CCNA Exam 2020 Questions! Trivia Quiz

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CCNA Exam 2020 Questions! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

If you have plans to become a network engineer or network administrator, you are expected to prove your skills and competence at one point, bypassing the CCNA exams. Are you looking for some CCNA exam 2020 questions to help you pass your exams? The quiz below is perfect for refreshing your memory on every topic you have covered.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

    • A.

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 192.168.1.1

    • B.

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3Source IP: 10.1.1.10

    • C.

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 10.1.1.10

    • D.

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3Source IP: 192.168.1.1

    • E.

      Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 10.1.1.1

    Correct Answer
    C. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 10.1.1.10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 and Source IP: 10.1.1.10. This is because the source MAC address represents the physical address of the sending device, and the source IP address represents the logical address of the sending device. In this case, host A has a MAC address of 00E0.FE91.7799 and an IP address of 10.1.1.10, so these values will be used as the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B.

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  • 2. 

    What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

    • A.

      To assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

    • B.

      To enable the router as an IPv6 router

    • C.

      To permit only unicast packets on the router

    • D.

      To prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

    Correct Answer
    B. To enable the router as an IPv6 router
    Explanation
    Configuring the "ipv6 unicast-routing" command on a router enables the router to function as an IPv6 router. This command allows the router to forward IPv6 unicast traffic between different networks, making it capable of routing IPv6 packets. By enabling this command, the router can participate in IPv6 routing protocols, exchange routing information with other routers, and effectively route IPv6 traffic throughout the network.

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  • 3. 

    What is a characteristic of a static route that creates a gateway of last resort?

    • A.

      It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

    • B.

      It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

    • C.

      It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.

    • D.

      It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

    Correct Answer
    C. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.
    Explanation
    A static route that creates a gateway of last resort is configured to identify the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route. This means that if the router does not have a specific route for a destination, it will forward the packets to the specified gateway. This allows the router to have a default route for any traffic that does not match any other routes in its routing table.

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  • 4. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

    • A.

      S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

    • B.

      S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

    • C.

      C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

    • D.

      S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

    Correct Answer
    A. S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2
    Explanation
    The route "S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2" was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address 10.16.2.2. This is indicated by the "S" in the beginning of the line, which stands for static route. The network 10.17.2.0/24 is being routed to the next-hop address 10.16.2.2.

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  • 5. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?

    • A.

      R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1

    • B.

      R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0

    • C.

      R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1

    • D.

      R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1

    Correct Answer
    B. R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0. This command will configure an IPv6 static route on R2, specifying the destination network as 2001:db8:10:12::/64 and the next-hop interface as S0/0/0. By specifying the next-hop interface, the router will not perform any recursive lookups and will directly forward the traffic to the specified interface.

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  • 6. 

    A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

    • A.

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

    • B.

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

    • C.

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

    • D.

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

    Correct Answer
    B. Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200". This command will implement a backup floating static route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. The network address and subnet mask match the OSPF-learned route, and the administrative distance of 200 is higher than the OSPF administrative distance of 100. This means that if the OSPF route fails, the router will use the backup static route.

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  • 7. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

    • A.

      The network prefix is incorrect.

    • B.

      The destination network is incorrect.

    • C.

      The interface is incorrect.

    • D.

      The next hop address is incorrect.

    Correct Answer
    C. The interface is incorrect.
    Explanation
    The error in the static route configuration is that the interface is incorrect. This means that the administrator has specified the wrong interface through which the router should reach the network attached to router R2. As a result, connectivity to the network is still failing. To resolve this issue, the administrator should correct the interface in the static route configuration to ensure proper routing to the destination network.

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  • 8. 

    Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • A.

      It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

    • B.

      It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

    • C.

      It has an administrative distance of 1.

    • D.

      It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    Explanation
    A dynamically learned route is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. Routing protocols are responsible for exchanging information between routers and updating the routing tables accordingly. This allows the routers to adapt to changes in the network topology and choose the most efficient path for forwarding packets. The other statements do not necessarily describe a dynamically learned route.

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  • 9. 

    Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (

    • A.

      They improve netw​ork security.

    • B.

      They use fewer router resources.

    • C.

      They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

    • D.

      They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

    • E.

      They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They improve netw​ork security.
    B. They use fewer router resources.
    Explanation
    Static routes have two advantages over dynamic routes. Firstly, they improve network security as they do not rely on dynamic routing protocols that can be vulnerable to attacks or misconfigurations. Static routes provide a more controlled and secure path for network traffic. Secondly, static routes use fewer router resources compared to dynamic routes. Dynamic routing protocols require constant updates and exchange of routing information, which can consume significant router processing power and memory. In contrast, static routes only require initial configuration and do not impose ongoing resource demands on the router.

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  • 10. 

    To enable RIP ​routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

    • A.

      172.16.64.32

    • B.

      172.16.64.0

    • C.

      172.16.0.0

    • D.

      No address is displayed.

    Correct Answer
    C. 172.16.0.0
    Explanation
    The network administrator entered the command "network 172.16.64.32" to enable RIP routing for a specific subnet. This command is used to include the specified network in the RIP routing process. However, the command does not represent a specific address, but rather a network. In this case, the network address that appears in the running configuration file to identify this network is 172.16.0.0, which represents the network that includes the subnet 172.16.64.32.

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  • 11. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

    • A.

      110

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      782

    • D.

      0

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    The administrative distance value determines the trustworthiness of a routing protocol. A lower value indicates a more reliable route. In this case, the answer is 1, which means that the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network is highly trustworthy and preferred over other routes.

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  • 12. 

    Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its ​routing table for the best match with the destination address?

    • A.

      A level 1 child route

    • B.

      A level 1 parent route

    • C.

      A level 1 ultimate route

    • D.

      A level 2 supernet route

    Correct Answer
    C. A level 1 ultimate route
    Explanation
    A router will use a level 1 ultimate route to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address. This means that the router will choose the most specific route available in its routing table to forward the packet. The level 1 ultimate route represents the final destination network and provides the most accurate and precise path for the packet to reach its destination.

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  • 13. 

    Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway ​routing protocol to use?

    • A.

      Scalability

    • B.

      ISP selection

    • C.

      Speed of convergence

    • D.

      The autonomous system that is used

    • E.

      Campus backbone architecture

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Scalability
    C. Speed of convergence
    Explanation
    When deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use, two important factors to consider are scalability and speed of convergence. Scalability refers to the ability of the protocol to handle a growing network and its ability to efficiently handle a large number of routes. Speed of convergence refers to how quickly the protocol can adapt to changes in the network topology and reroute traffic. These factors are crucial in ensuring that the routing protocol can effectively handle the network's growth and adapt to changes in a timely manner.

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  • 14. 

    Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

    • A.

      Distribution

    • B.

      Data link

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Access

    • E.

      Core

    Correct Answer
    D. Access
    Explanation
    The switches that connect the wireless access points to the Ethernet ports operate at the access layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model. The access layer is responsible for connecting end devices, such as laptops, to the network. It provides access to the network resources and controls user access to the network. In this case, the switches facilitate the connection between the wireless laptops and the enterprise LAN, making them operate at the access layer.

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  • 15. 

    Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

    • A.

      A network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

    • B.

      A collapsed core network design

    • C.

      A three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

    • D.

      A network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

    Correct Answer
    B. A collapsed core network design
    Explanation
    A collapsed core network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users. This design involves collapsing the access and core layers into a single layer. This simplifies the network architecture and reduces the number of devices and connections required. In a small campus site, where there are few users and a single building, this design is efficient and cost-effective. It allows for easy management and troubleshooting, as there are fewer layers and devices to deal with.

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  • 16. 

    Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

    • A.

      The destination MAC address and the incoming port

    • B.

      The destination MAC address and the outgoing port

    • C.

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

    • D.

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

    • E.

      The source MAC address and the incoming port

    • F.

      The source MAC address and the outgoing port

    Correct Answer
    E. The source MAC address and the incoming port
    Explanation
    A switch uses the source MAC address and the incoming port to keep the MAC address table information current. The source MAC address helps the switch identify the device that sent the frame, while the incoming port tells the switch which port the frame was received on. By using this information, the switch can update its MAC address table and associate the MAC address with the correct port for future forwarding of frames.

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  • 17. 

    Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

    • A.

      Collision detecting

    • B.

      Frame error checking

    • C.

      Faster frame forwarding

    • D.

      Frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

    Correct Answer
    B. Frame error checking
    Explanation
    The store-and-forward switching method has an advantage over the cut-through switching method because it performs frame error checking. This means that it checks the integrity of each frame before forwarding it, ensuring that the data has been received correctly and reducing the risk of transmitting corrupted or incomplete frames. This can help to improve the overall reliability and accuracy of data transmission within the network.

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  • 18. 

    Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

    • A.

      Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.

    • B.

      Frames are forwarded without any error checking.

    • C.

      Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

    • D.

      Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.

    Correct Answer
    B. Frames are forwarded without any error checking.
    Explanation
    Cut-through switching is a type of switching technique where frames are forwarded without any error checking. In this method, the switch reads only the destination MAC address of the incoming frame and immediately starts forwarding it to the appropriate outgoing port. This results in lower latency as the switch does not have to wait for the entire frame to be received and checked for errors before forwarding. However, this also means that error detection and correction mechanisms are not employed, making it possible for corrupted or damaged frames to be forwarded.

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  • 19. 

    What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

    • A.

      The number of broadcast domains is increased.

    • B.

      The size of the broadcast domain is increased.

    • C.

      The number of collision domains is reduced.

    • D.

      The size of the collision domain is increased.

    Correct Answer
    B. The size of the broadcast domain is increased.
    Explanation
    When two or more switches are connected together, they create a single larger broadcast domain. A broadcast domain is a network segment where broadcast packets are sent to all devices. By connecting switches, the size of the broadcast domain increases because broadcast packets are now forwarded to all devices connected to all the switches. This allows for more efficient communication and reduces unnecessary network traffic.

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  • 20. 

    In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

    • A.

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

    • B.

      When the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

    • C.

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

    • D.

      When the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

    Correct Answer
    C. When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
    Explanation
    Layer 2 switches typically do not require an IP address as they operate at the data link layer and make forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses. However, in some cases, an IP address may be configured on a Layer 2 switch for remote management purposes. This allows administrators to access and manage the switch remotely using protocols such as Telnet, SSH, or SNMP. By configuring an IP address, the switch can be accessed and controlled from a different network or location, providing convenient and efficient management capabilities.

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  • 21. 

    A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task?

    • A.

      IP address

    • B.

      VTP domain

    • C.

      Vty lines

    • D.

      Default VLAN

    • E.

      Default gateway

    • F.

      Loopback address

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IP address
    C. Vty lines
    E. Default gateway
    Explanation
    To enable remote management access on a Cisco switch, the network administrator needs to configure the following three items:
    1. IP address: This is necessary to assign a unique address to the switch so that it can be accessed remotely.
    2. vty lines: These are virtual terminal lines that allow remote access to the switch via Telnet or SSH.
    3. Default gateway: This is the IP address of the router or layer 3 switch that serves as the exit point for traffic from the switch to reach remote networks. It is required for remote management access to function properly.

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  • 22. 

    As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

    • A.

      Auto secure MAC addresses

    • B.

      Dynamic secure MAC addresses

    • C.

      Static secure MAC addresses

    • D.

      Sticky secure MAC addresses

    Correct Answer
    D. Sticky secure MAC addresses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sticky secure MAC addresses". In this scenario, the switches are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port, and the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained even after a power outage. The "sticky" keyword in the answer suggests that the MAC addresses learned dynamically are "sticky" or persistent. This means that the switches will retain these MAC addresses even after a power outage or reboot, providing a secure and consistent network environment.

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  • 23. 

    A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

    • A.

      Off

    • B.

      Restrict

    • C.

      Protect

    • D.

      Shutdown

    Correct Answer
    C. Protect
    Explanation
    When the violation mode "protect" is configured on an interface, packets with an unknown source address will be dropped without any notification being sent. This means that any packets coming from an unauthorized source will be discarded silently, without any indication being sent to the network administrator.

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  • 24. 

    Which commands are used to re-enable a port that has been disabled as a result of a port security violation?

    • A.

      Shutdownno shutdown

    • B.

      Shutdownno switchport port-security

    • C.

      Shutdownno switchport port-security violation shutdown

    • D.

      Shutdownno switchport port-security maximum

    Correct Answer
    A. Shutdownno shutdown
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shutdownno shutdown". When a port is disabled due to a port security violation, the "shutdown" command is used to disable the port, and the "no shutdown" command is used to re-enable the port.

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  • 25. 

    Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN?

    • A.

      Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

    • B.

      The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.

    • C.

      This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

    • D.

      High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

    • E.

      The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
    E. The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
    Explanation
    The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link because it is the default VLAN that carries traffic generated by users. The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk, allowing for communication between switches.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

    • A.

      User-generated

    • B.

      Tagged

    • C.

      Untagged

    • D.

      Management

    Correct Answer
    C. Untagged
    Explanation
    The native VLAN is a default VLAN that is assigned to all untagged traffic on a trunk port. Untagged traffic means that the traffic does not have any VLAN tags associated with it. Therefore, the correct answer is "untagged" as untagged traffic is specifically designed for the native VLAN.

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  • 27. 

    An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

    • A.

      These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.

    • B.

      These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

    • C.

      These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

    • D.

      Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

    Correct Answer
    D. Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.
    Explanation
    The reason VLANs 10 and 100 were not removed is because they are stored in a file called vlan.dat in flash memory. This file needs to be manually deleted in order to remove the VLANs.

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  • 28. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

    • A.

      The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.

    • B.

      The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.

    • C.

      The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

    • D.

      The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.

    Correct Answer
    B. The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.
    Explanation
    The problem is that the switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface. This means that it is not allowing traffic from multiple VLANs to pass through it. To enable inter-VLAN communication, the interface should be configured as a trunk interface, which allows traffic from multiple VLANs to pass through it.

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  • 29. 

    A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

    • A.

      172.16.20.2

    • B.

      172.16.26.254

    • C.

      172.16.36.255

    • D.

      172.16.48.5

    Correct Answer
    C. 172.16.36.255
    Explanation
    The given ACL command "access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255" specifies a range of IP addresses from 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255. The ACE (Access Control Entry) allows any IP address within this range to pass through the ACL. Among the given options, only the IP address 172.16.36.255 falls within this range, so it matches the ACE and would be permitted by the ACL.

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  • 30. 

    The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers?

    • A.

      Access-class 5 in

    • B.

      Access-list 5 deny any

    • C.

      Access-list  standard VTYpermit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

    • D.

      Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

    • E.

      Ip access-group 5 out

    • F.

      Ip access-group 5 in

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Access-class 5 in
    D. Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it includes the necessary commands to apply an ACL that allows only devices used by network administrators to have Telnet access to the routers. The command "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31" creates an ACL entry that permits traffic from the 10.7.0.0/27 network. The command "access-class 5 in" applies the ACL to the incoming traffic on the VTY lines, ensuring that only devices matching the ACL can access the routers via Telnet.

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  • 31. 

    A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

    • A.

      Access-group 11 in

    • B.

      Access-class 11 in

    • C.

      Access-list 11 in

    • D.

      Access-list 110 in

    Correct Answer
    B. Access-class 11 in
    Explanation
    The correct command to apply the standard ACL to the VTY lines is "access-class 11 in". This command will apply access list 11 to the incoming traffic on the VTY lines, allowing or denying SSH access based on the rules defined in the ACL.

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  • 32. 

    Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

    • A.

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

    • B.

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.100.1

    • C.

      Dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.101.1

    • D.

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

    Correct Answer
    B. Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.100.1
    Explanation
    This set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment. The "ip dhcp excluded-address" command is used to exclude the addresses that should not be assigned dynamically. In this case, the addresses 192.168.100.1 to 192.168.100.10 are excluded. The "ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254" command excludes the last address from dynamic assignment. The "ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100" command creates a DHCP pool named "LAN-POOL-100" and the "network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0" command defines the network and subnet mask for the pool. Finally, the "default-router 192.168.100.1" command sets the default gateway for the DHCP clients.

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  • 33. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

    • A.

      A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

    • B.

      R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

    • C.

      The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

    • D.

      The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

    Correct Answer
    D. The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
    Explanation
    The problem is that the ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface. This command is used to enable the router to forward DHCP requests to a DHCP server on another network. In this case, the command should have been applied on the interface connected to the network where the DHCP server is located. Since it was applied on the wrong interface, the router is not able to forward the DHCP requests to the server, resulting in PC1 not receiving an IPv4 address.

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  • 34. 

    What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

    • A.

      The MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface

    • B.

      A randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

    • C.

      An IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

    • D.

      An IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

    Correct Answer
    A. The MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
    Explanation
    In the EUI-64 process, the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface is used to create an IPv6 interface ID. This involves taking the MAC address, inserting a specific hexadecimal value (FFFE) in the middle, and flipping the seventh bit of the first byte. This process ensures that the resulting 64-bit address is unique and can be used as the interface ID in an IPv6 address.

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  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

    • A.

      Ipv6 unicast-routing

    • B.

      Dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

    • C.

      Ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

    • D.

      Ipv6 nd other-config-flag

    • E.

      Prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

    Correct Answer
    D. Ipv6 nd other-config-flag
    Explanation
    The "ipv6 nd other-config-flag" statement allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests. This statement enables the router to provide additional configuration information to the clients, such as DNS server addresses and domain names, through the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP). By enabling the "other-config-flag", R1 can respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests and provide the necessary configuration information to the clients.

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  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What ​IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

    • A.

      10.130.5.76

    • B.

      209.165.200.245

    • C.

      203.0.113.5

    • D.

      172.16.1.10

    • E.

      192.0.2.1

    • F.

      209.165.200.226

    Correct Answer
    C. 203.0.113.5
    Explanation
    The source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server is 203.0.113.5.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

    • A.

      Telnet

    • B.

      IPsec

    • C.

      HTTP

    • D.

      ICMP

    • E.

      DNS

    Correct Answer
    B. IPsec
    Explanation
    IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a protocol suite used for secure communication over IP networks. It encrypts and authenticates network packets, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. When passing through a NAT (Network Address Translation) device, IPsec traffic may encounter issues because NAT modifies the source and/or destination IP addresses in the packet headers. This modification can interfere with the IPsec encryption and authentication processes, leading to communication problems. Therefore, IPsec traffic is more likely to have problems when passing through a NAT device.

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  • 38. 

    A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

    • A.

      An IPv4 address pool

    • B.

      An ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server

    • C.

      The keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command

    • D.

      The ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses

    Correct Answer
    D. The ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses
    Explanation
    The NAT (Network Address Translation) configuration requires the "ip nat inside source" command to link the inside local (private) and inside global (public) addresses. This command is used to map the private IP address of the web server (192.168.10.15) to a public IP address that can be accessed over the internet. It establishes the connection between the internal network and the external network by translating the IP addresses.

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  • 39. 

    Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?

    • A.

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload

    • B.

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp

    • C.

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload

    • D.

      Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overloadip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225

    Correct Answer
    A. Access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload
    Explanation
    The given answer is appropriate for a small business with the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet. This configuration uses access-list 1 to permit traffic from the 10.0.0.0/8 network, and the "ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload" command enables Network Address Translation (NAT) for the internal network to use the public IP address assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface. This allows the internal network to access the Internet using the single public IP address.

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  • 40. 

    What benefit does NAT64 provide?

    • A.

      It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

    • B.

      It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

    • C.

      It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.

    • D.

      It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

    Correct Answer
    C. It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
    Explanation
    NAT64 provides the benefit of allowing sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. This is useful because it enables communication between IPv6-only hosts and IPv4-only hosts, bridging the gap between the two protocols. By translating the addresses, NAT64 ensures that IPv6 hosts can access resources on an IPv4 network without the need for dual-stack configurations or IPv4 address exhaustion.

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  • 41. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The NAT pool has been exhausted.

    • B.

      The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

    • C.

      Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

    • D.

      The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

    Correct Answer
    A. The NAT pool has been exhausted.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the NAT pool has been exhausted. This means that all the available IP addresses in the NAT pool have been used up, preventing the PC at address 10.1.1.45 from accessing the Internet.

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  • 42. 

    A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

    • A.

      Show ip protocols

    • B.

      Show ip interface

    • C.

      Show cdp neighbors

    • D.

      Show port-security

    • E.

      Show mac-address-table

    Correct Answer
    C. Show cdp neighbors
    Explanation
    The "show cdp neighbors" command provides information about the directly connected Cisco devices, including the device ID, local interface, and the platform of the neighbor device. This command is relevant to both distribution and access layer Cisco devices as it helps the network engineer identify and understand the neighboring devices and their connections, which is crucial for troubleshooting and network management purposes.

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  • 43. 

    Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.

    • B.

      The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

    • C.

      An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

    • D.

      Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.

    • E.

      The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.
    D. Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.
    Explanation
    If a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number, the correct statements are that the NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number and other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP. This means that even though the NTP master cannot reach a clock with a lower stratum number, it will still advertise itself as synchronized at its configured stratum number. Additionally, other systems on the network will still be willing to synchronize to the NTP master despite its inability to reach lower stratum clocks.

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  • 44. 

    A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

    • A.

      System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.

    • B.

      System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.

    • C.

      System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.

    • D.

      System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.

    Correct Answer
    C. System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.
    Explanation
    The global configuration command "logging trap 4" specifies that system messages with logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device. This means that only system messages with severity levels ranging from emergencies to warnings will be sent to the designated logging device for monitoring and analysis. Messages with severity levels 5-7 will not be forwarded.

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  • 45. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

    • A.

      This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

    • B.

      This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

    • C.

      This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

    • D.

      This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

    Correct Answer
    A. This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.
    Explanation
    The message in the syslog server indicates a "normal but significant condition". This means that the message is not an error or an alert that requires immediate action, but it is still important and should be noted. It could be a notification about a specific event or status that is relevant to the system or network being monitored.

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  • 46. 

    What is indicated by the M in the Cisco IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin?

    • A.

      A maintenance deployment release

    • B.

      A minor release

    • C.

      A mainline release

    • D.

      An extended maintenance release

    Correct Answer
    D. An extended maintenance release
    Explanation
    The "M" in the Cisco IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates that it is an extended maintenance release. This means that the image includes bug fixes, security updates, and other maintenance enhancements beyond what is typically included in a regular maintenance release.

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  • 47. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?

    • A.

      25574400 bytes

    • B.

      249856000 bytes

    • C.

      221896413 bytes

    • D.

      33591768 bytes

    Correct Answer
    C. 221896413 bytes
    Explanation
    The given output shows the available space for the new image on the Cisco 2901 router, which is 221896413 bytes.

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  • 48. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

    • A.

      Because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

    • B.

      Because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

    • C.

      Because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

    • D.

      Because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface

    • E.

      Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

    Correct Answer
    E. Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command
    Explanation
    The VLAN 99 is missing because it has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command. This means that the switch is not recognizing VLAN 99 as a valid VLAN and therefore it is not being included in the configuration or output.

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