Block 7 Male Femal Embryo BRS W Xpl

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Chachelly
C
Chachelly
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 513 | Total Attempts: 632,738
| Attempts: 319
Quiz Flashcard
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/14 Questions

    The indifferent embryo begins phenotypic sexual differentiation during

    • Week 3 of development
    • Week 5 of development
    • Week 7 of development
    • Week 12 of development
    • Week 12 of development
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This quiz covers the stages of sexual differentiation in human embryos, focusing on key developmental milestones from weeks 7 to 20, and the embryological origins of specific female anatomical structures. It assesses understanding of embryology relevant to medical and biological studies.

Embryology Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    A structure found within the adult female pelvis formed from the gubernaculum is the

    • Broad ligament

    • Suspensory ligament of the ovary

    • Round ligament of the uterus

    • Medial umbilical ligament

    • Median umbilical ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Round ligament of the uterus
    Explanation
    The round ligament of the uterus and the ovarian ligament both form from the gubernaculum.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    The labia minora arise embryologically from which of the following structures?

    • Phallus

    • Labioscrotal swellings

    • Sinovaginal bulbs

    • Urogenital folds

    • Paramesonephric duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Urogenital folds
    Explanation
    In the female, the urogenital folds remain unfused and form the labia minora.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    The uterine tubes of the adult female are derived embryologically from which of the following?

    • Mesonephric duct

    • Mesonephric tubules

    • Paramesonephric duct

    • Paramesonephric tubules

    • Uterovaginal primordium

    Correct Answer
    A. Paramesonephric duct
    Explanation
    The cranial portion of the paramesonephric ducts form the uterine tubes.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    In the male, failure of the urethral folds to fuse completely results in

    • Hypospadias

    • Epispadias

    • Cryptorchidism

    • Congenital inguinal hernia

    • Hydrocele

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypospadias
    Explanation
    Failure of the urethral folds to fuse completely results in the external urethral orifice opening onto the ventral surface of the penis, a condition known as hypospadias.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    The Y chromosome carries a gene on its short arm that codes for

    • Testosterone

    • MIF

    • Testes-determining factor (TDF)

    • Progesterone

    • Estrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Testes-determining factor (TDF)
    Explanation
    The gene product that is coded on the short arm of the Y chromosome is called the testesdetermining factor (TDF).

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Bilateral cryptorchidism usually results in

    • Impotence

    • Sterility

    • Male pseudointersexuality

    • Female pseudointersexuality

    • Testicular feminization syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Sterility
    Explanation
    Sterility is a common result of bilateral cryptorchidism. When both testes fail to descend
    into the scrotum, the increased temperature they are exposed to in the abdominal cavity inhibits
    spermatogenesis.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    The most common cause of testicular feminization syndrome is

    • A 45,X0 genotype

    • A 47,XXY genotype

    • Inadequate production of testosterone and MIF

    • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

    • Lack of androgen receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of androgen receptors
    Explanation
    The most common cause of testicular feminization syndrome is the lack of androgen receptors in the urogenital folds and labioscrotal swellings. Because these tissues lack androgen receptors, they are blind or unresponsive to androgens. Consequently, these tissues develop into
    female external genitalia even though the fetus has a 46,XY genotype.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    After the sinovaginal bulbs have proliferated and fused, they form a solid core of endodermal cells called the

    • Vestibule of the vagina

    • Uterovaginal primordium

    • Urogenital sinus

    • Vaginal plate

    • Clitoris

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaginal plate
    Explanation
    The sinovaginal bulbs proliferate, fuse, and form the vaginal plate under the inductive
    influence of the paramesonephric ducts. The vaginal plate then canalizes to form the inferior two
    thirds of the vagina.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    The most common cause of female pseudointersexuality is

    • A 46,X0 genotype

    • A 47,XXY genotype

    • Lack of androgen receptors

    • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

    • Inadequate production of testosterone and miillerian-inhibiting factor (MIF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    Explanation
    Female pseudointersex individuals have a 46,XX genotype. This condition is most commonly caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia, in which the fetus produces excessive amounts of androgens. The high androgen level masculinizes the female genitalia.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    The most common cause of male pseudointersexuality is

    • A 45,X0 genotype

    • A 47,XXY genotype

    • Inadequate production of testosterone and MIF

    • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

    • Lack of androgen receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Inadequate production of testosterone and MIF
    Explanation
    Male pseudointersex individuals have a 46,XY genotype. This condition is most commonly
    caused by inadequate production of testosterone and MIF by the fetal testes. The low testosterone and MIF levels stunt the development of the male genitalia.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    A 17-year-old girl presents with a complaint of amenorrhea. Physical examination reveals good breast development and normal amount of pubic hair. A rudimentary vagina and a mobile mass within both the right and left labia majora are found on pelvic examination. Ultrasound reveals the absence of a uterus. What is the diagnosis?

    • Testicular feminization syndrome

    • Gonadal dysgenesis

    • Cryptorchidism

    • Female pseudointersexuality

    • Hypospadias

    Correct Answer
    A. Testicular feminization syndrome
    Explanation
    This is a classic case of testicular feminization syndrome. A karyotype analysis would reveal that this normal-appearing 17-year-old girl actually has a 46,XY genotype. The mobile masses within the right and left labia majora are the testes and should be surgically removed because this tissue has a propensity toward malignant tumor formation. The most common cause of this syndrome is a lack of androgen receptors in the phallus, urogenital folds, and labioscrotal swellings.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    The indifferent embryo completes phenotypic sexual differentiation during

    • Week 3 of development

    • Week 5 of development

    • Week 7 of development

    • Week 12 of development

    • Week 20 of development

    Correct Answer
    A. Week 20 of development
    Explanation
    By week 12, female and male characteristics can be recognized. By week 20, phenotypic sexual differentiation is complete.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    One day a 9-year-old girl surprisingly announces to her mother, "Guess what, mommy, I'm not a girl; I'm a boy." The mother is shocked but does not act on the comment. During the next few years, the mother notices some tomboyish behavior and difficulty in social adjustment at school. When the girl is 12 years old, puberty starts with a striking virilization of the external genitalia. The mother is extremely concerned and seeks medical attention.  What is the most likely cause?

    • Male pseudointersexuality

    • Female pseudointersexuality

    • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

    • Testicular feminization

    • Illegal use of anabolic steroids

    • Too much liberal education from her radical feminist teachers

    • An extreme case of penis envy

    Correct Answer
    A. Male pseudointersexuality
    Explanation
    Reduced levels of androgens during fetal development of a XY male fetus cause feminization of the male external genitalia such that the baby can be phenotypically mistaken for female. Parents raise the XY male baby as a girl until puberty or other medical problems bring the child to medical attention.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 26, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.