CCNA Certification Practice #1

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CCNA Certification Practice #1 - Quiz


It is important for a student to ensure that they are well prepared for an exam. The CCNA practice quiz below is the First in a series of tests designed to give you an idea of what to expect come exam time. Give it a shot and be on the right track for getting that grade you desire.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      A terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices

    • B.

      A protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices

    • C.

      A protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet

    • D.

      A protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer

    • E.

      A protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
    C. A protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
    E. A protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
    Explanation
    The three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols are a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices, a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet, and a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console. These protocols are used for different purposes within the TCP/IP network architecture, such as enabling remote console connections, facilitating email communication, and managing network devices.

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  • 2. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      PDU #1 is a frame.

    • B.

      PDU #2 is an application layer PDU

    • C.

      PDU #3 is a segment.

    • D.

      PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.

    • E.

      The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PDU #1 is a frame.
    C. PDU #3 is a segment.
    E. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.
    Explanation
    PDU #1 is a frame because it is at the data link layer of the OSI model. PDU #3 is a segment because it is at the transport layer of the OSI model. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2, which means that the segment is created first, followed by the transport layer PDU, then the frame, and finally the application layer PDU.

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  • 3. 

    What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Data transport reliability

    • B.

      Best path determination

    • C.

      Establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits

    • D.

      Encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses

    • E.

      Best-effort datagram delivery

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Data transport reliability
    C. Establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
    Explanation
    TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a reliable transport protocol that provides data transport reliability, ensuring that data is delivered accurately and in order. It also establishes, maintains, and terminates virtual circuits, which are logical connections between two network devices. This allows for reliable and ordered data transmission between the sender and receiver.

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  • 4. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router: RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0 RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252 RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

    • A.

      Ethernet

    • B.

      Frame Relay

    • C.

      HDLC

    • D.

      PPP

    Correct Answer
    C. HDLC
    Explanation
    Based on the given configuration, HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) will be used for Layer 2 encapsulation for connection D. This is because HDLC is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces on Cisco routers. The "interface serial0/0/0" command configures a serial interface, and the subsequent commands enable the interface and assign an IP address. Since no other encapsulation type is specified, HDLC will be used by default.

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  • 5. 

    Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Improper placement of enterprise level servers

    • B.

      Addition of hosts to a physical segment

    • C.

      Replacement of hubs with workgroup switches

    • D.

      Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications

    • E.

      Migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Improper placement of enterprise level servers
    B. Addition of hosts to a physical segment
    D. Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
    Explanation
    The three factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN are improper placement of enterprise level servers, addition of hosts to a physical segment, and increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications. Improper placement of servers can lead to uneven distribution of traffic and overload certain segments. Adding more hosts to a physical segment can result in increased network traffic and congestion. The use of bandwidth intensive network applications can consume a significant amount of network resources and contribute to congestion.

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  • 6. 

    A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?

    • A.

      Client

    • B.

      Server

    • C.

      Domain

    • D.

      Transparent

    • E.

      Designated

    Correct Answer
    B. Server
    Explanation
    In order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain, a Catalyst switch must be in the "server" mode. In this mode, the switch can create, modify, and delete VLANs and propagate the changes to other switches in the same VTP domain. The "client" mode can only receive and synchronize VLAN information from a VTP server, while the "transparent" mode does not participate in VTP updates. The "domain" and "designated" options are not valid VTP modes.

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  • 7. 

    What creates a loop-free path through a switch network?

    • A.

      Hold-down timers

    • B.

      Poison reverse

    • C.

      Spanning Tree Protocol

    • D.

      Time to Live

    • E.

      Routing Information Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Spanning Tree Protocol
    Explanation
    The Spanning Tree Protocol creates a loop-free path through a switch network. This protocol is used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks by selecting a root bridge and calculating the shortest path to reach each switch in the network. It achieves this by disabling certain links to create a loop-free topology. By doing so, the Spanning Tree Protocol ensures that there is only one active path between any two switches, thus preventing broadcast storms and other network issues caused by loops.

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  • 8. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      One broadcast domain

    • B.

      Three broadcast domains

    • C.

      Three collision domains

    • D.

      Five broadcast domains

    • E.

      Nine collision domains

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Three broadcast domains
    E. Nine collision domains
    Explanation
    The given network consists of two switches, fl-1 and fl-2, with all ports on fl-1 in the Production VLAN and all ports on fl-2 in the Development VLAN. Each VLAN represents a separate broadcast domain, so there are two broadcast domains in the network. Since each switch is considered a separate collision domain, and there are two switches in the network, there are a total of four collision domains. However, since the question asks for the number of collision domains in the network, the correct answer is nine, which is the sum of the collision domains in each switch (four in fl-1 and five in fl-2).

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  • 9. 

    Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based on the output, what is most likely the problem?

    • A.

      FA 0/1 on SW_1 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.

    • B.

      FA 0/1 on SW_2 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.

    • C.

      VTP is not working properly between SW_1 and SW_2.

    • D.

      Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.

    • E.

      Interfaces FA0/3 on both switches need to be configured as access ports.

    Correct Answer
    D. Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the workstations in VLAN 10 can communicate with each other because they are connected to the same switch. However, the workstations in VLAN 20 cannot communicate with each other because they are connected to different switches. To enable communication between VLANs on different switches, the switches need to be connected using trunk ports. Trunk ports allow the transmission of multiple VLAN traffic between switches. Therefore, the most likely problem is that the interfaces FA0/1 on both SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.

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  • 10. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown?

    • A.

      The management VLAN is VLAN 99.

    • B.

      The only VLAN that can be applied to switch ports is VLAN 99.

    • C.

      The only VLANs that can be applied to switch ports are VLANs 1 and 99.

    • D.

      The switch will only be able to forward frames for hosts on the 10.99.0.0 network.

    Correct Answer
    A. The management VLAN is VLAN 99.
    Explanation
    The output shown indicates that the management VLAN is VLAN 99.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type. Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?

    • A.

      The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.

    • B.

      The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.

    • C.

      The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.

    • D.

      The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.

    • E.

      The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.

    Correct Answer
    D. The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.
    Explanation
    The error message indicates that there is an inconsistency in the port type between the two switches. This suggests that one switch has its port configured as a trunk port, while the other switch has its port configured as an access port. This mismatch in port configuration can cause the Spanning Tree Protocol to block the port, resulting in the error message.

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  • 12. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

    • A.

      Because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

    • B.

      Because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

    • C.

      Because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

    • D.

      Because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface

    • E.

      Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

    Correct Answer
    E. Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command
    Explanation
    The VLAN 99 is missing because it has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command. This means that the switch has not been configured to recognize VLAN 99 as an active interface.

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  • 13. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration?

    • A.

      RT_1(config)# trunk encapsulation dot1q

    • B.

      RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

    • C.

      RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation negotiate

    • D.

      RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q

    • E.

      RT_1(config)# vlan encapsulation dot1q

    Correct Answer
    B. RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10". This command needs to be used on the router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration. The "encapsulation dot1q 10" command specifies that the interface should use IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation and be assigned to VLAN 10.

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  • 14. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem?

    • A.

      SW_1 FastEthernet interface 0/24 is not a trunk port.

    • B.

      The RT_1 FastEthernet 0/1.10 is not configured for VLANs.

    • C.

      The FastEthernet port 0/1 on SW_1 is configured for VLAN 20.

    • D.

      The management VLAN does not have an IP address assigned to the same VLAN.

    • E.

      The IP address of computer A is incorrect.

    Correct Answer
    E. The IP address of computer A is incorrect.
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is that the IP address of computer A is incorrect. This is because if the IP address is not in the same network as RT_1, it will not be able to communicate with it. The other options provided do not directly address the issue of computer A not being able to ping RT_1.

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  • 15. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Host B

    • B.

      Host C

    • C.

      Host D

    • D.

      Host E

    • E.

      Host F

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Host C
    C. Host D
    E. Host F
    Explanation
    Host A will send ARP requests to hosts C, D, and F because they are connected to the same VLAN as host A. Hosts B and E are not connected to the same VLAN as host A, so they will not receive ARP requests.

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  • 16. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      All hosts are in one collision domain.

    • B.

      All hosts are in one broadcast domain.

    • C.

      A router is required for communication between VLANs.

    • D.

      The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.

    • E.

      The management VLAN has not been assigned an IP address.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. A router is required for communication between VLANs.
    D. The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.
    Explanation
    The first explanation for the problem is that a router is required for communication between VLANs. VLANs are separate virtual networks and they cannot communicate with each other without a router to route traffic between them.

    The second explanation is that the hosts are in separate broadcast domains. Each VLAN is its own broadcast domain, and hosts within a VLAN can communicate with each other using broadcast messages. However, hosts in different VLANs cannot communicate using broadcast messages, so they would need a router to forward traffic between the broadcast domains.

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  • 17. 

    Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

    • A.

      VLSM

    • B.

      PVST

    • C.

      802.1Q

    • D.

      RSTP

    • E.

      VTP

    Correct Answer
    D. RSTP
    Explanation
    RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) is an industry-wide specification that was developed to decrease the time needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports operating in a redundantly switched topology. It improves the convergence time of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) by reducing the amount of time it takes for a port to transition from blocking to forwarding state. This helps to minimize network downtime and improve network performance in redundant switch environments.

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  • 18. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      SW1 will become the root bridge.

    • B.

      SW2 will become the root bridge.

    • C.

      SW2 will get a port blocked.

    • D.

      SW4 will get a port blocked.

    • E.

      SW3 will become the root bridge.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. SW4 will get a port blocked.
    E. SW3 will become the root bridge.
    Explanation
    SW3 will become the root bridge because it has the lowest Bridge ID (priority + MAC address). SW4 will get a port blocked because it has the highest Bridge ID among the switches that are not elected as the root bridge.

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  • 19. 

    What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

    • A.

      Prevents Layer 2 loops

    • B.

      Prevents routing loops on a router

    • C.

      Creates smaller collision domains

    • D.

      Creates smaller broadcast domains

    • E.

      Allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents Layer 2 loops
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is to prevent Layer 2 loops. STP is a network protocol that ensures a loop-free topology in Ethernet networks by blocking redundant paths and allowing for the creation of a single active path. This prevents broadcast storms and ensures efficient and reliable communication within the network.

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  • 20. 

    Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

    • A.

      Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.

    • B.

      Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.

    • C.

      Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.

    • D.

      It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
    Explanation
    In the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol, ports go through a series of states before reaching the forwarding state. One of these states is the listening and learning state. During this state, the port listens to network traffic and learns about the network topology. It does not forward any traffic yet. Once the port has gathered enough information, it transitions into the forwarding state, where it actively forwards network traffic. Therefore, the statement "Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state" is true.

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  • 21. 

    Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      192.168.14.8

    • B.

      192.168.14.16

    • C.

      192.168.14.24

    • D.

      192.168.14.32

    • E.

      192.168.14.208

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 192.168.14.16
    D. 192.168.14.32
    E. 192.168.14.208
  • 22. 

    • A.

      IPv4

    • B.

      IPv6

    • C.

      TCP

    • D.

      UDP

    Correct Answer
    B. IPv6
  • 23. 

    This question is for reference....  Choose A for Correct Answer..

    • A.

      Click Me

    • B.

      Don't Click Me

    • C.

      Ok your a dummy if you pick me

    • D.

      Ok your an extreme dummy if you pick me

    Correct Answer
    A. Click Me
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Click Me" because it is the only option that does not have any negative or discouraging statements associated with it. The other options explicitly state that choosing them would make the person a dummy or an extreme dummy, which implies that they are not the correct choices.

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  • 24. 

    Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      10.78.103.0

    • B.

      10.67.32.0

    • C.

      10.78.160.0

    • D.

      10.78.48.0

    • E.

      172.211.100.0

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 10.78.103.0
    D. 10.78.48.0
    E. 172.211.100.0
  • 25. 

    What type of IP address is 172.16.134.48/27?

    • A.

      A useable host address

    • B.

      A broadcast address

    • C.

      A network address

    • D.

      A multicast address

    • E.

      A public address

    Correct Answer
    A. A useable host address
    Explanation
    The IP address 172.16.134.48/27 is a usable host address because the /27 subnet mask indicates that the first 27 bits of the IP address are used to identify the network, leaving 5 bits for host addresses. This means that there are 32 possible host addresses in this subnet, with the address 172.16.134.48 being one of them.

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  • 26. 

    Which address is a valid IPv6 unicast address?

    • A.

      FE90::1::FFFF

    • B.

      FD80::1::1234

    • C.

      FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1

    • D.

      FEA0::100::7788:998F

    • E.

      FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF

    Correct Answer
    C. FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1. This is a valid IPv6 unicast address because it follows the correct format for an IPv6 address, which consists of eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons.

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  • 27. 

    A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements: Network 1 - 500 hosts Network 2 - 100 hosts Network 3 - 1000 hosts Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      255.255.0.0

    • B.

      255.255.255.0

    • C.

      255.255.254.0

    • D.

      255.255.252.0

    • E.

      255.255.255.128

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. 255.255.254.0
    D. 255.255.252.0
    E. 255.255.255.128
    Explanation
    The subnet masks needed to fulfill the requirements are 255.255.254.0, 255.255.252.0, and 255.255.255.128.

    - The subnet mask 255.255.254.0 can support up to 510 hosts, which is enough for Network 1 with 500 hosts.
    - The subnet mask 255.255.252.0 can support up to 1022 hosts, which is enough for Network 2 with 100 hosts.
    - The subnet mask 255.255.255.128 can support up to 126 hosts, which is enough for Network 3 with 1000 hosts.

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  • 28. 

    Hands on... Reference Only Choose A for Correct Answer...

    • A.

      Choose me

    • B.

      Don't Choose me

    • C.

      Your an idiot if you choose me

    • D.

      Your a moron if you choose me

    Correct Answer
    A. Choose me
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Choose me". This implies that out of the options provided, "Choose me" is the recommended or preferred choice. The other options seem to discourage selecting them, using derogatory language to dissuade the reader. Therefore, the correct answer is "Choose me" as it is the only option that is positively presented without any negative connotations.

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  • 29. 

    A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

    • B.

      RouterA(config)# router ospf 1

    • C.

      RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

    • D.

      RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

    • E.

      RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
    D. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
    Explanation
    To configure a router to route within OSPF area 0, two commands are required. The first command is "RouterA(config)# router ospf 1", which enables OSPF routing process with process ID 1. The second command is "RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0", which adds the network 192.168.2.0 to OSPF routing process and specifies that it belongs to area 0. These two commands together configure the router to route within OSPF area 0.

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  • 30. 

    Access list lab

  • 31. 

    A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

    • A.

      The IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0

    • B.

      The OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address

    • C.

      The loopback interface IP address

    • D.

      The highest IP address on the LAN interfaces

    • E.

      The highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces

    Correct Answer
    C. The loopback interface IP address
    Explanation
    The router OSPF process uses the loopback interface IP address to assign the router ID.

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  • 32. 

    What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?

    • A.

      Routing table

    • B.

      Topology table

    • C.

      DUAL table

    • D.

      CAM table

    • E.

      ARP table

    Correct Answer
    B. Topology table
    Explanation
    The EIGRP DUAL algorithm uses the topology table to calculate the best route to each destination router. The topology table contains information about all the routes known to the EIGRP router, including their metrics and feasibilities. Based on this information, the DUAL algorithm determines the best route by considering factors such as bandwidth, delay, reliability, and load. The routing table, on the other hand, is the final outcome of the DUAL algorithm's calculations and contains the best routes to each destination. Therefore, the correct answer is the topology table.

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  • 33. 

    What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Link-state advertisements (LSA)

    • B.

      Spanning Tree Protocol

    • C.

      Shortest path first tree

    • D.

      Split horizon

    • E.

      Hold-down timers

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Split horizon
    E. Hold-down timers
    Explanation
    Split horizon and hold-down timers are two measures used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols. Split horizon is a technique where a router does not advertise routes back out of the interface from which it learned them. This prevents loops by avoiding the advertisement of routes that could potentially lead back to the same router. Hold-down timers are used to temporarily suppress the advertisement of a route after it has been invalidated, preventing the router from immediately accepting the same route again and potentially causing a loop.

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  • 34. 

    Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

    • A.

      R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.

    • B.

      R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.

    • C.

      The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.

    • D.

      R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.

    • E.

      R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

    Correct Answer
    D. R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is that R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network. This means that OSPF is not enabled on the interface connecting to the 172.16.100.0 network, so the show ip ospf neighbor command does not display any output. However, the show ip interface brief command shows that all interfaces are up and up, indicating that the physical connections are functioning properly.

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  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network?

    • A.

      ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1

    • B.

      ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0

    • C.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1

    • D.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0

    • E.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1

    Correct Answer
    E. ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1". This is the appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network because it specifies the network address 192.135.250.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248, which indicates a subnet with 6 usable host addresses. The next hop interface is s0/0/1, which is the interface connected to the XYZ network. This route will direct traffic destined for the XYZ network to the appropriate interface.

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  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      Application

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Data link

    • E.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    D. Data link
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is the data link layer. The data link layer is responsible for the physical transmission of data between network devices and includes protocols such as Ethernet. If the routers are unable to ping from serial interface to serial interface, it suggests that there may be an issue with the data link layer, such as a faulty cable or misconfigured network interface.

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  • 37. 

    What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

    • A.

      They use hop count as their only metric.

    • B.

      They only send out updates when a new network is added.

    • C.

      They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

    • D.

      They flood the entire network with routing updates.

    Correct Answer
    C. They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
    Explanation
    Distance vector routing protocols operate by sending their routing tables to directly connected neighbors. This means that each router in the network shares its routing information with its immediate neighbors, who in turn share it with their neighbors, and so on. This allows each router to build a picture of the network and determine the best path to reach different destinations. This process continues until all routers in the network have updated routing tables. By sharing information with directly connected neighbors, distance vector routing protocols can efficiently update and maintain routing information throughout the network.

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  • 38. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF?

    • A.

      Router ospf 0 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.10.192

    • B.

      Router ospf 0 network 192.168.10.0

    • C.

      Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

    • D.

      Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

    • E.

      Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 area 0

    Correct Answer
    C. Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0". This is the correct sequence of commands to configure router A for OSPF. It specifies the OSPF process ID as 1 and then uses the "network" command to enable OSPF on the specified networks with the corresponding subnet masks and areas.

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  • 39. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?

    • A.

      Passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

    • B.

      Passive-interface serial 0/0/0

    • C.

      Access-class 12 out

    • D.

      Access-class 12 in

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive-interface serial 0/0/0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "passive-interface serial 0/0/0." By configuring the "passive-interface" command on the serial 0/0/0 interface of router B, RIP updates will not be sent out through this interface. This effectively prevents router B from sending routing updates to router A. The other options, such as "passive-interface fastethernet 0/0" and "access-class," do not specifically address the requirement of preventing RIP updates from being sent.

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  • 40. 

    A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

    • A.

      D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0

    • B.

      O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0

    • C.

      R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0

    • D.

      S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

    Correct Answer
    D. S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
    Explanation
    The route that will appear in the routing table for network 192.168.168.0 is the "S" route. This is because the "S" stands for static routing, which means that the router has learned about this network through a manually configured static route. The other routes in the options are for dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF (O), RIP (R), and EIGRP (D), but in this case, the router has learned the route through a static route. The [1/0] metric indicates that this route has a metric of 1, which means it is the most preferred route.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.

    • B.

      The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.

    • C.

      The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.

    • D.

      The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates.

    • E.

      The clock rate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
    C. The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.
    Explanation
    The first possible cause for the problem is that the Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown. This means that the interface is not operational and cannot send or receive network traffic. The second possible cause is that the Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration. This means that the router is not aware of the network and does not know how to forward traffic to it.

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  • 42. 

    When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN?

    • A.

      When security is an issue

    • B.

      When user mobility is needed

    • C.

      When more than one laptop is used in a cubicle

    • D.

      When electrical interference from surrounding machinery is an issue

    Correct Answer
    B. When user mobility is needed
    Explanation
    A WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) is a better solution than a LAN (Local Area Network) when user mobility is needed. Unlike a LAN, which requires physical connections through Ethernet cables, a WLAN allows users to connect to the network wirelessly, providing freedom of movement within the network coverage area. This is particularly beneficial in environments where users need to move around while staying connected, such as in offices or public spaces.

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  • 43. 

    Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?

    • A.

      802.11a

    • B.

      802.11b

    • C.

      802.11g

    • D.

      802.11i

    • E.

      802.11n

    Correct Answer
    C. 802.11g
    Explanation
    802.11g is the correct answer because it is the wireless standard that works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s. 802.11a and 802.11n can also provide higher speeds, but they operate in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz ranges. 802.11b operates only in the 2.4 GHz range but provides a maximum speed of only 11 Mb/s. 802.11i is not a wireless standard but a security standard for Wi-Fi networks.

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  • 44. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?

    • A.

      The enable secret command has not been issued yet.

    • B.

      The enable password command has not been issued yet.

    • C.

      The password command has not been set for the console port.

    • D.

      The service password-encryption command has not been issued yet.

    Correct Answer
    C. The password command has not been set for the console port.
    Explanation
    The problem is that the password command has not been set for the console port. This means that there is no password set for accessing the router through the console port, which is causing the error message to be displayed.

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  • 45. 

    This is for reference. Choose A for Correct Answer...

    • A.

      Don't Choose me...

    • B.

      Choose me I dare you...

    • C.

      Confused yet.. Then choose me...

    • D.

      Are you a dummy choose me...

    Correct Answer
    A. Don't Choose me...
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Don't Choose me..." because the question is asking the reader to select the correct answer from a list of options. However, the phrase "Don't Choose me..." is not one of the options provided, indicating that it should not be chosen.

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  • 46. 

    Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

    • A.

      Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.

    • B.

      The number of usable addresses that is assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.

    • C.

      A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.

    • D.

      The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured.

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
    Explanation
    In Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading, multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address. This allows multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address when communicating with devices on the internet. This process is commonly used by internet service providers to conserve public IP addresses and enable more efficient use of available resources.

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  • 47. 

    Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Destination address and wildcard mask

    • B.

      Source address and wildcard mask

    • C.

      Subnet mask and wildcard mask

    • D.

      Access list number between 100 and 199

    • E.

      Access list number between 1 and 99

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Source address and wildcard mask
    E. Access list number between 1 and 99
    Explanation
    When creating a standard access control list, two pieces of information are required. The first is the source address and wildcard mask, which determines the specific source IP addresses that will be allowed or denied access. The second is the access list number between 1 and 99, which identifies the access control list and its order of precedence. By specifying the source address and wildcard mask, along with the access list number, the administrator can effectively control access to the network based on the source IP addresses.

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  • 48. 

    Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Most

    • B.

      Host

    • C.

      All

    • D.

      Any

    • E.

      Some

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Host
    D. Any
    Explanation
    The keywords "host" and "any" can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair. The "host" keyword is used to specify a single host IP address, while the "any" keyword is used to match any IP address. These keywords provide flexibility in defining access control rules without specifying a specific IP address or a range of IP addresses.

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  • 49. 

    What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

    • A.

      They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.

    • B.

      They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.

    • C.

      They should be placed on the fastest interface available.

    • D.

      They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

    Correct Answer
    A. They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
    Explanation
    Extended access control lists (ACLs) should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied. This is because extended ACLs are used to filter traffic based on specific criteria, such as source and destination IP addresses, protocols, and port numbers. By placing the ACLs closer to the source, the filtering can be done earlier in the network flow, reducing unnecessary traffic and improving network performance. Additionally, placing the ACLs closer to the source allows for more granular control over the traffic, as it can be filtered before it reaches other network devices or interfaces.

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  • 50. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to the Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements: deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0 Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

    • A.

      Hera(config)# interface fa0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    • B.

      Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • C.

      Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • D.

      Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    • E.

      Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    Correct Answer
    E. Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
    Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out. This is the correct command sequence because it applies the named access list "chemistry_block" to the outbound traffic on interface fa0/0 of the Athena device. This ensures that all other users within the school, except for those on the Chemistry Network and public Internet, have access to the Records Server. The other command sequences either apply the access list to the wrong interfaces or in the wrong direction, which would not meet the requirements stated in the question.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Albrenes
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