployment schedules. MEFPAK, SMS, and IDP are not mentioned in the explanation, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 15. 

    9. (206) Which of the following is a function of the Directorate of Logistics Readiness?

    • A.

      A. Publishes G-series orders.

    • B.

      B. Publishes direction for ART.

    • C.

      C. Notifies CJCS of the need for extended tour lengths.

    • D.

      D. Serves as the overall OPR for the IDS.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Serves as the overall OPR for the IDS.
    Explanation
    The Directorate of Logistics Readiness serves as the overall OPR (Office of Primary Responsibility) for the IDS (Installation Deployment Support). This means that they are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the logistical readiness of the installation and ensuring that all necessary resources and support are in place for deployment operations. They are the main point of contact for all logistics-related matters within the organization.

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  • 16. 

    10. (207) Who is responsible for execution of the AEF schedule?

    • A.

      A. SECDEF.

    • B.

      B. CSAF.

    • C.

      C. CJCS.

    • D.

      D. Commander, ACC.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Commander, ACC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Commander, ACC. The Commander of Air Combat Command (ACC) is responsible for the execution of the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule. The ACC is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and maintaining combat-ready forces for rapid deployment and employment. They work closely with other military branches and agencies to ensure the timely and effective execution of the AEF schedule, which involves deploying and sustaining airpower capabilities in support of global operations.

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  • 17. 

    11. (208) Who designates an IDO and alternate?

    • A.

      A. LRS commander.

    • B.

      B. MSG commander.

    • C.

      C. Wing commander.

    • D.

      D. MAJCOM commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Wing commander.
    Explanation
    The wing commander designates an IDO (Installation Deployment Officer) and alternate. The IDO is responsible for coordinating and overseeing deployment operations within the wing. They ensure that personnel, equipment, and resources are properly prepared and ready for deployment. The wing commander, as the highest-ranking officer in the wing, has the authority to designate the IDO and alternate to carry out these responsibilities. The LRS commander, MSG commander, and MAJCOM commander do not have the authority to designate the IDO and alternate.

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  • 18. 

    12. (208) Who ensures training is provided by the squadron for deployed property custodians?

    • A.

      a. IDO.

    • B.

      B. UDM.

    • C.

      C. LRS commander.

    • D.

      D. MSG commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. LRS commander.
    Explanation
    The LRS commander ensures that training is provided by the squadron for deployed property custodians. This means that the commander is responsible for ensuring that the custodians receive the necessary training to effectively perform their duties while deployed. The IDO, UDM, and MSG commander may have other responsibilities related to property management, but it is the LRS commander who specifically ensures training for deployed property custodians.

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  • 19. 

    13. (209) Who is a permanent member of the IDRC staff?

    • A.

      A. Maintenance personnel.

    • B.

      B. Manpower.

    • C.

      C. TMF.

    • D.

      D. PRF.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. PRF.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. PRF. The PRF, or Permanent Research Fellow, is a member of the IDRC staff who is responsible for conducting research on a permanent basis. They are not temporary or contract workers, but rather full-time employees of the organization.

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  • 20. 

    14. (209) Which of the following serves as direct support staff to the IDRC?

    • A.

      A. PRF.

    • B.

      B. IDO.

    • C.

      C. Manpower.

    • D.

      D. Logistic plans personnel.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Manpower.
    Explanation
    Manpower serves as direct support staff to the IDRC. Manpower refers to the personnel or workforce of an organization. In this context, it means that the IDRC is supported by its own staff members who provide the necessary manpower to carry out its operations. This could include various roles and responsibilities such as administrative staff, technicians, analysts, and other personnel who directly contribute to the functioning of the IDRC.

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  • 21. 

    15. (210) Who appoint cargo increment monitors?

    • A.

      A. Unit commander.

    • B.

      B. IDRC.

    • C.

      C. UDM.

    • D.

      D. IDO.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. UDM.
    Explanation
    Cargo increment monitors are appointed by the UDM (Unit Deployment Manager). The UDM is responsible for managing the deployment process and ensuring that all cargo and personnel are properly accounted for. They oversee the loading and unloading of cargo, as well as the documentation and tracking of all items. Therefore, it is the UDM who appoints cargo increment monitors to assist in these tasks.

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  • 22. 

    16. (210) How often must commanders review all UTC taskings in ART?

    • A.

      A. Annually.

    • B.

      B. Monthly.

    • C.

      C. Weekly.

    • D.

      D. Daily.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Commanders must review all UTC taskings in ART on a monthly basis. This ensures that they stay updated on the taskings and can make any necessary adjustments or changes as needed. Reviewing the taskings on a regular basis helps to ensure that they are being executed effectively and efficiently.

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  • 23. 

    17. (211) How often must the DPWG meet?

    • A.

      A. Yearly.

    • B.

      B. Monthly.

    • C.

      C. Semi-annually.

    • D.

      D. Once per AEF cycle.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Semi-annually.
    Explanation
    The DPWG, or the Defense Planning Working Group, must meet semi-annually. This means that they meet twice a year. It is important for the DPWG to meet regularly in order to discuss and plan defense strategies and policies. Meeting semi-annually allows for regular updates and discussions on defense planning matters.

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  • 24. 

    18. (211) Who publishes DPWG minutes?

    • A.

      A. IDO.

    • B.

      B. IDRC.

    • C.

      C. LRS commander.

    • D.

      D. Wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. IDO.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. IDO. The IDO (Installation Deployment Officer) is responsible for publishing the DPWG (Deployment Planning Working Group) minutes. This role ensures that the minutes are documented and shared with the relevant parties involved in the deployment planning process.

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  • 25. 

    519. (212) What codes identify the deployment status of a UTC?

    • A.

      A. SHI.

    • B.

      B. DAV.

    • C.

      C. DEPID.

    • D.

      D. Hazard.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. DEPID.
    Explanation
    The codes that identify the deployment status of a UTC are referred to as DEPID.

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  • 26. 

    20. (212) What defines the standard passenger and equipment movement requirements for each UTC?

    • A.

      A. MISCAP.

    • B.

      B. MANFOR.

    • C.

      C. Equipment.

    • D.

      D. LOGDET.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. LOGDET.
    Explanation
    LOGDET stands for Logistics Detail and it refers to the standard passenger and equipment movement requirements for each UTC (Unit Type Code). It is a system that provides guidance and regulations for the movement of personnel and equipment within the military. LOGDET ensures that the necessary resources are available and properly managed for each UTC, allowing for efficient and effective logistical operations. MISCAP, MANFOR, and Equipment are not specifically related to defining movement requirements for each UTC.

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  • 27. 

    21. (213) UTCs should be developed so that the entire UTC can be?

    • A.

      A. fragmented.

    • B.

      B. tasked to deploy.

    • C.

      C. tasked to stay at home station.

    • D.

      D. tasked from a single organization.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. tasked from a single organization.
    Explanation
    UTCs should be developed so that the entire UTC can be tasked from a single organization. This means that all members of the UTC should receive their tasks and instructions from one central organization, ensuring coordination and efficiency in their deployment and operations. Having a single organization responsible for tasking the entire UTC helps to streamline communication, decision-making, and resource allocation, ultimately enhancing the effectiveness and success of the UTC's mission.

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  • 28. 

    22. (214) What office acts as the overall point of contact to develop UTC details?

    • A.

      A. Pilot unit LGRR.

    • B.

      B. MAJCOM PMO.

    • C.

      C. Non-pilot unit.

    • D.

      D. UDM.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Pilot unit LGRR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Pilot unit LGRR. This office acts as the overall point of contact to develop UTC details. The pilot unit LGRR is responsible for coordinating and developing the Unit Type Code (UTC) details, which include the personnel, equipment, and training requirements for specific missions. They work closely with other units and organizations to ensure that the UTC details are accurate and up to date. This helps to ensure that the right resources are available for each mission and that all necessary personnel and equipment are properly trained and prepared.

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  • 29. 

    23. (215) Which of the following is a backup to the LOGMOD?

    • A.

      A. LSA.

    • B.

      B. CMOS.

    • C.

      C. AALPS.

    • D.

      D. DCAPES.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. LSA.
    Explanation
    LSA stands for Logistics Support Analysis. It is a backup to the LOGMOD, which stands for Logistics Modernization Program. LSA is responsible for analyzing and evaluating the supportability and maintainability of a system throughout its life cycle. It helps in identifying and implementing cost-effective support solutions and ensures that the system remains operational and efficient. Therefore, LSA serves as a backup to LOGMOD by providing support analysis and solutions to maintain the system's functionality and effectiveness.

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  • 30. 

    24. (215) Which is an automated family of systems used for deployments?

    • A.

      A. IDS.

    • B.

      B. GDSS.

    • C.

      C. GCCS.

    • D.

      D. DCAPES.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. IDS.
    Explanation
    IDS stands for Integrated Deployment System, which is an automated family of systems used for deployments. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of planning, coordinating, and executing deployments of military personnel and equipment. IDS helps to improve efficiency, accuracy, and timeliness in deployment operations, ensuring that resources are properly allocated and deployed in a timely manner. GDSS (Global Decision Support System), GCCS (Global Command and Control System), and DCAPES (Defense Readiness Reporting System) are other systems used in military operations, but they are not specifically focused on deployments like IDS.

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  • 31. 

    725. (216) When Manpower verifies the tasking, what is the next step in the taking process?

    • A.

      A. The IDO calls the unit.

    • B.

      B. The unit calls the IDO.

    • C.

      C. Manpower types “P” in the Task Stat field.

    • D.

      D. Manpower calls the unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Manpower types “P” in the Task Stat field.
    Explanation
    After Manpower verifies the tasking, the next step in the taking process is for Manpower to type "P" in the Task Stat field.

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  • 32. 

    26. (217) Who has DCAPES permissions to make a shortfall update?

    • A.

      A. Wing commander.

    • B.

      B. Unit commander.

    • C.

      C. IDO/NCO.

    • D.

      D. PRF.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. IDO/NCO.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. IDO/NCO. The IDO/NCO, or Installation Deployment Officer/Non-Commissioned Officer, has DCAPES (Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment) permissions to make a shortfall update. This means that they have the authority and access to update and make changes to the DCAPES system regarding any shortfalls in deployment planning and execution. The IDO/NCO is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment process, so it makes sense that they would have the necessary permissions for such updates.

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  • 33. 

    27. (217) When you are coding shortfalls, what step is it when you place the �¢ï¿½ï¿½S�¢ï¿½ï¿½ in DCAPES?

    • A.

      A. One.

    • B.

      B. Two.

    • C.

      C. Three.

    • D.

      D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Two.
  • 34. 

    28. (218) What provides visibility of deploying cargo and personnel from home station, or origin, to destination?

    • A.

      A. ITV.

    • B.

      B. IDP.

    • C.

      C. GDSS.

    • D.

      d. LOGMOD.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. ITV.
    Explanation
    ITV, or In-Transit Visibility, provides visibility of deploying cargo and personnel from home station, or origin, to destination. It allows for tracking and monitoring of the movement of these resources, ensuring that they reach their intended destination safely and on time. ITV helps in maintaining situational awareness and enables efficient planning and coordination of deployments. IDP, GDSS, and LOGMOD are not specifically related to providing visibility of deploying cargo and personnel.

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  • 35. 

    35. (223) When using the Schedule, which step do you use to define chalk mission table?

    • A.

      A. One.

    • B.

      B. Two.

    • C.

      C. Three.

    • D.

      D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Three.
    Explanation
    In order to define the chalk mission table when using the Schedule, you would use step three. This step is the one that specifically deals with defining the chalk mission table.

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  • 36. 

    36. (223) What two methods are used to prioritize passengers in LOGMOD?

    • A.

      A. Block and round seating.

    • B.

      B. Block and single seating.

    • C.

      C. Block and line number seating.

    • D.

      D. Line number and round seating.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Block and line number seating.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Block and line number seating. In LOGMOD, passengers are prioritized using the block and line number seating methods. Block seating refers to grouping passengers based on their assigned blocks, which could be determined by factors such as rank or priority. Line number seating refers to assigning passengers to specific seats within their block based on their line number, which could be determined by factors such as time of arrival or check-in. This method allows for efficient and organized boarding of passengers in LOGMOD.

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  • 37. 

    37. (224) Which CDF position is the key element for controlling the flightline activities?

    • A.

      A. Ramp coordinator.

    • B.

      b. Cargo marshalling.

    • C.

      C. Quality control.

    • D.

      D. Cargo in-check.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Ramp coordinator.
    Explanation
    The key element for controlling flightline activities is the Ramp coordinator. This position is responsible for coordinating and managing all activities on the ramp, including the movement of aircraft, ground support equipment, and personnel. They ensure that all operations are conducted safely and efficiently, and that all necessary resources are available. The Ramp coordinator plays a crucial role in maintaining the smooth flow of operations on the flightline.

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  • 38. 

    38. (224) The PDF is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until

    • A.

      A. they arrive at the aggregation point.

    • B.

      B. they depart the PDF for the aircraft.

    • C.

      C. otherwise directed by the troop commander.

    • D.

      D. they are turned over to the passenger terminal.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. they are turned over to the passenger terminal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. they are turned over to the passenger terminal. This answer is supported by the statement in the question that the PDF is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel until they are turned over to the passenger terminal. This implies that once personnel are turned over to the passenger terminal, the PDF is no longer responsible for their accountability. The other options (a, b, and c) do not align with this responsibility of the PDF.

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  • 39. 

    39. (225) What is used to identify additional requirements beyond the MISCAP?

    • A.

      A. DSOE.

    • B.

      B. MANFOR.

    • C.

      c. DAV code.

    • D.

      D. Line remarks.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Line remarks.
    Explanation
    Line remarks are used to identify additional requirements beyond the MISCAP. This means that any specific instructions or information that is not covered in the MISCAP can be included in the line remarks. This allows for customization and flexibility in meeting additional requirements or providing specific details that are not part of the standard MISCAP. The other options, DSOE, MANFOR, and DAV code, do not specifically address the identification of additional requirements beyond the MISCAP.

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  • 40. 

    40. (226) What document contains detailed deployment guidance that reflects the installation�s current deployment processes?

    • A.

      A. WMP.

    • B.

      b. IDP.

    • C.

      C. IGESP.

    • D.

      D. DRD.

    Correct Answer
    B. b. IDP.
    Explanation
    The IDP (Installation Deployment Plan) is the document that contains detailed deployment guidance that reflects the installation's current deployment processes. It outlines the specific steps and procedures that need to be followed during deployment, ensuring that the installation's unique requirements and processes are taken into account. The IDP provides a comprehensive guide for deploying personnel and resources, ensuring a smooth and efficient deployment process.

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  • 41. 

    41. (226) The IDP must have the flexibility to process a single individual and be

    • A.

      A. rewritten annually.

    • B.

      b. abandoned if required due to deployments.

    • C.

      C. flexible enough to deploy forces from other bases.

    • D.

      D. robust enough to cover the base’s largest possible deployment.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. robust enough to cover the base’s largest possible deployment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. robust enough to cover the base's largest possible deployment. This means that the IDP (Individual Deployment Plan) should be able to handle and accommodate the needs and requirements of the base's largest possible deployment. It should be strong and capable enough to support and manage the resources, personnel, and logistics involved in such a deployment. This ensures that the IDP can effectively and efficiently address the challenges and demands of a large-scale deployment.

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  • 42. 

    42. (227) The first step in creating an IDP must be?

    • A.

      A. determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability.

    • B.

      B. acquiring copies of other installation’s deployment plans.

    • C.

      C. reviewing current CENTAF reporting instructions.

    • D.

      D. holding a Deployment Process Working Group.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability.
    Explanation
    The first step in creating an IDP must be determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability. This is important because it helps in understanding the capacity and capability of the organization to deploy personnel and resources simultaneously. By determining this, the organization can effectively plan and allocate resources for deployments, ensuring that they do not exceed their capacity and can effectively support ongoing operations. Acquiring copies of other installation's deployment plans, reviewing current CENTAF reporting instructions, and holding a Deployment Process Working Group may be important steps in the overall process, but determining the maximum simultaneous deployment capability is the crucial first step.

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  • 43. 

    43. (227) IDPs for forward presence forces should include?

    • A.

      A. any and all evacuation plans.

    • B.

      B. guidance on deploying HN forces.

    • C.

      C. HN resources available to support deployments.

    • D.

      D. plans for disposal of classified information in case if deployment.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. HN resources available to support deployments.
    Explanation
    IDPs (Integrated Deployment Plans) for forward presence forces should include information about the host nation (HN) resources available to support deployments. This includes details about the resources, facilities, and capabilities that the host nation can provide to assist the forward presence forces during their deployment. This information is crucial for effective planning and coordination between the forward presence forces and the host nation, ensuring that the necessary support is available for successful deployments. It helps in leveraging the resources and capabilities of the host nation to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the forward presence forces.

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  • 44. 

    44. (228) What is the focal point for all deployment operations?

    • A.

      A. DCC.

    • B.

      b. PDF.

    • C.

      c. CDF.

    • D.

      D. UDCC.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. DCC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DCC, which stands for Deployment Coordination Center. The DCC is the focal point for all deployment operations, meaning it is the central location where coordination and management of deployment activities take place. It serves as a command and control hub, ensuring that all aspects of deployment, such as logistics, resources, and communication, are effectively coordinated and executed. The DCC plays a crucial role in ensuring smooth and efficient deployment operations.

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  • 45. 

    45. (228) Why should the DCC key staff be provided with land mobile radios and cell telephones?

    • A.

      A. Enable IDOs to track their personnel.

    • B.

      B. Facilitate accurate in-transit visibility.

    • C.

      C. Enable them to carry out other duties.

    • D.

      D. Facilitate rapid and accurate communications.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Facilitate rapid and accurate communications.
    Explanation
    The DCC key staff should be provided with land mobile radios and cell telephones in order to facilitate rapid and accurate communications. This is important for effective coordination and response during emergency situations or critical operations. Having access to these communication devices allows the key staff to quickly relay information, make timely decisions, and coordinate actions with other team members. It helps to ensure that important messages are delivered accurately and without delay, enhancing overall communication efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 46. 

    46. (229) Which CDF position places cargo in load plan sequence by chalk?

    • A.

      A. Ramp coordinator.

    • B.

      B. Cargo marshalling.

    • C.

      C. Quality control.

    • D.

      D. Cargo in-check.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Cargo marshalling.
    Explanation
    Cargo marshalling is the correct answer because this position is responsible for organizing and arranging the cargo in the correct sequence according to the chalk markings. The chalk markings indicate the specific position and order in which the cargo should be loaded onto the aircraft. The cargo marshalling personnel ensure that the cargo is loaded in the correct sequence to maintain balance and stability during the flight.

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  • 47. 

    47. (229) What function is responsible for all actions necessary to receive, in-check, inspect, marshal, load plan, manifest and supervise loading cargo aboard aircraft?

    • A.

      A. UDCC.

    • B.

      B. DCC.

    • C.

      C. PDF.

    • D.

      D. CDF.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. CDF.
    Explanation
    The function responsible for all actions necessary to receive, in-check, inspect, marshal, load plan, manifest, and supervise loading cargo aboard aircraft is CDF.

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  • 48. 

    48. (230) What is an organized processing activity designed to ensure deploying personnel are properly accounted for and prepared for deployment?

    • A.

      A. Passenger terminal.

    • B.

      b. PRU.

    • C.

      C. DCC.

    • D.

      D. PDF.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. PDF.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. PDF. A PDF, or Personnel Deployment Function, is an organized processing activity that ensures deploying personnel are accounted for and prepared for deployment. It involves verifying personnel information, conducting medical screenings, providing necessary training and equipment, and ensuring all necessary paperwork and documentation is completed. A PDF plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient deployment of personnel for military operations.

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  • 49. 

    49. (231) Who is responsible for coordinating all unit level deployment activities to include receipt of taskings and preparation of cargo and personnel for deployment?

    • A.

      A. UDCC.

    • B.

      B. PDF.

    • C.

      C. CDF.

    • D.

      D. DCC.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. UDCC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. UDCC. The UDCC, or Unit Deployment Control Center, is responsible for coordinating all unit level deployment activities. This includes tasks such as receiving taskings and preparing cargo and personnel for deployment. The UDCC plays a crucial role in ensuring that all necessary preparations are made for a successful deployment.

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  • 50. 

    50. (232) Who will receive initial training within 45 days of assignment by the IDO?

    • A.

      A. UDM.

    • B.

      B. IDRC.

    • C.

      C. Unit commanders.

    • D.

      D. Personnel representative.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Unit commanders.
    Explanation
    Unit commanders will receive initial training within 45 days of assignment by the IDO.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Nolayup9
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