CCNA 3 Exam Questions

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    4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

    • Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
    • Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
    • No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
    • One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
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CCNA 3 Exam Questions - Quiz
About This Quiz

Chapter 3 of the CCNA is a very wide chapter and most students find it hard to understand. The quiz below has different questions specifically from chapter 3 and will give you a clear indication of how the questions are set and how to correctly tackle them. Give it a try!


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  • 2. 

    8. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?

    • SSID

    • OFDM

    • WEP

    • DSSS

    Correct Answer
    A. SSID
    Explanation
    SSID stands for Service Set Identifier and is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another. It is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is assigned to a wireless network. When devices search for available networks, they use the SSID to determine which network to connect to. Each wireless network has its own unique SSID, allowing devices to differentiate between networks and connect to the desired one.

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  • 3. 

    9. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

    • Lowest bridge ID

    • Highest revision number

    • Lowest numeric IP address

    • Highest numeric MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest bridge ID
    Explanation
    The lowest bridge ID determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology. In the spanning tree protocol, each switch is assigned a unique bridge ID, which consists of a priority value and a MAC address. The switch with the lowest bridge ID is elected as the root bridge, and all other switches in the network determine their paths to the root bridge based on this information. Therefore, the switch with the lowest bridge ID becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology.

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  • 4. 

    24. Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

    • Available bandwidth is reduced

    • MAC addresses are easily spoofed.

    • APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.

    • The payload encryption is easily broken.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
    Explanation
    MAC address filtering is considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN because MAC addresses can be easily spoofed. This means that an attacker can change their device's MAC address to match one that is allowed on the network, bypassing the filtering mechanism. This makes it ineffective in preventing unauthorized access to the network. Other security measures, such as encryption and authentication, are more reliable in protecting the WLAN from unauthorized users.

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  • 5. 

    62. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

    • AS1 and AS2

    • DS1 and DS2

    • DS1, DS2, and CS1

    • AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

    Correct Answer
    A. AS1 and AS2
    Explanation
    The IP phones should connect to AS1 and AS2. This is because AS1 and AS2 are the only devices listed in the exhibit, and there is no mention of any other devices that could potentially be used for connecting IP phones. Therefore, it can be inferred that AS1 and AS2 are the correct devices for connecting the IP phones.

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  • 6. 

    94. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?

    • The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.

    • The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.

    • The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.

    • The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
    Explanation
    The PC being set to full duplex while the switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex can cause a duplex mismatch. This mismatch leads to slow and intermittent connectivity, as the PC and switch are not communicating effectively.

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  • 7. 

    116. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

    • Lowest bridge ID

    • Highest revision number

    • Lowest numeric IP address

    • Highest numeric MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest bridge ID
    Explanation
    The lowest bridge ID determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology. The bridge ID is a combination of a switch's priority value and its MAC address. When multiple switches are connected in a network, the switch with the lowest bridge ID is elected as the root bridge, which becomes the central point of reference for the spanning tree algorithm.

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  • 8. 

    117. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?

    • The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.

    • The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.

    • The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.

    • The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the PC is set to full duplex, but the switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, causing a duplex mismatch. This means that the PC and the switch are not communicating effectively, leading to slow and intermittent connectivity.

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  • 9. 

    127. Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?

    • SW1(config)# vtp version 1

    • SW2(config)# vtp mode client

    • SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1

    • SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent

    Correct Answer
    A. SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1
    Explanation
    The command "SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1" will remedy the problem. This command sets the VTP domain name on SW3 to "Cisco1", allowing it to receive and propagate VLAN information from other switches in the network.

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  • 10. 

    66. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?

    • The router will drop the packet.

    • The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

    • The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.

    • The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

    • The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3

    Correct Answer
    A. The router will drop the packet.
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the source and destination IP addresses are both within the same subnet 192.168.1.0/24. Since the router is receiving a packet with a destination IP address that is within its own subnet, it will assume that the destination IP address is directly connected and will attempt to find the destination host within its own network. However, if the router does not have a matching entry in its routing table for the destination IP address, it will drop the packet. Therefore, the router will drop the packet in this scenario.

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  • 11. 

    113. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?

    • SSID

    • OFDM

    • WEP

    • DSSS

    Correct Answer
    A. SSID
    Explanation
    The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another. It is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is set by the network administrator or the router manufacturer. When a device wants to connect to a specific wireless network, it must provide the correct SSID to establish a connection. This parameter ensures that devices connect to the intended network and not to other nearby networks with similar names.

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  • 12. 

    121. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

    • AS1 and AS2

    • DS1 and DS2

    • DS1, DS2, and CS1

    • AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

    Correct Answer
    A. AS1 and AS2
    Explanation
    The IP phones should connect to AS1 and AS2. This is because AS1 and AS2 are the Access Switches in the network, which are responsible for connecting end devices such as IP phones. DS1 and DS2 are Distribution Switches, which are used to connect different access switches together. CS1 is the Core Switch, which is responsible for connecting multiple distribution switches. Therefore, the IP phones should connect to the Access Switches (AS1 and AS2) to establish a direct connection to the network.

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  • 13. 

    126. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?

    • Zero

    • Four

    • Five

    • Eight

    • Nine

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    Based on the exhibit, the switch is configured with a total of nine VLANs. The question asks for the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted. Since there are nine VLANs in total, it is not possible to delete more than nine VLANs. Therefore, the correct answer is "four" because it is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted without exceeding the total number of VLANs configured on the switch.

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  • 14. 

    131. Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?

    • BPDU frames

    • Multicast frames

    • Broadcast frames

    • Layer 3 packets

    Correct Answer
    A. BPDU frames
    Explanation
    When a switch interface is in STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) blocking mode, it means that the interface is not actively forwarding traffic. However, it still receives and processes BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) frames. BPDU frames are used by switches to exchange information and maintain the spanning tree topology. These frames are crucial for the proper functioning of the STP algorithm. Therefore, even in blocking mode, the switch interface will continue to receive and handle BPDU frames.

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  • 15. 

    141. A network technician is attempting to configure 802.1q trunking on switch ports Fa0/5 through Fa0/10. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

    • Image One

    • Image Two

    • Image Three

    • Image Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Image Two
  • 16. 

    59. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

    • Lowest bridge ID

    • Highest revision number

    • Lowest numeric IP address

    • Highest numeric MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest bridge ID
    Explanation
    The bridge ID is a combination of a priority value and a MAC address. In the spanning tree protocol, each switch in the network has a unique bridge ID. The switch with the lowest bridge ID becomes the root bridge and serves as the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology. Therefore, the value that determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference is the lowest bridge ID.

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  • 17. 

    82. What information in an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 2 switch to build its address table?

    • Source IP address

    • Source MAC address

    • Destination IP address

    • Destination MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Source MAC address
    Explanation
    A Layer 2 switch uses the source MAC address in an Ethernet frame to build its address table. This is because the MAC address uniquely identifies each device on a local network and allows the switch to associate the MAC address with the corresponding port. By learning and storing the source MAC addresses of devices connected to its ports, the switch can efficiently forward incoming frames to the correct destination device based on the MAC address. This helps in improving network performance and reducing unnecessary network traffic.

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  • 18. 

    103. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?

    • Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.

    • Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.

    • Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.

    • Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.

    • Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
    Explanation
    If the network administrator moves the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1, Host A will no longer be a member of VLAN 10. This is because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. VLAN membership is determined by the port configuration on the switch, and in this case, the administrator has specifically assigned Fa0/3 to VLAN 30, causing Host A to no longer be associated with VLAN 10.

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  • 19. 

    129. Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

    • Available bandwidth is reduced.

    • MAC addresses are easily spoofed.

    • APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.

    • The payload encryption is easily broken.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
    Explanation
    MAC address filtering is considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN because MAC addresses can be easily spoofed. This means that an attacker can impersonate a legitimate device by changing their MAC address to match an authorized device. As a result, MAC address filtering alone is not sufficient to prevent unauthorized access to a WLAN. Other security measures, such as encryption and authentication protocols, should be implemented to ensure a more robust and effective security solution.

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  • 20. 

    138. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SWB is not responding to VTP updates from switch SWA. What is a possible cause of the problem?

    • The VTP revision numbers are different.

    • The number of existing VLANs is different.

    • There is a password set on one of the switches.

    • The enable passwords are not set on the switches.

    Correct Answer
    A. There is a password set on one of the switches.
    Explanation
    A possible cause of the problem could be that there is a password set on one of the switches. This could prevent the VTP updates from being received by switch SWB. Without the correct password, switch SWB would not be able to authenticate and receive the updates from switch SWA.

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  • 21. 

    11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

    • AS1 and AS2

    • DS1 and DS2

    • DS1, DS2, and CS1

    • AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

    Correct Answer
    A. AS1 and AS2
    Explanation
    The IP phones should connect to AS1 and AS2. This is because AS1 and AS2 are the access switches in the network, which are responsible for connecting end devices such as IP phones. DS1 and DS2 are distribution switches, which are used to connect different access switches together. CS1 is a core switch, which is used for routing traffic between different networks. Therefore, the IP phones should connect to the access switches AS1 and AS2.

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  • 22. 

    5. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

    • Only hosts A and B

    • Only hosts A, B, and C

    • Only hosts A, B, C, and D

    • Only hosts A, B, C, and E

    Correct Answer
    A. Only hosts A, B, and C
    Explanation
    When a collision occurs in a network, all hosts involved in the collision will receive a collision jamming signal. In this scenario, hosts A and B are connected to the same hub, HB1, and they both attempt to transmit a frame at the same time resulting in a collision. Therefore, only hosts A, B, and C will receive the collision jamming signal.

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  • 23. 

    10. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?

    • The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.

    • The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.

    • The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.

    • The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
    Explanation
    When a PC is set to full duplex and the switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting, it defaults to half duplex. This creates a duplex mismatch between the PC and the switch port. In a duplex mismatch, the PC and the switch are operating at different duplex settings, which can lead to slow and intermittent connectivity. This is because the PC and the switch are not able to effectively communicate with each other, causing dropped frames and a lower ping success rate to the default gateway.

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  • 24. 

      25. Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?

    • Zero

    • One

    • Two

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    To configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces, only one physical interface is needed on router R1. This is because subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to be divided into multiple logical interfaces, each representing a different VLAN. By configuring subinterfaces on the router, each VLAN can be assigned a separate IP address and the router can route traffic between them. Therefore, only one physical interface is required to connect the router to the switch.

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  • 25. 

    34. A network technician is attempting to configure 802.1q trunking on switch ports Fa0/5 through Fa0/10. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

    • Image One

    • Image Two

    • Image Three

    • Image Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Image Two
  • 26. 

    53. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

    • QoS

    • Routing

    • Trunking

    • VPN

    Correct Answer
    A. Trunking
    Explanation
    Trunking is the correct answer because it allows multiple VLANs to be carried over a single physical link between switches. By configuring trunk ports on both switch X and switch Y, the hosts on VLAN 40 can communicate with each other. Trunking encapsulates the VLAN information and allows it to be transmitted between switches, ensuring that the VLAN traffic is properly segregated and delivered to the correct destination.

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  • 27. 

    68. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?

    • It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.

    • It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.

    • It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.

    • It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths

    Correct Answer
    A. It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm is to prevent loops in a switched network with redundant paths. This algorithm ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices at a time, while blocking redundant paths. This prevents broadcast storms and ensures efficient and reliable network communication.

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  • 28. 

    125. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs. The connected hosts can only access resources in their own VLAN. What is the most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?

    • Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC.

    • Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to its own switch.

    • Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link.

    • Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link.
    Explanation
    The most scalable and cost-effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network is to configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link. This allows for the creation of virtual interfaces (subinterfaces) on the router, each corresponding to a different VLAN. The trunk link enables the transmission of traffic between the router and the switch, ensuring that inter-VLAN communication can occur. This solution eliminates the need for additional switches or routers, making it a more efficient and cost-effective option.

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  • 29. 

    133. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?

    • SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.

    • SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.

    • SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.

    • SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

    Correct Answer
    A. SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
    Explanation
    SSH is recommended for network administrators because it encrypts all remote management communications, providing a secure and confidential way to manage switches. In contrast, Telnet does not offer encryption, making it susceptible to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. By using SSH, sensitive information and commands are protected from potential attackers, ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of the network management process.

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  • 30. 

    84. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SWB is not responding to VTP updates from switch SWA. What is a possible cause of the problem?

    • The VTP revision numbers are different.

    • The number of existing VLANs is different.

    • There is a password set on one of the switches.

    • The enable passwords are not set on the switches

    Correct Answer
    A. There is a password set on one of the switches.
    Explanation
    A possible cause of the problem is that there is a password set on one of the switches. This can prevent VTP updates from being received by SWB, causing it to not respond to the updates from SWA.

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  • 31. 

    98. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?

    • Configuring trunk links on the VTP server

    • Configuring or changing the VTP password

    • Configuring or changing the VTP domain name

    • Configuring or changing the VTP version number

    • Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
    Explanation
    Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server. This is because any changes made to the VLAN configuration, such as adding or removing VLANs, will result in a new configuration being sent to the VTP clients. The configuration revision number is used by VTP to determine whether a received update is more recent than the current configuration on the device. Therefore, any changes to the VLAN configuration will trigger an update with an incremented revision number.

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  • 32. 

    107. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

    • Only hosts A and B

    • Only hosts A, B, and C

    • Only hosts A, B, C, and D

    • Only hosts A, B, C, and E

    Correct Answer
    A. Only hosts A, B, and C
    Explanation
    When a collision occurs on a network, all hosts involved in the collision will receive a collision jamming signal. In this scenario, hosts A and B are connected to the same hub and attempt to transmit a frame simultaneously, resulting in a collision. Therefore, only hosts A, B, and C will receive the collision jamming signal.

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  • 33. 

    143. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting a trunk problem between switches SW1 and SW2. What should be done to remedy the problem?

    • “Negotiation of Trunking” on both switches should be turned off.

    • “Administrative Mode” on switch SW1 should be configured as dynamic auto.

    • “Trunking Native Mode VLAN” on switch SW2 should be configured as VLAN 100.

    • “Operational Mode” on both switches should be configured as static access.

    Correct Answer
    A. “Trunking Native Mode VLAN” on switch SW2 should be configured as VLAN 100.
    Explanation
    To remedy the trunk problem between switches SW1 and SW2, the "Trunking Native Mode VLAN" on switch SW2 should be configured as VLAN 100. This means that any untagged traffic received on the trunk link will be treated as belonging to VLAN 100. By configuring the native VLAN on SW2 to be VLAN 100, it ensures that both switches are using the same native VLAN for trunking, which helps in establishing proper communication between them.

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  • 34. 

    28. What is the purpose of configuring a switch port as a trunk port?

    • To control the broadcast domain size

    • To eliminate the collisions that result from multiple VLANs

    • To transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port

    • To increase the bandwidth between the switch and its upstream device

    Correct Answer
    A. To transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port
    Explanation
    Configuring a switch port as a trunk port allows for the transmission of data from multiple VLANs through a single port. This is useful in scenarios where there are multiple VLANs in a network and the switch needs to be able to send traffic between them. By using a trunk port, the switch can tag the frames with VLAN information, allowing the receiving device to correctly identify and process the traffic for each VLAN. This helps to efficiently utilize network resources and simplifies network management.

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  • 35. 

    29. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of interface Fa0/1?

    • The interface is not configured to transmit data.

    • The interface is configured to transmit data at 10 Mb/s speed.

    • The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.

    • The interface is configured to use HDLC encapsulation to transmit data.

    Correct Answer
    A. The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.
  • 36. 

    38. Which type of VLAN would accommodate untagged traffic on a 802.1q trunk port?

    • Data VLAN

    • Native VLAN

    • Untagged VLAN

    • Management VLAN

    Correct Answer
    A. Native VLAN
    Explanation
    A native VLAN is a type of VLAN that allows untagged traffic on an 802.1q trunk port. This means that any traffic that arrives on the trunk port without a VLAN tag will be treated as belonging to the native VLAN. The native VLAN is typically used for carrying management traffic or for allowing devices that do not support VLAN tagging to communicate on the network.

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  • 37. 

    50. What information in an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 2 switch to build its address table?

    • Source IP address

    • Source MAC address

    • Destination IP address

    • Destination MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Source MAC address
    Explanation
    Layer 2 switches use the source MAC address in an Ethernet frame to build their address table. This is because Layer 2 switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and use MAC addresses to identify devices on a local network. By learning and storing the source MAC addresses of incoming frames, the switch can associate each MAC address with the corresponding port on which the frame was received. This allows the switch to make forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address, ensuring that frames are delivered to the correct device on the network.

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  • 38. 

    77. Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes?

    • The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg.

    • A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config.

    • The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch.

    • Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.
    Explanation
    When the administrator uses the command "copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config" to download a saved configuration from a TFTP server to the switch, the configuration is actually downloaded to the startup-config file. However, changes made to the startup-config file do not take effect until the switch is reloaded. Therefore, even though the download completes successfully, the administrator will not detect any changes in the switch configuration until the switch is reloaded.

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  • 39. 

    95. Refer to the exhibit. What does “LEARNING” mean as it relates to the Spanning Tree Protocol?

    • The switch is sending and receiving data frames.

    • The switch is not receiving BPDUs, but is sending and receiving data.

    • The switch is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.

    • The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

    Correct Answer
    A. The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
  • 40. 

    108. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

    • Client

    • Root

    • Server

    • Transparent

    Correct Answer
    A. Transparent
    Explanation
    If a VTP switch has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements, it is operating in the "transparent" mode. In this mode, the switch does not participate in VTP updates or maintain a VTP database. It simply forwards VTP advertisements to other switches without making any changes to the VLAN configuration. This mode is typically used when there is a need to isolate VTP domains or when the switch needs to be connected to switches in different VTP domains.

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  • 41. 

    139. Which IEEE trunking protocol is used to encapsulate data traffic over a trunk link on a Cisco switch?

    • STP

    • DTP

    • VTP

    • 802.1Q

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.1Q
    Explanation
    802.1Q is the correct answer because it is the IEEE trunking protocol used to encapsulate data traffic over a trunk link on a Cisco switch. This protocol allows for the transmission of multiple VLANs over a single physical link, enabling efficient utilization of network resources and simplifying network management. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a different protocol used for loop prevention, DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) is used for negotiating trunk links, and VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is used for managing VLANs.

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  • 42. 

    142. Refer to the exhibit. Although they are directly connected, switch SWA is not exchanging VLAN information with switch SWC. What can be done to correct this problem?

    • Change the hostname of SWA to SWC.

    • Change the hostname of SWC to SWA.

    • Change the VTP version of SWA to version 1.

    • Change the VTP operating mode of SWA to transparent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Change the VTP version of SWA to version 1.
    Explanation
    To correct the problem of switch SWA not exchanging VLAN information with switch SWC, the VTP version of SWA should be changed to version 1. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is used to synchronize VLAN information across switches in a network. By changing the VTP version of SWA to version 1, it will match the VTP version of SWC and allow the exchange of VLAN information between the switches.

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  • 43. 

    2. Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting

    • User EXEC mode

    • Privileged EXEC mode

    • Global configuration mode

    • Interface configuration mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Privileged EXEC mode
    Explanation
    The correct answer is privileged EXEC mode. In this mode, users have access to all device commands, including those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting. This mode provides a higher level of access and control compared to the user EXEC mode, which only allows basic monitoring and verification commands. Global configuration mode is used for configuring global parameters, while interface configuration mode is used for configuring specific interfaces on the device.

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  • 44. 

    20. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?

    • Zero

    • Four

    • Five

    • Eight

    • Nine

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided in the exhibit, the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the switch is four.

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  • 45. 

    26. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the configuration of this wireless device?

    • This configuration is commonly found in an ad hoc network.

    • All wireless devices that are connected to this access point must have the SSID of Academy.

    • Any wireless clients that are attached to this access point would have the same IP address and SSID.

    • Any wireless clients that are attached to this access point must be connected using the 802.11n WAN protocol.

    Correct Answer
    A. All wireless devices that are connected to this access point must have the SSID of Academy.
    Explanation
    The configuration of this wireless device indicates that all wireless devices connected to this access point must have the SSID of Academy. This means that in order to connect to this access point, the wireless devices must be configured with the same SSID.

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  • 46. 

    51. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?

    • Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.

    • Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.

    • Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.

    • Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.

    • Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
    Explanation
    If the network administrator moves the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1, Host A will no longer be a member of VLAN 10. This is because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. VLAN membership is determined by the port configuration on the switch, and since port Fa0/3 has been specifically assigned to VLAN 30, Host A will no longer be part of VLAN 10.

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  • 47. 

    78. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    In the exhibit, the switch with the lowest Bridge ID (BID) becomes the root switch. The BID is determined by the switch priority and the MAC address. In this case, switch D has the lowest BID for VLAN 20, as its priority is 4096 and its MAC address is the lowest among all the switches. Therefore, switch D will become the root for VLAN 20.

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  • 48. 

    81. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?

    • SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.

    • SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.

    • SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.

    • SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

    Correct Answer
    A. SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
    Explanation
    SSH is advisable for network administrators to use instead of Telnet when managing switches because SSH encrypts all remote management communications, providing a secure and private connection. In contrast, Telnet does not encrypt any data, making it vulnerable to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. By using SSH, sensitive information such as login credentials and configuration details are protected, ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of the network management process.

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  • 49. 

    102. Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?

    • The command contained a syntax error.

    • The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.

    • The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.

    • The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
    Explanation
    The problem is that the "size" parameter in the command only reset the default buffer size but did not actually disable access to the buffer. So even though the command was entered without any syntax errors and there were no error messages, the command history buffer is still available on the Cisco Catalyst switch.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 27, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    TRiXeR
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