Blood Products

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Blood Quizzes & Trivia

The collection/transfusion of blood products, including transplantation questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    More oxygen will be released by RBCs if

    • A.

      Levels of 2,3 DPG are high

    • B.

      There is a low P50

    • C.

      Levels of 2,3 DPG are low

    • D.

      ATP is generated

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Levels of 2,3 DPG are high
  • 2. 

    A new anticoagulant-preservative is being evaluated for storing of RBCs for 49 days.  For approval it must demonstrate:

    • A.

      75% survival of RBCs in a recipient 12 hours after transfusion

    • B.

      80% survival of RBCs in a recipient 12 hours after transfusion

    • C.

      75% survival of RBCs in a recipient 24 hours after transfusion

    • D.

      80% survival of RBCs in a recipient 24hours after transfusion

    Correct Answer
    C. 75% survival of RBCs in a recipient 24 hours after transfusion
  • 3. 

    The levels of 2,3 DPG of stored blood return to normal in the recipient after what timeframe following transfusion?

    • A.

      4 hours

    • B.

      8 hours

    • C.

      12 hours

    • D.

      24 hours

    • E.

      72 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 hours
  • 4. 

    Studies with platelet components have shown appox. 50% levels of Factor V and VIII after storage for

    • A.

      1 hour

    • B.

      16 hours

    • C.

      24 hours

    • D.

      72 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 72 hours
  • 5. 

    Which of the following in stored blood correlates to red cell post-transfusion viability?

    • A.

      ATP

    • B.

      2,3 DPG

    • C.

      Dextrose

    • D.

      Sodium phosphate

    • E.

      Rate of transfusion

    Correct Answer
    A. ATP
  • 6. 

    Which of the following in stored blood correlates to red cell function post transfusion?

    • A.

      ATP

    • B.

      2,3 DPG

    • C.

      Dextrose

    • D.

      Sodium phosphate

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,3 DPG
  • 7. 

    What is the minimum amount of RBCs that can be collected in a 450mL collection bag?

    • A.

      300

    • B.

      405

    • C.

      425

    • D.

      450

    Correct Answer
    B. 405
  • 8. 

    Rejuvenated cells must be washed prior to infusion to remove

    • A.

      Excessive hemolysis

    • B.

      High levels of potassium

    • C.

      Inosine which may be toxic

    • D.

      Stroma from old red cells

    • E.

      Cytokines

    Correct Answer
    C. Inosine which may be toxic
  • 9. 

    For proper irradiation the intended dose is

    • A.

      25 Gy in the middle of the component, 15 Gy at any other point

    • B.

      60Gy throughout the entire component container

    • C.

      25Gy throughout the entire component container

    • D.

      15 Gy initally, 25 midpoint, 60 at endpoint

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 Gy in the middle of the component, 15 Gy at any other point
  • 10. 

    The cryopreservation most often used for platelets is

    • A.

      DMSO

    • B.

      Glycerol

    • C.

      HES

    • D.

      Liquid nitrogen

    • E.

      Mannitol

    Correct Answer
    A. DMSO
  • 11. 

    Temperature recording sensors in a refrigerator should be placed

    • A.

      On the top shelf

    • B.

      On the middle shelf

    • C.

      On the bottom shelf

    • D.

      On the inside of the door

    Correct Answer
    A. On the top shelf
  • 12. 

    When shipping frozen blood on dry ice, the shipping container may be labeled as DRY ICE or_____.

    • A.

      Crystallized H30

    • B.

      Carbon Dioxide, Solid

    • C.

      Contains Cryogenic Material

    • D.

      Solid Nitrogen Pellets

    • E.

      Warning: Cold

    Correct Answer
    B. Carbon Dioxide, Solid
  • 13. 

    An autologous donor's hemoglobin shall be no lower than

    • A.

      9 g/dL

    • B.

      10 g/dL

    • C.

      11 g/dL

    • D.

      10.5 g/dL

    • E.

      12 g/dL

    Correct Answer
    C. 11 g/dL
  • 14. 

    Which of the following would defer an autologous donor?

    • A.

      HIV positive

    • B.

      Medication for hypertension

    • C.

      Receiving antibiotics

    • D.

      14 years of age

    • E.

      Hemoglobin 12 g/dL

    Correct Answer
    C. Receiving antibiotics
  • 15. 

    A person with which of the following surgeries would NOT be a candidate for perioperative blood salvage?

    • A.

      Abdominal

    • B.

      Cardiac

    • C.

      Liver transplant

    • D.

      Orthopedic

    • E.

      Eye surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Abdominal
  • 16. 

    The purpose of registering donors is to:

    • A.

      Coordinate the donation process from start to finish

    • B.

      Identify donors and link them to previous records

    • C.

      Process the right number of donors to maintain optimal inventory levels

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Identify donors and link them to previous records
  • 17. 

    Profound hypotension during plasma pheresis is associated with patients taking

    • A.

      ACE inhibitors

    • B.

      Aspirin containing medications

    • C.

      Fiber

    • D.

      Heparin

    • E.

      Acetaminophen

    Correct Answer
    A. ACE inhibitors
  • 18. 

    Extracorporeal volume during plasmapheresis must not exceed what percentage of the patient's blood volume?

    • A.

      5%

    • B.

      10%

    • C.

      15%

    • D.

      20%

    • E.

      25%

    Correct Answer
    C. 15%
  • 19. 

    For plasmapheresis what blood volume exchange is considered for maximum benefit to remove plasma constituents?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      1 to 1.5

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      Up to 3

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 to 1.5
  • 20. 

    For patients undergoing daily plasmapheresis the PT, PTT and fibrinogen levels are checked:

    • A.

      Immediately before and after the procedure

    • B.

      Each morning

    • C.

      Hourly

    • D.

      Every 3 days

    • E.

      Weekly

    Correct Answer
    D. Every 3 days
  • 21. 

    Which of the following markers are used to ID progenitor cells?

    • A.

      CD4

    • B.

      CD8

    • C.

      CD22

    • D.

      CD34

    • E.

      CD44

    Correct Answer
    D. CD34
  • 22. 

    The most effective way(s) to promote progenitor cells in circulation and is used clinically is:

    • A.

      Administration of dextran to the donor

    • B.

      Apheresis performed in the late afternoon

    • C.

      Combination of chemotherapy and growth factors

    • D.

      Repetitive apheresis in committed donors

    Correct Answer
    C. Combination of chemotherapy and growth factors
  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT a condition with established indications for effective use of therapeutic apheresis?

    • A.

      Guillain-Barre syndrome

    • B.

      Multiple sclerosis

    • C.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • D.

      TTP

    Correct Answer
    B. Multiple sclerosis
  • 24. 

    Which of the following is an indeterminate Western Blot result?

    • A.

      Anti-HIV positive by EIA, no bands seen on Western Blot

    • B.

      Anti-HIV positive by EIA, p24 and g41 seen on Western Blot

    • C.

      Anti-HIV positive by EIA, p17 seen on Western Blot

    • D.

      Anti-HIV positive by EIA, pg120/160 seen on Western Blot

    Correct Answer
    C. Anti-HIV positive by EIA, p17 seen on Western Blot
  • 25. 

    What donor medication is a permanent deferral?

    • A.

      Proscar

    • B.

      Accutane

    • C.

      Soriatane

    • D.

      Tegison

    Correct Answer
    D. Tegison
  • 26. 

    A patient who is pregnant may donate after what time frame post delivery?

    • A.

      3 days

    • B.

      2 weeks

    • C.

      6 weeks

    • D.

      8 weeks

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 weeks
  • 27. 

    What cellular line is the last to become engrafted?

    • A.

      Platelets

    • B.

      Red cells

    • C.

      White cells

    • D.

      Unknown

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
  • 28. 

    Which of the following neutrophil counts is used for evidence of engraftment?

    • A.

      500 per microliter

    • B.

      1500 per microliter

    • C.

      10,000 per microliter

    • D.

      500, 000 per microliter

    Correct Answer
    A. 500 per microliter
  • 29. 

    Rescue Transplantation is the term used when

    • A.

      Allogeneic HLA-mismatched donors are used

    • B.

      An organ failed and must be replaced immediately

    • C.

      Autologous HPCs are used

    • D.

      Grafts from pigs are used for heart valves

    Correct Answer
    C. Autologous HPCs are used
  • 30. 

    The benefits of GVT (Graft verses Tumor/Leukemia) is limited to which of the following types of transplants?

    • A.

      HLA-matched

    • B.

      HLA-mismatched

    • C.

      Syngeneic (identical twin)

    • D.

      Bone marrow is used rather than peripheral HPC's

    Correct Answer
    A. HLA-matched
  • 31. 

    Which of the following is NOT expected in hemolytic anemia?

    • A.

      Decreased haptoglobin

    • B.

      Decreased hemoglobin

    • C.

      Decreased serum LDH

    • D.

      Increased reticulocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreased serum LDH
  • 32. 

    The first course of therapy for a person with hemolysis due to a warm autoantibody is

    • A.

      Corticosteroids

    • B.

      IVIG

    • C.

      Plasma exchange

    • D.

      Splenectomy

    • E.

      Aspirin meds

    Correct Answer
    A. Corticosteroids
  • 33. 

    How many mgs of iron are in one unit of blood?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      200

    • D.

      400

    Correct Answer
    C. 200
  • 34. 

    Which of the following is a transmembrane protein of the red cell?

    • A.

      Actin

    • B.

      Ankyrin

    • C.

      Band 3

    • D.

      Spectrin

    Correct Answer
    C. Band 3
  • 35. 

    Which blood group is the urea transporter on the red cell membrane?

    • A.

      Duffy

    • B.

      Kell

    • C.

      Rh

    • D.

      Kidd

    • E.

      Colton

    Correct Answer
    D. Kidd
  • 36. 

    What percentage of oxygen is normally released be red cells in the tissue?

    • A.

      25%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      75%

    • D.

      100%

    Correct Answer
    A. 25%
  • 37. 

    Chronic graft vs host disease

    • A.

      Is associated with increased survival rate

    • B.

      Is associated with ABO incompatible transplants

    • C.

      Occurs within 2 weeks of transplant and lasts 2 months

    • D.

      Occurs in less than 5% of transplant cases

    Correct Answer
    A. Is associated with increased survival rate
  • 38. 

    Which is the most common indicator to base a decision on whether to perform an exchange transfusion in an infant with HDFN?

    • A.

      Albumin levels

    • B.

      Anemia

    • C.

      Antibody specificity

    • D.

      Bilirubin levels

    Correct Answer
    D. Bilirubin levels
  • 39. 

    WHen Doppler methodology is used, cordocentesis is performed when the peak systolic velocity value is:

    • A.

      .5 of the median

    • B.

      At the median

    • C.

      1.5 of the median

    • D.

      2.0 of the median

    Correct Answer
    C. 1.5 of the median
  • 40. 

    The types of von Willebrand's disease that should not use desmonpressin (DDAVP) is

    • A.

      Type I

    • B.

      Type IIa

    • C.

      Type IIb

    • D.

      Type III

    Correct Answer
    C. Type IIb
  • 41. 

    The change in production of IgM to IgG is an example of

    • A.

      Epitope switching

    • B.

      Isotype switching

    • C.

      Immune surveillance

    • D.

      Antibody specificity

    Correct Answer
    B. Isotype switching
  • 42. 

    Most newborns type as which of the following Lewis phenotypes?

    • A.

      Le(a-b-)

    • B.

      Le(a+b-)

    • C.

      Le(a-b+)

    • D.

      Le(a+b+)

    Correct Answer
    A. Le(a-b-)
  • 43. 

    The mode of inheritance of the Kell antigens K (KEL1) and k (KEL2) is:

    • A.

      X-linked dominant

    • B.

      X-linked recessive

    • C.

      Autosomal recessive

    • D.

      Autosomal codominant

    Correct Answer
    D. Autosomal codominant
  • 44. 

    Which of the following HLA antigens corresponds to Bgb?

    • A.

      HLA-B7

    • B.

      HLA-B17

    • C.

      HLA-B27

    • D.

      HLA-A28

    Correct Answer
    B. HLA-B17
  • 45. 

    A strong linkage disequilibrium exists between

    • A.

      HLA-A1 and HLA-B8

    • B.

      HLA-A1 and HLA-B27

    • C.

      HLA-A30 and HLA-B27

    • D.

      HLA-A1 and HLA-B45

    Correct Answer
    A. HLA-A1 and HLA-B8
  • 46. 

    Blood donors in the US make up appox. what percentage of the population?

    • A.

      1%

    • B.

      4%

    • C.

      15%

    • D.

      25%

    Correct Answer
    B. 4%
  • 47. 

    Which of the following is associated with an HLA class I allele?

    • A.

      Anklosing spondylitis

    • B.

      Type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

    • C.

      Narcolepsy

    • D.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Anklosing spondylitis
  • 48. 

    A donor weighing 80 lbs can donate what volume of whole blood?

    • A.

      450mL

    • B.

      405 mL

    • C.

      385 mL

    • D.

      325 mL

    Correct Answer
    D. 325 mL
  • 49. 

    Which of the following donor records must be maintained indefinitely?

    • A.

      Temporary deferral

    • B.

      Donor typing (ABO/Rh)

    • C.

      QC for typing antisera

    • D.

      Signed consent forms

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary deferral
  • 50. 

    Which of the following blood components may carry a risk of CMV infection?

    • A.

      FFP

    • B.

      Cryo

    • C.

      Platelets

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Platelets

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 23, 2013
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 02, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jensley
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