Pharm - General Anesthetics

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    New potential general anesthetics were tested in laboratory animals. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of each drug is reported in the table below: Which of the following drug has the highest potency? - ProProfs

    New potential general anesthetics were tested in laboratory animals. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of each drug is reported in the table below: Which of the following drug has the highest potency?

    • Drug A
    • Drug B
    • Drug C
    • Drug D
    • Drug E
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Pharm - General Anesthetics - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz on General Anesthetics assesses knowledge on various anesthetic drugs, their effects, and specific clinical implications. It covers drugs like Sevoflurane, Thiopental, and Ketamine, focusing on their induction speeds, risks, and side effects, crucial for medical students and professionals in anesthesiology.

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  • 2. 

    A 61-year-old woman underwent colonoscopy because of rectal bleeding. The woman was very afraid of the procedure and asked for a general anesthesia. Since she had been suffering from coronary artery disease for seven years, etomidate was chosen for anesthesia. Which of the following effects most likely occurred in this patient during the postanesthetic period?

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Delusions

    • Respiratory depression

    • Increased blood pressure

    • Decreased heart rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Nausea and vomiting
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the pharmacological effects of etomidate.
    Answer: A
    Among general anesthetics etomidate is the drug with the highest incidence of postoperative
    nausea and vomiting (>30% of cases).
    B, C, D, E) Actually etomidate doesn’t cause delusion and provokes minimal cardiovascular and
    respiratory depression.

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  • 3. 

    A 63-year-old man underwent surgery to remove a laringeal carcinoma. The man was an heavy smoker and had been suffering from COPD for 15 years. General anesthesia was induced by propofol and maintained by sevoflurane and nitrous oxide. A low dose of ketamine was added to provide additional analgesia. The blockade of which of the following receptors most likely mediated the therapeutic efficacy of ketamine in this patient?

    • Nm cholinergic

    • Alpha-1 adrenergic

    • NMDA glutamatergic

    • GABAergic

    • Endorphinergic

    Correct Answer
    A. NMDA glutamatergic
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the mechanism of action of ketamine
    Answer: C
    The mechanism of action of ketamine most likely involves a blockade of NMDA-type glutamate
    receptors, a mechanism quite close to that of the psychedelic drug phencyclidine. In fact ketamine
    itself has gained popularity as a drug of abuse (it is commonly known as “special K” or “K”).
    A, B, D, E) (see explanation above)

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  • 4. 

    This drug causes a cataleptic state called dissociative anesthesia

    • Halothane

    • Sevoflurane

    • Nitrous oxide

    • Thiopental

    • Propofol

    • Etomidate

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketamine
    Explanation
    Ketamine is known to cause a cataleptic state called dissociative anesthesia. This means that it induces a state where the patient is detached from their surroundings and experiences a sense of dissociation. Ketamine is a commonly used anesthetic for procedures such as surgeries and is also used for sedation in emergency medicine. It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, leading to its dissociative effects.

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  • 5. 

    A 12-year-old was admitted to the hospital with the admitting diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Family history of the patient indicated that his father underwent surgery few years ago ad suffered a serious disorder just after the beginning of general anesthesia. Further analysis indicated that the disorder was an inherited autosomal dominant disease. Because of this the anesthesiologist avoided the use of halogenated anaesthetics in this boy. Which of the following was most likely the disorder suffered by the patient’s father?

    • Acute intermittent porphyria

    • Malignant hyperthermia

    • Acute hepatitis

    • Hemolytic anemia

    • Myasthenia gravis

    Correct Answer
    A. Malignant hyperthermia
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the anesthetic-induced malignant hypertermia.
    Answer: B
    In genetically susceptible patients, all halogenated anesthetics can trigger malignant hyperthermia,
    a autosomal dominant disorder characterized by severe muscle contraction, rapid development of
    hyperthermia and a massive increase in metabolic rate. The syndrome is frequently fatal.
    A) Acute intermittent porphyria is an idiosyncratic disorder that can be triggered by barbiturates,
    not by halogenated anesthetics.
    C) Acute hepatitis is a rare disease that can be induced by halothane but not by other halogenated
    anesthetics. Moreover it is not a genetic disorder.
    D, E) These diseases are not genetically determined and are not induced by halogenated
    anesthetics

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  • 6. 

    This inhaled anesthetic substantially reduced the needed concentration of other inhaled anesthetics given concomitantly

    • Halothane

    • Sevoflurane

    • Nitrous oxide

    • Thiopental

    • Propofol

    • Etomidate

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrous oxide
    Explanation
    Nitrous oxide is the correct answer because it is known to have a synergistic effect with other inhaled anesthetics. This means that when nitrous oxide is used in combination with other inhaled anesthetics, it can significantly reduce the concentration of the other anesthetics needed to achieve the desired effect. This can be beneficial as it can help to minimize the potential side effects and risks associated with higher concentrations of other anesthetics.

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  • 7. 

    A 43-year-old man underwent surgery to remove a prostatic cancer. Sevoflurane was used for general anesthesia. The drug has a minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of 2.0. Which of the following phrases best describes the MAC of an inhalational anesthetic?

    • The blood/gas partition coefficient of the anesthetic

    • The concentration of anesthetic needed for short surgery

    • The ED50 on a conventional quantal dose-response curve

    • The maximal efficacy of the anesthetic

    • The concentration of anesthetic in the inspired air

    Correct Answer
    A. The ED50 on a conventional quantal dose-response curve
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the meaning of the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of
    inhalational anesthetics
    Answer: C
    The Minimum Alveolar Anesthetic Concentration (MAC) is defined as the concentration of the
    anesthetic that results in the immobility of 50% of patients when exposed to a noxious stimulus.
    Thus MAC represent the ED50 on a conventional quantal dose-response curve, and is therefore a
    measure of the potency of the inhaled anesthetic.

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  • 8. 

    A 43-year-old woman underwent dilation and curettage because of an abnormal vaginal bleeding. General anesthesia was performed with thiopental. The patient lost consciousness in about 10 seconds and regained it 15 minutes later. Which of the following phrases best explains why general anesthesia induced by a standard dose of thiopental lasts 5-15 minutes?

    • Slow distribution of the drug into the CNS

    • Fast elimination of the drug from the body

    • Redistribution of the drug into peripheral tissues

    • Rapid biotransformation of the drug by the brain

    • Poor diffusion of the drug into the central neurons

    Correct Answer
    A. Redistribution of the drug into peripheral tissues
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the reason of the short duration of anesthesia induced by
    thiopental.
    Answer: C
    Thiopental rapidly diffuses out of the brain and other highly vascularized tissues and is
    redistributed to muscle, fat and eventually to all body tissues. This is the principal mechanism
    limiting anesthetic duration after a single anesthetic dose.
    A, E) Actually thiopental distributes very rapidly into the CNS. Since it is very lipid soluble, diffusion
    into the CNS neurons is very good.
    B, D) Thiopental half life is about 12 hours, which indicates that the elimination of the drug from the
    body is very slow.

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  • 9. 

    A 48-year-old woman underwent surgery to remove an uterine myoma. General anesthesia was induced with propofol and maintained by sevoflurane and nitrous oxide. The blockade of which of the following receptors most likely mediated the effectiveness of nitrous oxide in this patient?

    • Nm cholinergic

    • Alpha-1 adrenergic

    • NMDA glutamatergic

    • GABAergic

    • 5-HT3 serotonergic

    Correct Answer
    A. NMDA glutamatergic
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the mechanism of action of nitrous oxide
    Answer: C
    Nitrous oxide is a potent and selective inhibitor of NMDA activated current, suggesting that its CNS
    depressants effects are produced via a non competitive antagonistic activity at NMDA receptors
    A, B, D, E) (see explanation above)

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  • 10. 

    A 57-year-old man was undergoing surgery to remove a kidney carcinoma. The anesthesia was induced withy propofol, maintained with halothane, and supplemented by succinylcholine. A few minutes into the operation the patient exhibited fever of 104° F, skeletal muscle contracture, and profuse diaphoresis. His blood pressure dropped to 80/50 mm Hg and the heart rate was 125 bpm. Which of the following molecular actions best explains the signs and symptoms of the patient?

    • Excessive release of acetylcholine from motor neuron terminals

    • Opening of K+ channels in skeletal muscle membrane

    • Excessive release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • Blockade of Ca++ channel in skeletal muscle membrane

    • Opening of Cl- channels in motor end plate

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia.
    Answer: C
    The signs of the patient strongly suggest that he was suffering from malignant hyperthermia, a rare
    autosomal dominant disorder that can be triggered by the administration of halogenated
    anesthetics and/or succinylcholine. The pathogenesis of the disease is thought to involve a
    mutation in the gene encoding the skeletal muscle ryanodine receptor, a channel responsible for
    the regulation of Ca++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This mutation would result in an
    excessive release of CA++ which would be the main cause of the symptoms and signs of malignant
    hyperthermia.
    A, B, D, E) All these actions do not cause the syndrome exhibited by the patient.

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  • 11. 

    A 49-year-old woman underwent abdominal surgery to remove a colon cancer. The anesthesia was performed with thiopental, fentanyl and nitrous oxide. Which of the following adverse effects was most likely to occur shortly after the recovery from anesthesia?

    • Watery diarrhea

    • Malignant hyperthermia

    • Hallucinations

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Strong pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Nausea and vomiting
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the adverse effects of general anesthesia
    Answer: D
    All the drugs used in the patient’s anesthetic protocol can cause postoperative nausea and
    vomiting by an action on the chemoreceptor trigger zone and on the brainstem vomiting center. The
    incidence of vomiting in the postoperative period with these drugs is about 15%.
    A) Opioids actually tend to cause constipation
    B) Halogenated anesthetic can very rarely cause malignant hyperthermia
    C) Ketamine is the only anesthetic agent that has been associated with postoperative perceptual
    illusion and hallucinations.
    E) Postoperative strong pain is quite unlikely when a strong opioid like fentanyl has been used in
    the anesthetic protocol.

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  • 12. 

      A halogenated anesthetic that causes fast induction and recovery  

    • Halothane

    • Sevoflurane

    • Nitrous oxide

    • Thiopental

    • Propofol

    • Etomidate

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Sevoflurane
    Explanation
    Sevoflurane is a halogenated anesthetic that is known for its fast induction and recovery properties. It is commonly used in anesthesia due to its rapid onset of action and quick elimination from the body, allowing patients to wake up quickly after surgery. Sevoflurane is also considered to have a lower risk of side effects compared to other halogenated anesthetics, making it a preferred choice in many clinical settings.

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  • 13. 

    A 63-year-old woman underwent surgery to remove a vulvar cancer. The patient was a heavy smoker and had been suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 20 years. General Anesthesia was induced with propofol and maintained with sevoflurane. Which of the following sevoflurane effects most likely occurred during surgery?

    • Decreased cardiac output

    • Increased ventilatory response to carbon dioxide

    • Bronchodilation

    • Increased skeletal muscle tone

    • Increased uterine tone

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchodilation
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the pharmacological effects of isoflurane.
    Answer: C
    All halogenated anesthetics have bronchodilating properties, an effect of value in patients with
    underlying airway problems, like in the present case.
    A) Cardiac output is minimally affected by sevoflurane.
    B, D, E) In fact sevoflurane has effects opposite to those listed.

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  • 14. 

    A 4-year-old girl, who had been suffering from asthma for six months, was scheduled for a short suture procedure that was anticipated to take approximately 10 minutes. She was brought to the operation room by her parents and was in distress over parting from them and afraid of the doctors. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for providing sedation and analgesia to this girl?

    • Ketamine

    • Thiopental

    • Fentanyl

    • Halothane

    • Sevoflurane

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketamine
    Explanation
    Learning objective: outline the therapeutic uses of ketamine.
    Answer: A
    Ketamine is a general anesthetic that induces a state of sedation, characterized by immobility,
    profound analgesia, anterograde amnesia and a strong feeling of dissociation from the
    environment without complete loss of consciousness. This state has been termed dissociative
    anesthesia. Since it can provoke postoperative disorientation, perceptual illusions and vivid
    dreams, it is not commonly used in general surgery. The drug causes negligible respiratory
    depression and significant sympathetic stimulation. It is used in case of short, painful procedures in
    children (who are less involved in the mental effect of the drug) especially when they have
    respiratory problems, like in the present case.
    B, C) These drugs can cause significant respiratory depression
    D, E) Halogenated anesthetics are not suitable for minor surgical procedures.

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  • 15. 

    A 52-year-old woman underwent hysterectomy to remove an endometrial carcinoma. Anesthesia was induced with thiopental and maintained with nitrous oxide and halothane. Which of the following statements best explains why another anesthetic like halothane was added to nitrous oxide ?

    • To achieve a more complete analgesia

    • To maintain unconsciousness and muscle relaxation

    • To prevent sensitization of the myocardium to catecholamines

    • To prevent anesthesia induced respiratory depression

    • To prevent post anesthetic nausea and vomiting

    Correct Answer
    A. To maintain unconsciousness and muscle relaxation
    Explanation
    Answer: B
    Unconsciousness, which is usually achieved with thiopental, cannot be maintained with nitrous
    oxide alone (the drug has a MAC higher than 100%) and therefore another potent anesthetic is
    needed. Moreover nitrous oxide nas negligible effects on skeletal muscle tone and therefore an
    halogenated anesthetic is given together, most of the time (all halogenated anesthetics cause
    relaxation of skeletal muscle and enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents).
    A) Actually the nitrous oxide induced analgesia is excellent, even at low concentration of the gas.
    C, D, E) Actually halothane can cause, not prevent, all these listed effects.

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  • 16. 

    A 44-year-old man underwent surgery because of a prolapsed intervertebral disk. General anesthesia was induced with propofol and maintained with sevoflurane. When administration of sevoflurane was discontinued the patient regained consciousness in few minutes. Which of the following statements best explains why sevoflurane caused a rapid anesthetic recovery?

    • It redistributed rapidly to the lipid tissue

    • It is rapidly metabolized

    • It has a low MAC value

    • It has a low blood/gas partition coefficient

    • It concentrates mainly into the cerebral cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. It has a low blood/gas partition coefficient
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the relationship between blood/gas partition coefficient and speed
    of induction and recovery from general anesthesia.
    Answer: D
    Sevoflurane has a blood/gas partition coefficient of 0.69. Since the speed of induction and
    recovery of anesthesia is inversely proportional to the blood/gas partition coefficient, sevoflurane
    causes a rapid anesthetic induction and recovery.
    A) Redistribution can be a factor that speed up the recovery from anesthesia but sevoflurane has
    low lipid solubility and therefore redistribution into lipid tissue is minimal.
    B) Metabolism of sevoflurane is very low (about 3%).
    C) The MAC of an inhalational anesthetic is a measure of the potency of the drug i.e. it is a
    pharmacodynamic variable. The speed of induction is dependent upon pharmacokinetic variables.
    E) Inhalational anesthetics distribute uniformly into the brain. They are not concentrated in a
    specific region of the brain.

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  • 17. 

    This drug can trigger an attack of acute porphyria in risk patients.

    • Halothane

    • Sevoflurane

    • Nitrous oxide

    • Thiopental

    • Propofol

    • Etomidate

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Thiopental
    Explanation
    Thiopental is a drug that can trigger an attack of acute porphyria in risk patients. Acute porphyria is a group of rare genetic disorders that affect the production of heme, a component of hemoglobin. Certain drugs, including thiopental, can induce an attack in individuals with a predisposition to porphyria. These attacks can cause severe abdominal pain, neurological symptoms, and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, it is important to avoid thiopental in patients with a history of porphyria or those at risk for the condition.

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  • 18. 

    A 52-year-old man underwent liver biopsy for a suspected liver cancer. Conscious sedation was induced with a drug combination that has the advantage of being reversible by the administration of specific receptor antagonists. Which of the following pairs of drugs was most likely administered ?

    • Fentanyl and thiopental

    • Fentanyl and midazolam

    • Fentanyl and ketamine

    • Thiopental and midazolam

    • Thiopental and ketamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Fentanyl and midazolam
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the drug used for conscious sedation that have the advantage of
    being reversible by the administration of specific receptor antagonists.
    Answer: B
    Conscious sedation refers to a drug-induced state of altered consciousness with the following
    features:
    -Consciousness is not lost (patient can respond to verbal commands)
    -A patent airway is maintained (patient do not have to be ventilated)
    -Cardiovascular effects are generally not marked.
    -Anxiety is alleviated
    -Pain is relieved.
    -Some degree of anterograde amnesia is present.
    A wide variety of IV anesthetic agents (benzodiazepines, propofol, opioids) have been used.
    Benzodiazepines and opioids have the advantage that their effects can be easily reversed by the
    use of specific receptor antagonists (flumazenil and naloxone).
    A, C, D, E) There are not specific antagonists for thiopental and ketamine

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  • 19. 

    This drug has the highest incidence of postanesthetic nausea and vomiting.

    • Halothane

    • Sevoflurane

    • Nitrous oxide

    • Thiopental

    • Propofol

    • Etomidate

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Etomidate
    Explanation
    Etomidate is known to have the highest incidence of postanesthetic nausea and vomiting among the given options.

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  • 20. 

    A 61-year-old man underwent surgery to remove a prostate cancer. An IV injection of thiopental was performed and the patient lost consciousness in 10 seconds. Which of the following mechanism of action most likely mediated the anesthetic effect of the drug?

    • Increased affinity of GABA for its GABA-A receptor

    • Enhancement of beta-carboline affinity for GABA-A receptor

    • Blockade of NMDA glutamate receptors in the CNS

    • Enhancement of Cl- channel opening in the absence of GABA

    • Activation of GABA-B receptors on presynaptic terminals

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhancement of Cl- channel opening in the absence of GABA
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the mechanism of action of barbiturates.
    Answer: D
    All barbiturates increase the affinity of GABA for its GABA-A receptor but, unlike benzodiazepines,
    they can enhance Cl- channel opening in the absence of GABA, when given at high doses. Since
    the dose of thiopental was high enough to lose consciousness the mechanism of this action was
    most likely an Enhancement of Cl- channel opening in the absence of GABA.
    A, B, C, E) (see explanation above)

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly

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