CCNA Exam 2020 Questions! Trivia Quiz

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 2644

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CCNA Exam 2020 Questions! Trivia Quiz

If you have plans to become a network engineer or network administrator, you are expected to prove your skills and competence at one point, bypassing the CCNA exams. Are you looking for some CCNA exam 2020 questions to help you pass your exams? The quiz below is perfect for refreshing your memory on every topic you have covered.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 192.168.1.1

    • B. 

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3Source IP: 10.1.1.10

    • C. 

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 10.1.1.10

    • D. 

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3Source IP: 192.168.1.1

    • E. 

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 10.1.1.1

  • 2. 
    What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?
    • A. 

      To assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

    • B. 

      To enable the router as an IPv6 router

    • C. 

      To permit only unicast packets on the router

    • D. 

      To prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

  • 3. 
    What is a characteristic of a static route that creates a gateway of last resort?
    • A. 

      It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

    • B. 

      It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

    • C. 

      It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.

    • D. 

      It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

  • 4. 
    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?
    • A. 

      S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

    • B. 

      S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

    • C. 

      C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

    • D. 

      S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1

    • B. 

      R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0

    • C. 

      R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1

    • D. 

      R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1

  • 6. 
    A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
    • A. 

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

    • B. 

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

    • C. 

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

    • D. 

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      The network prefix is incorrect.

    • B. 

      The destination network is incorrect.

    • C. 

      The interface is incorrect.

    • D. 

      The next hop address is incorrect.

  • 8. 
    Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
    • A. 

      It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

    • B. 

      It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

    • C. 

      It has an administrative distance of 1.

    • D. 

      It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

  • 9. 
    Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (
    • A. 

      They improve netw​ork security.

    • B. 

      They use fewer router resources.

    • C. 

      They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

    • D. 

      They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

    • E. 

      They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

  • 10. 
    To enable RIP ​routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?
    • A. 

      172.16.64.32

    • B. 

      172.16.64.0

    • C. 

      172.16.0.0

    • D. 

      No address is displayed.

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      110

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      782

    • D. 

      0

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      A level 1 child route

    • B. 

      A level 1 parent route

    • C. 

      A level 1 ultimate route

    • D. 

      A level 2 supernet route

  • 13. 
    Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway ​routing protocol to use?
    • A. 

      Scalability

    • B. 

      ISP selection

    • C. 

      Speed of convergence

    • D. 

      The autonomous system that is used

    • E. 

      Campus backbone architecture

  • 14. 
    Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?
    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Data link

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Access

    • E. 

      Core

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      A network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

    • B. 

      A collapsed core network design

    • C. 

      A three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

    • D. 

      A network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      The destination MAC address and the incoming port

    • B. 

      The destination MAC address and the outgoing port

    • C. 

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

    • D. 

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

    • E. 

      The source MAC address and the incoming port

    • F. 

      The source MAC address and the outgoing port

  • 17. 
    Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?
    • A. 

      Collision detecting

    • B. 

      Frame error checking

    • C. 

      Faster frame forwarding

    • D. 

      Frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

  • 18. 
    Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?
    • A. 

      Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.

    • B. 

      Frames are forwarded without any error checking.

    • C. 

      Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

    • D. 

      Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

  • 19. 
    What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?
    • A. 

      The number of broadcast domains is increased.

    • B. 

      The size of the broadcast domain is increased.

    • C. 

      The number of collision domains is reduced.

    • D. 

      The size of the collision domain is increased.

  • 20. 
    In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?
    • A. 

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

    • B. 

      When the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

    • C. 

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

    • D. 

      When the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

  • 21. 
    A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task?
    • A. 

      IP address

    • B. 

      VTP domain

    • C. 

      Vty lines

    • D. 

      Default VLAN

    • E. 

      Default gateway

    • F. 

      Loopback address

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Auto secure MAC addresses

    • B. 

      Dynamic secure MAC addresses

    • C. 

      Static secure MAC addresses

    • D. 

      Sticky secure MAC addresses

  • 23. 
    A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?
    • A. 

      Off

    • B. 

      Restrict

    • C. 

      Protect

    • D. 

      Shutdown

  • 24. 
    Which commands are used to re-enable a port that has been disabled as a result of a port security violation?
    • A. 

      Shutdownno shutdown

    • B. 

      Shutdownno switchport port-security

    • C. 

      Shutdownno switchport port-security violation shutdown

    • D. 

      Shutdownno switchport port-security maximum

  • 25. 
    Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN?
    • A. 

      Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

    • B. 

      The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.

    • C. 

      This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

    • D. 

      High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

    • E. 

      The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

  • 26. 
    Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
    • A. 

      User-generated

    • B. 

      Tagged

    • C. 

      Untagged

    • D. 

      Management

  • 27. 
    An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?
    • A. 

      These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.

    • B. 

      These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

    • C. 

      These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

    • D. 

      Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.

    • B. 

      The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.

    • C. 

      The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

    • D. 

      The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.

  • 29. 
    A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?
    • A. 

      172.16.20.2

    • B. 

      172.16.26.254

    • C. 

      172.16.36.255

    • D. 

      172.16.48.5

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Access-class 5 in

    • B. 

      Access-list 5 deny any

    • C. 

      Access-list  standard VTYpermit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

    • D. 

      Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

    • E. 

      Ip access-group 5 out

    • F. 

      Ip access-group 5 in

  • 31. 
    A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?
    • A. 

      Access-group 11 in

    • B. 

      Access-class 11 in

    • C. 

      Access-list 11 in

    • D. 

      Access-list 110 in

  • 32. 
    Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?
    • A. 

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

    • B. 

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.100.1

    • C. 

      Dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.101.1

    • D. 

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

  • 33. 
    ​Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​
    • A. 

      A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

    • B. 

      R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

    • C. 

      The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

    • D. 

      The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

  • 34. 
    What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?
    • A. 

      The MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface

    • B. 

      A randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

    • C. 

      An IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

    • D. 

      An IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

  • 35. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?
    • A. 

      Ipv6 unicast-routing

    • B. 

      Dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

    • C. 

      Ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

    • D. 

      Ipv6 nd other-config-flag

    • E. 

      Prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

  • 36. 
    Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What ​IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?
    • A. 

      10.130.5.76

    • B. 

      209.165.200.245

    • C. 

      203.0.113.5

    • D. 

      172.16.1.10

    • E. 

      192.0.2.1

    • F. 

      209.165.200.226

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Telnet

    • B. 

      IPsec

    • C. 

      HTTP

    • D. 

      ICMP

    • E. 

      DNS

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      An IPv4 address pool

    • B. 

      An ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server

    • C. 

      The keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command

    • D. 

      The ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload

    • B. 

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp

    • C. 

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload

    • D. 

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overloadip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225

  • 40. 
    What benefit does NAT64 provide?
    • A. 

      It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

    • B. 

      It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

    • C. 

      It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.

    • D. 

      It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

  • 41. 
    ​Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
    • A. 

      The NAT pool has been exhausted.

    • B. 

      The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

    • C. 

      Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

    • D. 

      The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

  • 42. 
    A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
    • A. 

      Show ip protocols

    • B. 

      Show ip interface

    • C. 

      Show cdp neighbors

    • D. 

      Show port-security

    • E. 

      Show mac-address-table

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.

    • B. 

      The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

    • C. 

      An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

    • D. 

      Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.

    • E. 

      The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

  • 44. 
    A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?
    • A. 

      System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.

    • B. 

      System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.

    • C. 

      System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.

    • D. 

      System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.

  • 45. 
    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?
    • A. 

      This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

    • B. 

      This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

    • C. 

      This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

    • D. 

      This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      A maintenance deployment release

    • B. 

      A minor release

    • C. 

      A mainline release

    • D. 

      An extended maintenance release

  • 47. 
    ​Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?
    • A. 

      25574400 bytes

    • B. 

      249856000 bytes

    • C. 

      221896413 bytes

    • D. 

      33591768 bytes

  • 48. 
    ​Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?
    • A. 

      Because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

    • B. 

      Because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

    • C. 

      Because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

    • D. 

      Because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface

    • E. 

      Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command